NEET Biology Biological Classification MCQs Set A

NEET Biology Biological Classification MCQs Set A with answers available in Pdf for free download. The MCQ Questions for NEET Biology with answers have been prepared as per the latest 2021 NEET Biology syllabus, books and examination pattern. Multiple Choice Questions form important part of competitive exams and NEET exam and if practiced properly can help you to get higher rank. Refer to more topic wise NEET Biology Questions and also download more latest study material for all subjects and do free NEET Biology Mock Test


Q.1 Two kingdom system classification was given by
(1) Linnaeus (2) John Ray (3) Copeland (4) Whittaker
Q.2 Which kingdom was introduced in 4 kingdom classification and who proposed it?
(1) Protista and Copeland (2) Plantae and linnaeus
(3) Monera and Whittaker (4) Monera and Copeland
Q.3 Which of the following is the major group in Monera?
(1) Eubacteria (2) Cyanobacteria (3) Archaebacteria (4) All of these
Q.4 Term bacteria was given by
(1) Koch (2) Pasteur (3) Ehrenberg (4) Stanley
Q.5: 70S ribosomes, chromatophores, circular DNA, mesosomes are found in
(1) All eukaryotes (2) All prokaryotes
(3) Some prokaryotes (4) Some eukaryotes and some prokaryotes
Q.6 A bacterium that bears flagella all over the surface is called
(1) Lophotrichous (2) Cephalotrichous (3) Peritrichous (4) Amphitrichous
Q.7 A distinct lipo-polysaccharide layer is found in
(1) Gram (+) bacteria (2) Gram (-) bacteria (3) All bacteria (4) Mycoplasma
Q.8 In bacteria, the respiratory enzymes are situated in the
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Cell membrane (3) Ribosomes (4) Mitochondria
Q.9 Cell wall in Gram positive bacteria is composed of
(1) Lipid and protein (2) Murein (3) Proteins only (4) Cellulose and pectin
Q.10 One of the following is a filamentous bacteria
(1) Pseudomonas (2) Clostridium (3) Actinomyces (4) Azotobacter
Q.11 Pili represent
(1) Extra chromosomal genetic elements (2) Protoplasmic outgrowths of donor cells
(3) Small flagella (4) Special bacterial cilia
Q.12 Plasmids represent
(1) A group of monerans (2) Small parasitic organisms
(3) Genetic elements (4) Extra chromosomal genetic elements
Q.13 The resting spores produced by bacteria in unfavourable conditions are called
(1) Oidia (2) Endospores (3) Exospores (4) Chlamydospores
Q.14 Conjugation in bacteria was discovered by
(1) Beadle and Tatum (2) Zinder and Lederberg
(3) Griffith (4) Lederberg and Tatum
Q.15 Genophore is the name of
(1) DNA of eukaryoles (2) DNA of bacteria
(3) Genes of Drosophila (4) Genes of Neurospora
Q.16 There is no alternation of generation in Escherichia coli because of the absence of
(1) Syngamy (2) Reduction division
(3) Conjugation (4) Both (1) & (2)
Q.17 The following bacterium is associated with denitrification
(1) Azotobacter (2) Rhodospirillum (3) Pseudomonas (4) Rhizobium
Q.18 Bacteria which can survive in the absence of oxygen are known as
(1) Obligate anaerobes (2) Facultative anaerobes
(3) Obligate aerobes (4) Facultative aerobes
Q.19 Streptomycin is produced by
(1) Streptomyces venezuelae (2) Streptomyces griseus
(3) Streptomyces arythreus (4) Streptomyces aureofaciens
Q.20 Food poisoning is caused by
(1) Clostridium tetani (2) Clostridium botulinum
(3) Salmonella typhi (4) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Q.21 Rhizobium is
(1) Symbiotic and Gram negative bacterium (2) Symbiotic and Gram positive bacterium
(3) Free living nitrogen fixing bacterium (4) Parasitic and nitrogen fixing bacteria
Q.22 Syphilis is caused by
(1) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (2) Treponema pallidum
(3) Hemophilous pertusis (4) Pasteurella pestis
Q.23 Jacob and Wollman coined the term
(1) Plasmid (2) Episome (3) Circular DNA (4) Chromosome
Q.24 Branched chain lipids occur in the cell membranes of
(1) Archaebacteria (2) Mycoplasma (3) Actinomycetes (4) Streptomyces
Q.25 Monerans producing conidia for reproduction belong to
(1) Eubacteria (2) Archaebacteria (3) Actinomycetes (4) Mycoplasma
Q.26 Smallest known moneran lacking cell wall are
(1) Spirochaete (2) Mycoplasma (3) Cyanobacteria (4) Archaebacteria
Q.27 Cyanobacteria do not possess
(1) Gene recombinations (2) Flagella
(3) Plasmids (4) Lamellasomes
Q.28 Heterocyst present in Nostoc is specialised for
(1) Fragmentation (2) Nitrogen fixation (3) Storage (4) Photosynthesis
Q.29 'Contagium vivum fluidium (i.e., living fluid infectant) term has been given by
(1) Mayer (2) lvanowsky (3) Beijerinck (4) Bawden and Pirie
Q.30 Anaerobic monerans which are endosymbiotically associated with cattles rumen are
(1) Bacillus (2) Methanobacterium
(3) Halococcus (4) Thermoacidophiles
Q.31 Gange's water purity is maintained by
(1) Bdellovibrio (2) Clostridium (3) Ferrobaciflus (4) Tolypothrix
Q.32 Bivalved siliceous shell or frustule occur in
(1) Diatoms (3) Zooflagellates (2) Radiolarians (4) Archaebacteria
Q.33 Diatomaceous earth is due to
(1) Silicon (2) Zinc (3) Phosphorus (4) Calcium
Q.34 Reserve food in Euglena is
(1) Paramylum (2) Starch (3) Glycogen (4) Mannitol
Q.35 Special type of red pigment present in the eye-spot of Euglena and Crustacea is called
(1) Phycoerythrin (2) Astaxanthin (3) carotene (4) Xanthphyll
Q.36 Mixotrophic nutrition occurs in
(1) Paramecium (2) Euglena (3) Plasmodium (4) Amoeba
Q.37 The structure formed in the life cycle of cellular slime-mould due to chemotactic movement is
(1) Pseudoplasmodium (2) Swarm cells
(3) Macrocyst (4) Capillitia
Q.38 Myxamoeba are formed in the life cycle of
(1) Physarum (3) Entamoeba (2) Amoeba (4) Diatoms
Q.39 De Bary considered slime moulds to be closely related to animals and called them
(1) Protozoa (3) Mycetozoa (2) Metazoa (4) Mycotina
Q.40 De Bary was a leading
(1) Phycologist (3) Bryologist (2) Mycologist (4) Pteridologist
Q.41 Asexual spores of fungi (thallophytes) are commonly known as
(1) Oospores (2) Mitospores (3) Meiospores (4) Zygospores
Q.42 Oidia resemble yeasts in
(1) Fermentation (2) Budding (3) Unicellular nalure (4) All of these
Q.43 Which one of the following shows haplodiplontic life cycle with four ascospores in the ascus?
(1) Budding yeast (2) Fission yeast (3) Helobial yeast (4) False yeast
Q.44 Gametangial copulation (conjugation) is common in
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Zygomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Deuleromyceles
Q.45 Molile sperms (or motile sperm cells) are absent in
(1) Rhizopus (2) Funarla (3) Fem (4) Cycas
Q.46 If the thallus of an organism like a fungus is entirely converted into one or more reproductive structures it is called as
(1) Eucarpic (2) Holocarpic (3) Holozoic (4) Hornothallic
Q.47 Subterranean masses of hyphae which pass the unfavourable periods in donnant stage are known as
(1) Sclerotia (2) Mycelium (3) Rhizomorph (4) Puff balls
Q.48 Asexual reproduction by aplanospore formation is the feature of
(1) Sac fungi (2) Fungi impertect (3) Conjugating fungi (4) Club fungi
Q.49 Haploid sexual spore produced exogenously is
(1) Ascospore (2) Oospcre (3) Basidiospore (4) Zygospore
Q.50 White rust of crucifers is caused by
(1) Albugo candida (2) Sclerospora
(3) Phytophthora infestans (4) Pythium debaryanum
Q.51 Coenocytic mycelium occurs in
(1) Zygomycetes (2) Phycomycetes (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Deuteromycetes
Q.52 Ascomycetes are known as
(1) Club fungi (2) Sac fungi (3) Fungi imperfecti (4) Fission fungi
Q.53 One of the following is helobial yeast
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Schizosaccharomyces
(3) Saccharomycokies (4) Schizomycetes
Q.54 One of the following is a true yeast
(1) Canedida (2) Myoodenna (3) Cryptococcus (4) Saccharomyces
Q.55 Fungi differs from bacteria in
(1) Mode of nutrition (2) Having NAG in cell wall
(3) Flagella structure (4) Reserve food material as glycogen
Q.56 Penicillin is obtained from
(1) Penicillium griseofulvum (2) Penicillium chrysogenum
(3) Penicillium camemberti (4) Penicillium roqueforti
Q.57 Branched conidiophores are found in
(1) Penicillium (2) Rhizopus (3) Uslifago (4) Saccharomyces
Q.58 Fruiting body in Aspergillus (or Penicillium) is known as
(1) Cleistothecium (2) Apothecium (3) Perithecium (4) Hysterothecium
Q.59 A mushroom having hallucinating properties similar to LS.D. is
(1) Morchella (2) Psaliota (3) Psilocybe (4) Armillaria
Q.60 Powdery mildew of cereals is due to
(1) Puccinia graminis (2) Claviceps purpurea
(3) Ustilago tritici (4) Erysiphe graminicola
Q.61 Ergot is a product of
(1) Rhizopus (2) Claviceps purpurea
(3) Aspergillus (4) Sclerospora
Q.62 The famous Irish famine is related to a disease of potato known as
(1) Late blight of potato (2) Early blight of potato
(3) Dry rot of potato (4) Potato scab
Q.63 A fungus, which grows on rotting wood, is
(1) Rhizopus (2) Pythium (3) Peziza (4) Aspergilfus
Q.64 A dolipore septum is a characteristic feature of
(1) Phycomycetes (2) Ascomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Zygomycetes
Q.65 Fertile layer of gills is known as
(1) Hymenium (2) Trama (3) Paraphyses (4) Basidia
Q.66 An edible part at mushroom is
(1) Primary mycelium (2) Secondary mycelium
(3) Rhizomorph (4) Basidiocarp
Q.67 Pioneer work on wheat rust was done by
(1) Mundkur (2) Tutsane (3) KG. Mehta (4) Subramaniam
Q.68 The soredium is a reproductive structure of
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Zygomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Lichens
Q.69 Symptom not seen in plants due to viruses is
(1) Mosaic formation (2) Leaf rolling and curling
(3) Yellowing, vein clearing (4) Root knot
Q.70 Viroids were discovered by
(1) Alper (2) Randle (3) Diener (4) lvanowsky
NEET Biology Biodiversity and Its Conservation MCQs Set B-ans
Section – B

Q.1 Five kingdom system of classification is mainly based on
(1) Complexity of cell structure (2) Mode of nutrition
(3) Complexity of body organisation (4) Ecological role
Q.2 Bacteria are considered primitive organisms because they
(1) Possess incipient nucleus
(2) Are small, microscopic plants, which are not seen by the naked eyes
(3) Cause serious diseases to human being, domesticated animals and crop plants
(4) Produce endospores which are very resistant to adverse conditions
Q.3 The part of the bacterial chromosome that is homologous to a genome fragment transferred from the donor to the recipient cell in the formation of a merozygote is known as
(1) Exogenote (2) Endogenote (3) Dysgenic (4) Eugenic
Q.4 Broad spectrum antibiotic is that which
(1) Acts on both pathogens and hosts
(2) Acts on all bacteria and viruses
(3) Acts on a variety of pathogenic microorganisms
(4) Is effective in very small amounts
Q.5 A cyanelle is
(1) A BGA associated with human intestine (2) A BGA associated with protists
(3) A free living BGA (4) Any symbiotic BGA
Q.6 Bacterial cell divides every one minute. It takes 15 minutes a cup to be one-fourth full. How much time will it take to fill the cup?
(1) 30 minutes (2) 45 minutes (3) 60 minutes (4) 17 minutes
Q.7 Highly resistance nature of endospore is due to the presence of
(1) Dipicolinic acid and peptidoglycan in spore coat
(2) Peptidoglycan in exosporium
(3) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cortex
(4) Dipicolinic acid and Ca in cell membrane
NEET Biology Biodiversity and Its Conservation MCQs Set B-SecB
Q.9 The photosynthetic protists are
(1) Diatoms, euglenoids and slime moulds (2) Sacrodines, dinoflagellates and diatoms
(3) Euglenoids, diatoms and dinoflagellates (4) Ciliates, zooflagellates and dinoflagellates
Q.10 Sea water glows during night mainly due to occurrence of
(1) Gonyaulax (2) Euglena (3) Noctiluca (4) Cyetoletta
Q.11 Rejuvenescent spore of diatom is
(1) Haploid and exospore (2) Diploid and statospore
(3) Haploid and statospore (4) Diploid and auxospore
Q.12 Leucosin (Chrysolaminarin) is a carbohydrate which is stored as reserve food in case of
(1) Diatom (2) Euglena (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Paramecium
Q.13 Flagellation in Euglena is
(1) Uniflagellation and stichonematic (2) Isakon! and whiplash type
(3) Heterokont and whiplash type (4) Heterokont and stichonematic
Q.14 Paraflagellar body of Euglena helps in
(1) Locomotion (2) Photoreception (3) Reproduction (4) Osmoregulation
Q.15 Difference between a red sea and red tide is
(1) Red tide takes place in red sea
(2) Associated with a cyanobacteria and protist respectively
(3) One is by virus and other by bacteria
(4) Associated with Rhodophyceae and diatoms respectively
NEET Biology Biodiversity and Its Conservation MCQs Set B-SecB-
Q.17 Select incorrectly matched pair
(1) Mucor mucedo – Coprophilous (2) Albugo candida – Facultative parasite
(3) Agaricus bisporus – Edible basidiocarp (4) Puccinia graminis – Heteroecious fungi
Q.18 When two host species are required for completion of a parasitic fungus life cycle, this condition is described as
(1) Autoecious (2) Heteroecious (3) Autotrophic (4) Heterokaryotic
Q.19 The most common chlorophycobiont in a lichen is
(1) Chlorella (2) Trebouxia (3) Gonium (4) Chlamydomonas
Q.20 Viruses possess all the following properties, except
(1) They are non-cellular organisms
(2) Possess both DNA and RNA
(3) Capsid protects nucleic acid
(4) Have inert crystalline structure outside living cells
Q.21 Select correct match w.r.t. Whittaker' system of classification
(1) Monera : Unicellular and multicellular, osmotrophs, producers and decomposers, true cellulosic cell wall
(2) Protista : Unicellular, eukaryotic, photoautotrophs and chemoautolrophs
(3) Fungi : Multicellular/loose tissue , eukaryotic, osmotrophs, chitinous wall
(4) Animalia : Multicellular, eukaryotic, organ or organ system, holozoic, no saprobic
Q.22 Read the given features carefully and select incorrect set of features for a respective member.
a. LPS layer present b. Diazotroph c. Peritrichous d. Sewage disposal
e. Obligate anaerobes f. Chemoautotrophs g. L-Lysine absent h. Aerobic
(1) Clostridium - a, c, d , e (2) Rhizobium - a, b, c
(3) Azotobacter - a, b, g, h (4) Methanogens - e, f, a, g
Q.23 Endospores formed by certain bacteria are actually the means for
(1) Reproduction (2) Perennation (3) Bioluminescence (4) Red snow formation
Q.24 Pyrrophytes ·are similar to Euglenophytes but differ from chrysophytes in
(1) Mode of nutrition
(2) Motility and nature of flagella
(3) Presence of primary photosynthetic pigments
(4) Occurrence and cell wall composition
Q.25 Consider the following statements and select correct set of features W.r.t. the life cycle of Physarum
a. Haploid vegetative stage as myxamoebae
b. Diploid vegetative stage as plasmodium
c. Holocarplc and polycentric
d. Holocarpic and monocentric
e. Sporeic meiosis
f. Isogamous sexual reproduction
g. Anisogamous sexual reproduction with zygotic meiosis
(1) a, c, g (2) b, c, g (3) b, d, e, f (4) b, c, e, f
Q.26 Mycelium with compact mass of hyphae as pseudo parenchymatous structure can be observed in the
(1) Fructification stage of slime moulds
(2) Gill of mushroom
(3) Asexual stage of bread mould
(4) Uredia stage of rust fungi
Q.27 Which one of the following combination of characters is correct for the given fungal group?
(1) Algal fungi : Coenocylic, cellulosic wall, zoospore, zygospore, dikaryophase present
(2) Conjugating fungi : Septate mycelium, chitinous wall, sporangiospore, shorter (n + n) phase
(3) Sac fungi : Septate mycelium, Ascogonium, Crozier stage, meiospores as ascospores, shorter dikaryophase
(4) Club fungi : Shorter primary mycelium stage, No sex organs , dominant dikaryophase, zygosporic meiosis
Q.28 Read the statements carefully
a. Hartig net is the network of intracellular mycelium of Boletus
b. Ectomycorrhiza forms ten percent of total mycorrhiza
c. Fungal partner of VAM belongs to zygomycetes or phycomycetes
(1) Only a & c are correct
(3) Only c is correct
NEET Biology Biodiversity and Its Conservation MCQs Set B-SecB-1
Q.30 Read the following statements carefully and identify correct statements w.r.t. Lichens
a. The association cannot tolerate air pollution, especially due to sulphur dioxide
b. lichens are annuals and their growth is slow
c. The fungal partner shows
d. Soredia are most efficient means of asexual reproduction
e. Orchids seldom occur without this association
f. Foliose lichens are pioneers of succession on bare rock
(1) c, d, F (2) a, c, d, f
(3) a, b, e (4) a, c, d

NEET Biology Biodiversity and Its Conservation MCQs Set B-SecB-Ans



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