These CBSE Class 9 Science MCQs are updated for 2026-27, organized by chapter. They help Class 9 students learn the current Science exam style, and build real problem-solving skill along the way.
Why Practice Class 9 Science Objective Questions?
- Covers several formats beyond regular MCQs - Assertion-Reasoning, Case-based, and Fill-in-the-blanks for Science.
- Organized sets that test your understanding of every important Science topic, chapter by chapter.
- Accurate answers for every Science MCQ, so you learn the logic behind each correct choice.
- Matched closely to the 2026 CBSE Science textbook and current guidelines.
Class 9 Science Question Bank, Chapter by Chapter
The 2026-27 Science sets below are ready to use. Try them for self-assessment, and to see which topics need extra revision before exams.
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Quick Practice - Class 9 Science (NCERT) Select any chapter below to test your knowledge with interactive MCQs and instant model solutions. Q1.Which of the following is the fundamental foundation of scientific inquiry? Answer: (a) Systematic observation, testable hypothesis, and empirical experimentation. Scientific methodology requires rigorous questioning, controlled testing, and repeatable observations.
Q2.In a controlled scientific experiment, the variable that is deliberately altered by the investigator is called: Answer: (b) Independent variable. The independent variable is intentionally changed by the experimenter to observe its effect on the dependent variable.
Q3.Which standard SI unit is universally used for measuring thermodynamic temperature? Answer: (c) Kelvin (K). Kelvin (K) is the base SI unit of temperature, related to Celsius by $T(\text{K}) = T(^\circ\text{C}) + 273.15$.
Q4.A tentative, testable explanation formulated to explain an observed natural phenomenon is known as a: Answer: (a) Hypothesis. A hypothesis is a testable proposition that can be supported or refuted through experimentation.
Q5.What is the primary role of a 'control group' in a comparative scientific investigation? Answer: (d) To serve as a baseline benchmark against which experimental outcomes are compared. The control group remains unexposed to the independent variable to isolate the effects of the treatment.
Q1.Which organelle is universally designated as the "Powerhouse of the Cell" due to ATP synthesis? Answer: (b) Mitochondria. Mitochondria generate cellular energy in the form of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate) via cellular respiration.
Q2.The movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane along a concentration gradient is called: Answer: (a) Osmosis. Osmosis is the passive diffusion of solvent (water) across a semipermeable membrane from high water potential to low water potential.
Q3.Which organelle contains hydrolytic digestive enzymes and is termed the "Suicide Bag" of the cell? Answer: (c) Lysosome. Lysosomes contain powerful hydrolytic enzymes capable of digesting foreign matter and damaged cellular components.
Q4.Plant cell walls are primarily composed of which complex carbohydrate? Answer: (b) Cellulose. Cellulose is a structural polysaccharide that provides rigidity, mechanical support, and protection to plant cells.
Q5.Which of the following cellular structures is present in prokaryotic cells? Answer: (d) 70S Ribosomes. Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles and a true nucleus, but possess non-membrane-bound 70S ribosomes for protein synthesis.
Q1.Which plant tissue is actively responsible for the increase in girth (diameter) of stems and roots? Answer: (b) Lateral meristem (Cambium). Lateral meristematic tissue facilitates secondary growth, increasing the girth and thickness of the plant axis.
Q2.The husk of a coconut is composed of dead, thick-walled cells belonging to which tissue? Answer: (c) Sclerenchyma. Sclerenchyma consists of dead, heavily lignified cells that provide structural rigidity and mechanical strength.
Q3.Which connective tissue links skeletal muscles firmly to bones? Answer: (a) Tendon. Tendons are dense fibrous connective tissues connecting muscles to bones, while ligaments connect bones to bones.
Q4.Which vascular tissue conducts photosynthesized organic nutrients (sucrose) bidirectionally in plants? Answer: (d) Phloem (Sieve tubes & Companion cells). Phloem conducts soluble organic food from source leaves to storage and growing organs via translocation.
Q5.Involuntary, branched, and uninucleated muscle fibres with intercalated discs are found exclusively in: Answer: (b) Heart wall (Cardiac muscles). Cardiac muscle cells are cylindrical, branched, uninucleated, and contract rhythmically without fatigue.
Q1.An athlete completes one circular lap of radius $r$ in 40 seconds. What is the displacement at $t = 2$ minutes? Answer: (b) $2r$. In 2 minutes (120 s), the athlete completes $120/40 = 3.5$ revolutions. After 3.5 laps, the athlete is diametrically opposite to the start point, so displacement $= 2r$.
Q2.The area enclosed under a Velocity-Time ($v\text{-}t$) graph represents which physical quantity? Answer: (a) Displacement / Distance traveled. The integral $\int v \, dt$ equals the geometric area under the velocity-time curve, representing total displacement.
Q3.A vehicle uniformly accelerates from rest at $2\text{ m/s}^2$ for 5 seconds. What distance does it cover? Answer: (c) 25 m. Using kinematic equation $s = ut + \frac{1}{2}at^2$: with $u = 0$, $s = \frac{1}{2} \times 2 \times 5^2 = 25\text{ m}$.
Q4.When an object moves in a circular path at constant speed, its motion is classified as: Answer: (a) Accelerated motion (due to continuous direction change). Even with uniform speed, velocity continuously changes direction, generating centripetal acceleration ($a = v^2/r$).
Q5.The slope of a Distance-Time graph directly indicates the object's: Answer: (b) Speed. Slope $= \Delta s / \Delta t$, which represents the rate of change of distance with time (speed).
Q1.The scattering of a visible beam of light when passed through a colloidal solution is termed the: Answer: (a) Tyndall Effect. Colloidal particles are large enough ($1\text{--}1000\text{ nm}$) to scatter light, illuminating the light beam path.
Q2.Which technique is ideal for separating two miscible liquids whose boiling points differ by less than 25 K? Answer: (c) Fractional Distillation. A fractionating column provides multiple condensation-vaporization cycles to cleanly separate close boiling fractions.
Q3.A solution containing 40 g of common salt dissolved in 320 g of water has a mass percentage concentration of: Answer: (b) 11.1%. $\text{Mass \%} = \frac{\text{Mass of Solute}}{\text{Mass of Solution}} \times 100 = \frac{40}{40 + 320} \times 100 = \frac{40}{360} \times 100 \approx 11.11\%$.
Q4.Which of the following represents a homogeneous mixture? Answer: (d) Brass (Copper-Zinc alloy). Alloys are solid solutions exhibiting uniform composition and single-phase characteristics throughout.
Q5.Camphor can be cleanly separated from a mixture with sodium chloride using: Answer: (a) Sublimation. Camphor sublimes directly from solid to vapor phase upon heating, leaving non-sublimable NaCl behind.
Q1.Newton's First Law of Motion defines the fundamental physical concept of: Answer: (b) Inertia. The first law states that an object resists changes to its state of rest or uniform motion, defining qualitative inertia.
Q2.What net force is required to accelerate a 1500 kg automobile at $3\text{ m/s}^2$? Answer: (a) 4500 N. Applying Newton's Second Law: $F = ma = 1500\text{ kg} \times 3\text{ m/s}^2 = 4500\text{ N}$.
Q3.A fielder pulls his hands backwards while catching a fast cricket ball primarily to: Answer: (c) Increase the impact time, thereby reducing the applied stopping force. Since $F = \Delta p / \Delta t$, increasing $\Delta t$ significantly lowers the impact force $F$ on the player's palms.
Q4.Action and reaction forces described in Newton's Third Law of Motion always act on: Answer: (d) Two different bodies simultaneously in opposite directions. Action and reaction form a simultaneous interactive pair acting on two separate bodies, so they never cancel each other.
Q5.The total linear momentum of an isolated system of colliding bodies is: Answer: (a) Conserved (remains constant). According to the law of conservation of momentum, total momentum before collision equals total momentum after collision in the absence of external forces.
Q1.A porter carries a 20 kg luggage on his head and walks 50 m horizontally. Work done by gravity is: Answer: (c) 0 J. Gravity acts vertically downward while displacement is horizontal ($\theta = 90^\circ$). $W = F s \cos(90^\circ) = 0$.
Q2.If the velocity of a moving vehicle is tripled, its kinetic energy increases by a factor of: Answer: (b) 9. Kinetic Energy $E_k = \frac{1}{2}mv^2$. If velocity becomes $3v$, new $E_k' = \frac{1}{2}m(3v)^2 = 9 \left(\frac{1}{2}mv^2\right) = 9E_k$.
Q3.An electric appliance consumes 1000 Joules of electrical energy in 2 seconds. Its power rating is: Answer: (a) 500 W. Power $P = W / t = 1000\text{ J} / 2\text{ s} = 500\text{ Watts}$.
Q4.In an ideal simple machine, Mechanical Advantage (MA) is defined as the ratio of: Answer: (a) Load to Effort. $\text{Mechanical Advantage (MA)} = \frac{\text{Load}}{\text{Effort}}$.
Q5.How many Joules are equivalent to 1 kilowatt-hour ($1\text{ kWh}$) of commercial electrical energy? Answer: (d) $3.6 \times 10^6\text{ J}$. $1\text{ kWh} = 1000\text{ W} \times 3600\text{ s} = 3,600,000\text{ J} = 3.6 \times 10^6\text{ J}$.
Q1.Rutherford's Alpha Particle Scattering Experiment led directly to the discovery of the: Answer: (b) Atomic Nucleus. The rare large-angle deflection of alpha particles showed that an atom's positive charge and mass are concentrated in a tiny central nucleus.
Q2.What is the maximum electron capacity of the M-shell ($n = 3$) governed by the $2n^2$ rule? Answer: (c) 18. Using Bohr-Bury rule: $\text{Capacity} = 2n^2 = 2(3)^2 = 2 \times 9 = 18\text{ electrons}$.
Q3.Atoms of different elements having the same mass number ($A$) but different atomic numbers ($Z$) are called: Answer: (a) Isobars. Isobars have identical nucleon totals (mass numbers) despite differing proton numbers (e.g., $^{40}\text{Ar}$ and $^{40}\text{Ca}$).
Q4.The subatomic particle with unit positive charge ($+1.6 \times 10^{-19}\text{ C}$) located in the nucleus is the: Answer: (b) Proton. Protons reside inside the nucleus and provide the elemental positive charge.
Q5.An isotope of which element is widely utilized in nuclear reactors to generate electricity? Answer: (d) Uranium-235. Uranium-235 undergoes controlled nuclear fission inside commercial reactors to generate electrical power.
Q1."In a chemical compound, elements are always combined in fixed proportions by mass." This law is: Answer: (b) Law of Definite Proportions (Proust). Joseph Proust formulated this law, establishing that water ($\text{H}_2\text{O}$), for example, always maintains an $1:8$ hydrogen-to-oxygen mass ratio.
Q2.What is the correct chemical formula of Aluminium Sulphate? Answer: (a) $\text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3$. Aluminium has valency $+3$ and Sulphate radical has valency $-2$. Criss-crossing valencies yields $\text{Al}_2(\text{SO}_4)_3$.
Q3.What is the molar mass of Calcium Carbonate ($\text{CaCO}_3$)? ($\text{Ca}=40, \text{C}=12, \text{O}=16\text{ u}$) Answer: (c) 100 u (or g/mol). $\text{Molar Mass} = 40 + 12 + 3(16) = 40 + 12 + 48 = 100\text{ u}$.
Q4.How many moles are present in 54 grams of pure water ($\text{H}_2\text{O}$)? Answer: (b) 3 moles. Molar mass of $\text{H}_2\text{O} = 18\text{ g/mol}$. $\text{Number of moles} = 54\text{ g} / 18\text{ g/mol} = 3\text{ moles}$.
Q5.The standard reference isotope chosen internationally for atomic mass units is: Answer: (a) Carbon-12 ($^{12}\text{C}$). One unified atomic mass unit ($1\text{ u}$) is defined as exactly $1/12\text{th}$ the mass of an unbound neutral atom of Carbon-12.
Q1.Sound waves travelling through ambient air are classified physically as: Answer: (b) Longitudinal mechanical waves. Medium particles oscillate parallel to the wave propagation direction, forming alternating compressions and rarefactions.
Q2.What is the speed of a sound wave with frequency 220 Hz and wavelength 1.5 m? Answer: (a) 330 m/s. Using wave relation $v = f \times \lambda = 220\text{ Hz} \times 1.5\text{ m} = 330\text{ m/s}$.
Q3.What minimum distance must separate an observer from a reflecting wall to hear a distinct echo ($v = 344\text{ m/s}$)? Answer: (c) 17.2 m. With human persistence of hearing $= 0.1\text{ s}$, total round-trip path $= 344 \times 0.1 = 34.4\text{ m}$. Minimum distance $= 34.4 / 2 = 17.2\text{ m}$.
Q4.Sound waves with frequencies exceeding 20,000 Hz are designated as: Answer: (a) Ultrasound (Ultrasonic waves). Frequencies $> 20\text{ kHz}$ are ultrasonic and utilized in medical sonography and industrial flaw detection.
Q5.The pitch of a sound wave is directly determined by which acoustic characteristic? Answer: (b) Frequency. Pitch depends directly on wave frequency (higher frequency results in higher pitch/shrillness), while loudness depends on amplitude.
Q1.Amoeba reproduces asexually through which common cellular process? Answer: (a) Binary Fission. During binary fission, the parent nucleus divides (karyokinesis) followed by cytoplasmic splitting (cytokinesis) into two daughter cells.
Q2.The primary male sex hormone produced by interstitial cells in the testes is: Answer: (c) Testosterone. Testosterone regulates spermatogenesis and the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males.
Q3.In human females, fertilization of the ovum by a sperm typically occurs within the: Answer: (b) Fallopian tube (Oviduct). Fertilization takes place at the ampullary-isthmic junction within the Fallopian tube.
Q4.Vegetative propagation in Bryophyllum occurs naturally through adventitious buds on its: Answer: (d) Leaf margins. Bryophyllum leaves produce adventitious plantlets along their notched margins that detach and root in soil.
Q5.The fusion of a haploid male gamete with a haploid female gamete produces a diploid: Answer: (a) Zygote. Syngamy (fertilization) restores the diploid chromosome number ($2n$), forming a single-celled zygote.
Q1.Who introduced the Binomial Nomenclature system universally used for scientific naming? Answer: (b) Carolus Linnaeus. Linnaeus established binomial naming, consisting of a capitalized genus name and a lowercase species epithet.
Q2.Non-vascular terrestrial plants often referred to as the "Amphibians of the Plant Kingdom" are: Answer: (a) Bryophytes (e.g., Moss, Marchantia). Bryophytes live on land but require a thin film of water for flagellated male gametes to swim and fertilize the egg.
Q3.Organisms characterized by jointed appendages, chitinous exoskeletons, and open circulatory systems belong to phylum: Answer: (c) Arthropoda. Arthropoda is the largest animal phylum, defined by jointed legs and tough chitinous protective exoskeletons.
Q4.Which of the following plants bears naked seeds without forming protective fruits? Answer: (b) Pinus (Gymnosperm). Gymnosperms produce exposed seeds on modified sporophyll cones rather than enclosed ovaries.
Q5.Which taxonomic rank represents the fundamental, smallest basic unit of biological classification? Answer: (d) Species. A species is the fundamental unit consisting of closely related individuals capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring.
Q1.The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen gas into usable nitrates and ammonium by rhizobia is called: Answer: (a) Nitrogen Fixation. Diazotrophs (like Rhizobium in legume root nodules) reduce inert $\text{N}_2$ into bioavailable ammonia and nitrates.
Q2.Which atmospheric layer contains the protective ozone layer that absorbs harmful UV-B radiation? Answer: (b) Stratosphere. The stratospheric ozone layer ($\text{O}_3$) shields biosphere organisms from high-energy ultraviolet solar radiation.
Q3.Excessive enrichment of water bodies with agricultural nitrates leading to dense algal blooms is termed: Answer: (c) Eutrophication. Runoff nutrients trigger algal blooms that deplete dissolved oxygen upon bacterial decomposition, causing aquatic mortality.
Q4.Which greenhouse gas contributes most significantly to enhanced anthropogenic global warming? Answer: (a) Carbon Dioxide ($\text{CO}_2$). Elevated $\text{CO}_2$ from fossil fuel combustion traps re-emitted infrared radiation in the troposphere, driving global warming.
Q5.The global continuous movement of water across oceans, atmosphere, and land is powered primarily by: Answer: (d) Solar Energy (Radiation). Solar heating drives surface evaporation, atmospheric convection, cloud formation, and global precipitation.
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FAQs
For the 2026-27 session, MCQs and objective-type questions carry around 20% weightage. CBSE has introduced 30% competency based questions as MCQs and they are important part of the Class 9 Science paper.
You can access the latest chapter-wise MCQs for Class 9 Science for free from StudiesToday.com. All questions are based on the latest syllabus and current academic year.
Yes, our Science practice bank includes the new pattern of Assertion Reasoning and Case Study based MCQs. They have been designed to test the analytical skills of Class 9 students.
Solving Class 9 Science MCQs regularly improves speed and accuracy as these are objective questions can get you 100% marks if your understanding of the topic is clear.
Yes, all Class 9 Science MCQs and answers are accessible on any device at your convenience.
No, all Science Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), practice papers, and solutions for Class 9 are available for free for students to get more marks school exams.
