Get ready for Chemistry with these CBSE Class 12 MCQs, organized chapter by chapter for 2026-27. They help you master the current exam pattern, and build sharper problem-solving skills.
What Class 12 Students Gain From Chemistry MCQs
- Built around the 2026 Chemistry textbook from CBSE, following their latest guidelines.
- Covers several formats beyond regular MCQs - Assertion-Reasoning, Case-based, and Fill-in-the-blanks for Chemistry.
- Organized sets that test your understanding of every important Chemistry topic, chapter by chapter.
- Every Chemistry MCQ comes with a correct, explained answer - not just the right option.
Chapter-wise Chemistry Questions - Class 12
Below are the latest 2026-27 sets for Chemistry. They work well for self-assessment, helping you spot weak spots ahead of your exams.
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Quick Practice - Try a Few Questions First Pick a chapter below, answer a few questions instantly, then jump to the full set list for more. Q1.Which colligative property gives the most accurate molecular mass for large molecules such as proteins? Answer: (b) Osmotic pressure. Even a very dilute solution produces a measurable osmotic pressure, which makes it far more sensitive than the other methods for large molecules.
Q2.Henry's law relates the: Answer: (a) Solubility of a gas in a liquid to its pressure. It states that the partial pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its mole fraction in solution.
Q3.A solution that obeys Raoult's law at every concentration is called: Answer: (a) An ideal solution. There is no change in enthalpy or volume when the components of such a solution are mixed together.
Q4.The Van't Hoff factor for a solute that undergoes dissociation is: Answer: (c) Greater than 1. Dissociation increases the actual number of particles in solution, so the observed colligative property turns out larger than expected.
Q5.Depression in freezing point is a colligative property because it depends on: Answer: (b) The number of solute particles present. This is exactly what defines a colligative property. It depends only on particle count, not on what the solute actually is.
Q1.In a galvanic cell, oxidation takes place at the: Answer: (b) Anode. This is where electrons are actually released, before flowing out toward the external circuit.
Q2.The standard hydrogen electrode has a reduction potential of: Answer: (b) 0 V. It's assigned this value by convention and used as the reference point against which every other electrode potential is measured.
Q3.Kohlrausch's law is used to calculate the: Answer: (a) Molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte at infinite dilution. This value cannot be measured directly for weak electrolytes, so it's calculated using individual ionic contributions instead.
Q4.In an electrolytic cell, electrical energy is converted into: Answer: (a) Chemical energy. This is essentially the reverse of a galvanic cell, where chemical energy is converted into electrical energy instead.
Q5.A hydrogen oxygen fuel cell that generates electricity produces which by-product? Answer: (b) Water. This is actually one of the biggest advantages of hydrogen fuel cells, since it makes them a genuinely clean energy source.
Q1.The rate of a chemical reaction is generally expressed in units of: Answer: (a) mol L-1 s-1. This tells you how the concentration of a reactant or product changes as time passes.
Q2.For a first order reaction, the half life is: Answer: (b) Independent of initial concentration. This is one of the defining features that sets a first order reaction apart from other reaction orders.
Q3.The order of a reaction is determined: Answer: (b) Experimentally. Unlike molecularity, which comes straight from the mechanism, order has to be found through actual rate experiments and cannot simply be read off the equation.
Q4.According to the Arrhenius equation, raising the temperature generally: Answer: (b) Increases the rate constant. A higher temperature gives more molecules enough energy to clear the activation energy barrier, so the reaction speeds up.
Q5.A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction by: Answer: (b) Lowering the activation energy. It provides an alternate reaction pathway that needs less energy to get started, without being consumed itself.
Q1.Transition elements are characterised by a partially filled: Answer: (c) d orbital. This partial filling is exactly what gives transition metals their typical properties, such as variable oxidation states and coloured compounds.
Q2.Which of these is a common property of transition metals? Answer: (a) Formation of coloured compounds. This colour usually comes from d to d electron transitions within the partially filled d orbitals.
Q3.Lanthanoid contraction refers to the: Answer: (b) Steady decrease in atomic and ionic size. Poor shielding by the 4f electrons lets the effective nuclear charge pull the outer electrons in more tightly as you move across the series.
Q4.Transition metals commonly show variable oxidation states mainly because of: Answer: (b) The similar energies of the (n-1)d and ns orbitals. Since electrons from both can take part in bonding fairly easily, several different oxidation states become possible.
Q5.Which of these is generally NOT considered a true transition element, since its d subshell is completely filled? Answer: (b) Zn. Zinc has a fully filled d10 configuration in all its common states, so it doesn't show the typical variable oxidation states of a true transition metal.
Q1.In a coordination compound, the central metal atom or ion is surrounded by: Answer: (a) Ligands. These are ions or molecules that donate a pair of electrons to the central metal atom, forming a coordinate bond.
Q2.The number of ligand donor atoms directly bonded to the central metal atom is called the: Answer: (b) Coordination number. In a complex like [Co(NH3)6]3+, for example, cobalt has a coordination number of six.
Q3.According to Werner's theory, the secondary valency of a metal is satisfied by: Answer: (a) Ligands. Werner separated primary valency, which is the metal's oxidation state, from secondary valency, which corresponds to what we now call the coordination number.
Q4.A ligand able to donate more than one electron pair from different donor atoms is called a: Answer: (b) Polydentate or chelating ligand. EDTA is a well known example, able to bind through as many as six donor atoms at once.
Q5.Which theory explains the colour and magnetic properties of coordination compounds based on d orbital splitting? Answer: (b) Crystal Field Theory. It explains how surrounding ligands split the otherwise equal energy d orbitals into different levels, which accounts for both colour and magnetic behaviour.
Q1.The reaction of a haloalkane with alcoholic KOH mainly gives: Answer: (b) An alkene. This is an elimination reaction, commonly called dehydrohalogenation in organic chemistry.
Q2.SN1 reactions generally proceed through the formation of a: Answer: (b) Carbocation intermediate. This forms in a slow first step, which is why tertiary haloalkanes generally react faster than primary ones through this pathway.
Q3.Grignard reagents are prepared by reacting haloalkanes with: Answer: (b) Magnesium metal in dry ether. The dry conditions matter a lot, since Grignard reagents react vigorously with even traces of moisture.
Q4.Which haloarene is prepared industrially by chlorinating benzene in the presence of a catalyst like FeCl3? Answer: (a) Chlorobenzene. This proceeds through electrophilic substitution, quite different from how haloalkanes typically react.
Q5.DDT, a well known pesticide, chemically belongs to which class of compounds? Answer: (b) Haloarene. Despite its usefulness in pest control, DDT is now banned or restricted in many countries because it persists in the environment and builds up in the food chain.
Q1.Phenols are more acidic than alcohols mainly because: Answer: (a) The phenoxide ion is stabilised by resonance. This delocalisation of negative charge across the benzene ring makes it much easier for phenol to lose a proton than a simple alcohol.
Q2.The reaction of an alcohol with a carboxylic acid, using an acid catalyst, to form an ester is called: Answer: (a) Esterification. This is a reversible reaction, and using an excess of one reactant is a common way to push it further toward product formation.
Q3.Which reagent is used in the Lucas test to distinguish primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols? Answer: (a) Anhydrous ZnCl2 in concentrated HCl. Tertiary alcohols react almost immediately, secondary alcohols take a few minutes, and primary alcohols barely react at room temperature.
Q4.Ethers are generally prepared in the laboratory using which method? Answer: (b) Williamson's synthesis. It involves reacting a sodium alkoxide with a suitable haloalkane through an SN2 type reaction.
Q5.Which of these was historically one of the first phenolic disinfectants used in surgery? Answer: (b) Carbolic acid, or phenol. Joseph Lister famously pioneered its use as an antiseptic in surgery during the 19th century.
Q1.Aldehydes give a positive Tollens' test, unlike ketones, by forming a: Answer: (a) Silver mirror. The aldehyde reduces the silver ammonia complex to metallic silver, which deposits on the inside of the test tube.
Q2.Which test specifically distinguishes aldehydes from ketones through a red precipitate? Answer: (b) Fehling's test. Fehling's solution turns aldehydes into a characteristic brick red precipitate of cuprous oxide, while ketones generally don't respond the same way.
Q3.Carboxylic acids are generally more acidic than phenols because: Answer: (a) The carboxylate ion is more effectively stabilised by resonance. In the carboxylate ion, the negative charge spreads equally over two oxygen atoms, which stabilises it even more than the phenoxide ion.
Q4.The iodoform test is given by compounds containing which structural group? Answer: (a) A CH3CO group or a CH3CH(OH) group. A positive test produces a yellow precipitate of iodoform, which has a fairly distinctive smell.
Q5.Which carboxylic acid is commonly found in vinegar? Answer: (b) Acetic acid. Vinegar is essentially a dilute aqueous solution containing roughly 5 to 8 percent acetic acid.
Q1.Amines act as: Answer: (b) Bases. The lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom is what lets amines accept a proton, giving them their basic character.
Q2.Aniline is an example of a: Answer: (b) Aromatic primary amine. It's actually less basic than most aliphatic amines, since the lone pair on nitrogen gets partly delocalised into the benzene ring.
Q3.The reaction of primary aromatic amines with nitrous acid at low temperature produces a: Answer: (a) Diazonium salt. This reaction is carried out at low temperatures, typically between 0 and 5 degrees Celsius, since diazonium salts are quite unstable when it's warmer than that.
Q4.Which method is commonly used to prepare amines by reducing nitro compounds? Answer: (a) Hydrogen gas with a nickel, palladium, or platinum catalyst. This catalytic hydrogenation converts a nitro group into a primary amine.
Q5.Amines have a distinctly higher boiling point than hydrocarbons of similar molecular mass mainly because of: Answer: (b) Hydrogen bonding between amine molecules. The N-H bond lets amines form hydrogen bonds with each other, and breaking those bonds during boiling takes extra energy.
Q1.Which of these is a monosaccharide? Answer: (b) Glucose. It cannot be broken down into a simpler sugar unit through hydrolysis, which is exactly what makes it a monosaccharide.
Q2.Proteins are polymers made up of: Answer: (b) Amino acids. These join together through peptide bonds, formed between the amino group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of the next.
Q3.The secondary structure of a protein mainly refers to: Answer: (b) Regular folding patterns such as the alpha helix and beta sheet. These shapes are held together mostly by hydrogen bonding within the polypeptide chain.
Q4.DNA differs from RNA mainly because DNA contains: Answer: (b) Deoxyribose sugar and thymine. RNA, by contrast, contains ribose sugar and uses uracil in place of thymine.
Q5.Vitamins that dissolve in fat and can be stored in the body are: Answer: (b) Vitamins A, D, E, and K. Since the body can store these, taking them in excess for a long period can actually lead to toxicity, unlike water soluble vitamins.
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| Unit 9 Amines MCQs Set 05 |
| Unit 9 Amines MCQs Set 03 |
| Unit 9 Amines MCQs Set 07 |
| Unit 9 Amines MCQs Set 06 |
| Unit 9 Amines MCQs Set 02 |
| Unit 9 Amines MCQs Set 04 |
| Unit 9 Amines MCQs Set 01 |
Free study material for Chemistry
FAQs
For the 2026-27 session, MCQs and objective-type questions carry around 20% weightage. CBSE has introduced 30% competency based questions as MCQs and they are important part of the Class 12 Chemistry paper.
You can access the latest chapter-wise MCQs for Class 12 Chemistry for free from StudiesToday.com. All questions are based on the latest syllabus and current academic year.
Yes, our Chemistry practice bank includes the new pattern of Assertion Reasoning and Case Study based MCQs. They have been designed to test the analytical skills of Class 12 students.
Solving Class 12 Chemistry MCQs regularly improves speed and accuracy as these are objective questions can get you 100% marks if your understanding of the topic is clear.
Yes, all Class 12 Chemistry MCQs and answers are accessible on any device at your convenience.
No, all Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), practice papers, and solutions for Class 12 are available for free for students to get more marks school exams.