Here are chapter-wise MCQs for CBSE Class 11 Biology, ready for 2026-27. They're built to help Class 11 students understand the current exam pattern in Biology, and improve how they solve problems.
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Access the latest 2026-27 question sets for Biology below. These MCQs are a solid way to check your own understanding, and spot weak areas before your exams.
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Quick Practice - Try a Few Questions First Pick a chapter below, answer a few questions instantly, then jump to the full set list for more. Q1.Which of these is considered the basic unit of biological classification? Answer: (b) Species. Species is the smallest group that can freely interbreed and produce fertile offspring, which makes it the fundamental unit taxonomists use.
Q2.Binomial nomenclature, the two word naming system for species, was given by: Answer: (b) Carl Linnaeus. Carl Linnaeus introduced this system in the eighteenth century, and it is still followed for naming organisms today.
Q3.In binomial nomenclature, the second word of a scientific name represents the: Answer: (b) Species. The first word gives the genus and the second gives the species, together forming the full scientific name of the organism.
Q4.A collection of dried and preserved plant specimens mounted on sheets is known as a: Answer: (b) Herbarium. Herbaria are used as reference collections by botanists to study plant diversity and confirm identifications.
Q5.Which of the following is considered a defining feature shared by all living organisms? Answer: (b) Metabolism. Every living thing carries out a set of chemical reactions to sustain itself, and this metabolic activity is used as the key marker of life.
Q1.The five kingdom system of classification was proposed by: Answer: (b) R.H. Whittaker. Whittaker grouped organisms into Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia based on cell structure, nutrition and body organisation.
Q2.Bacteria are placed under the kingdom: Answer: (b) Monera. Monera includes all prokaryotic organisms, and bacteria lack a defined nucleus, which is why they fall in this group.
Q3.The cell wall of most fungi is mainly composed of: Answer: (b) Chitin. Chitin is a tough polysaccharide that gives fungal cell walls their rigidity, quite different from the cellulose found in plants.
Q4.Outside a living host cell, viruses behave as: Answer: (b) Inert, non living particles. A virus can only replicate once it infects a host cell, so on its own it shows none of the usual signs of life.
Q5.Lichens are formed through a symbiotic relationship between: Answer: (b) Algae and fungi. The alga provides food through photosynthesis while the fungus offers protection and absorbs water, making this a mutually beneficial partnership.
Q1.Plants that produce seeds but do not form fruits are called: Answer: (b) Gymnosperms. Gymnosperm seeds sit exposed, often on the surface of cone scales, rather than being enclosed within a fruit wall.
Q2.In the life cycle of a moss plant, the dominant and longer lasting phase is the: Answer: (b) Gametophyte. Unlike flowering plants, mosses spend most of their life cycle in the haploid gametophyte stage, with the sporophyte remaining dependent on it.
Q3.Which plant group is often referred to as the amphibians of the plant kingdom? Answer: (b) Bryophytes. Bryophytes need water for fertilisation even though they can live on land, much like amphibians depend on water for part of their life cycle.
Q4.Double fertilisation, involving the fusion of two male gametes with the egg and the polar nuclei, is a feature unique to: Answer: (d) Angiosperms. This process happens only in flowering plants and results in the formation of both the embryo and the nutritive endosperm in a single event.
Q5.In alternation of generations, the diploid, spore producing stage of a plant is called the: Answer: (b) Sporophyte. The sporophyte generation arises from the zygote and eventually produces spores through meiosis, starting the cycle over again.
Q1.Animals that possess a true coelom, lined on all sides by mesoderm, are called: Answer: (c) Coelomates. Earthworms and humans are common examples, and this body cavity allows organs to develop and move more freely.
Q2.Organisms belonging to phylum Porifera are commonly known as: Answer: (a) Sponges. Sponges have a porous body and a unique water canal system that helps them filter food particles from water.
Q3.The presence of a notochord at some stage of development is a defining feature of phylum: Answer: (c) Chordata. This flexible rod like structure gives the body support and is replaced by the vertebral column in most adult vertebrates.
Q4.Animals whose body parts are arranged around a central axis, like a wheel, show: Answer: (b) Radial symmetry. Sea anemones and starfish are good examples, since any plane passing through the centre can divide the body into similar halves.
Q5.Segmentation of the body, seen both externally and internally, is a characteristic feature of phylum: Answer: (a) Annelida. Earthworms show this repeated arrangement of body segments clearly, and it allows independent movement of different parts of the body.
Q1.Water absorption in a root mainly takes place through the: Answer: (c) Region of maturation. This zone bears root hairs that greatly increase the surface area available for taking up water and minerals from the soil.
Q2.A leaf that has only a single, undivided blade attached to the petiole is called a: Answer: (b) Simple leaf. In a simple leaf the blade may have margins that are entire or incised, but it is never divided all the way to the midrib.
Q3.The male reproductive whorl of a flower is called the: Answer: (b) Androecium. It consists of stamens, each made up of a filament and an anther that produces pollen grains.
Q4.The way flowers are arranged on the floral axis is termed: Answer: (b) Inflorescence. Common patterns include the raceme and the cyme, which differ in whether the main axis keeps growing or ends in a flower.
Q5.A fruit that develops from the ovary without any prior fertilisation is called a: Answer: (b) Parthenocarpic fruit. Bananas are a familiar example, and such fruits are usually seedless since no fertilisation event ever takes place.
Q1.The tissue mainly responsible for growth in the length of a plant is: Answer: (b) Meristematic tissue. Cells in this tissue divide actively and are found at the tips of roots and shoots, where new growth continually occurs.
Q2.Xylem tissue in a plant is primarily responsible for the transport of: Answer: (b) Water and minerals. It forms a continuous pathway from the roots to the leaves, moving water and dissolved minerals upward through the plant body.
Q3.The outermost protective layer covering a young plant part is called the: Answer: (b) Epidermis. This single layer of cells often bears a waxy cuticle that helps reduce water loss from the surface.
Q4.Secondary growth in the girth of dicot stems is brought about mainly by the: Answer: (b) Vascular cambium. This lateral meristem produces new xylem and phloem cells, which is why older dicot stems tend to grow noticeably thicker over time.
Q5.Stomata, the small pores that regulate gas exchange, are mainly found in the: Answer: (b) Epidermis of leaves. Each stoma is flanked by two guard cells that control its opening and closing, and most stomata occur on the leaf surface.
Q1.A group of cells that work together to perform a similar function is called a: Answer: (b) Tissue. Tissues combine further to form organs, so this level sits between individual cells and fully formed organs.
Q2.Which tissue contracts to bring about body movement in animals? Answer: (b) Muscular tissue. Muscle cells contain contractile proteins that shorten in response to nerve signals, generating the force needed for movement.
Q3.The frog is classified under the class: Answer: (b) Amphibia. Amphibians like frogs typically spend part of their life in water and part on land, which is reflected in their name.
Q4.Blood, despite being a fluid, is classified as a type of: Answer: (b) Connective tissue. It fits this category because its cells are suspended in a matrix, plasma, and it connects and supports different parts of the body.
Q5.Cockroaches carry out gas exchange mainly through: Answer: (c) Tracheae. Air enters through small openings called spiracles and travels directly to tissues through a branching network of tracheal tubes.
Q1.The cell was first observed and named by: Answer: (a) Robert Hooke. While examining a thin slice of cork under a microscope, he noticed small box like compartments and called them cells.
Q2.The organelle often referred to as the powerhouse of the cell is the: Answer: (b) Mitochondria. It generates most of the cell's usable energy in the form of ATP through the process of aerobic respiration.
Q3.Which cell organelle is directly involved in the synthesis of proteins? Answer: (a) Ribosome. Ribosomes read the instructions carried by messenger RNA and link amino acids together to build new protein chains.
Q4.According to the cell theory, new cells are formed from: Answer: (b) Pre existing cells. This idea, contributed to by Rudolf Virchow, rules out the older belief that living cells could arise spontaneously from non living material.
Q5.Photosynthesis within a plant cell takes place inside the: Answer: (b) Chloroplast. This organelle contains chlorophyll, which captures light energy and uses it to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose.
Q1.Proteins are large molecules built from repeating monomer units called: Answer: (b) Amino acids. These units link together through peptide bonds to form long chains that fold into functional protein structures.
Q2.Which of these is a polysaccharide that plants use mainly to store energy? Answer: (b) Starch. Starch is stored in plant organs such as tubers and seeds, and it can be broken down again whenever the plant needs energy.
Q3.The repeating structural units that make up nucleic acids are called: Answer: (b) Nucleotides. Each of these units contains a sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base, and they join to form the long strands of DNA and RNA.
Q4.Most enzymes, the biological catalysts that speed up reactions in cells, are made up of: Answer: (b) Proteins. Their folded three dimensional shape creates an active site that fits a specific substrate, allowing the reaction to proceed faster.
Q5.DNA differs chemically from RNA mainly because DNA contains the sugar: Answer: (b) Deoxyribose. This sugar lacks one oxygen atom compared to ribose, which is the sugar found in RNA strands instead.
Q1.DNA replication in a dividing cell takes place during the: Answer: (b) S phase. The cell copies its entire genetic material in this phase so that each daughter cell later receives a complete set of chromosomes.
Q2.Mitosis produces daughter cells that are: Answer: (b) Genetically identical to the parent cell. Since the chromosome number is maintained and no genetic mixing occurs, the two resulting cells are exact copies of the parent.
Q3.Meiosis reduces the chromosome number by half, producing cells that are: Answer: (b) Haploid. This reduction is essential for sexual reproduction, since it keeps the chromosome number constant across generations after fertilisation.
Q4.Crossing over, the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, occurs during: Answer: (b) Prophase I of meiosis. It takes place when homologous chromosomes pair up closely, and this exchange is a major source of genetic variation.
Q5.The stage of mitosis in which chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate of the cell is: Answer: (b) Metaphase. This alignment ensures that when the chromosomes separate in the next stage, each daughter cell receives an equal share.
Q1.The green pigment mainly responsible for capturing light energy during photosynthesis is: Answer: (b) Chlorophyll. It absorbs light most strongly in the red and blue regions of the spectrum, which is why plants appear green to us.
Q2.The light dependent reactions of photosynthesis take place in the: Answer: (b) Thylakoid membrane. This is where the pigment complexes and electron transport chains are located, allowing light energy to be converted into ATP and NADPH.
Q3.The Calvin cycle, also called the dark reaction, occurs in the: Answer: (b) Stroma. It uses the ATP and NADPH produced earlier to fix carbon dioxide into organic sugar molecules.
Q4.In C4 plants, the primary molecule that first accepts carbon dioxide is: Answer: (b) PEP. Phosphoenolpyruvate reacts with carbon dioxide in mesophyll cells, and this adaptation helps such plants photosynthesise efficiently in hot conditions.
Q5.During photosynthesis, the oxygen released into the atmosphere comes from the splitting of: Answer: (b) Water. This splitting takes place during the light reactions and also supplies the electrons needed to keep the electron transport chain running.
Q1.Glycolysis, the first stage of respiration, takes place in the: Answer: (b) Cytoplasm. This pathway breaks down glucose into pyruvate and does not require oxygen, which is why it can occur even under anaerobic conditions.
Q2.The end product formed at the completion of glycolysis is: Answer: (b) Pyruvic acid. Depending on the availability of oxygen afterward, this molecule can be further broken down aerobically or converted through fermentation.
Q3.The Krebs cycle, a key stage of aerobic respiration, takes place in the: Answer: (b) Mitochondrial matrix. Here, the products of glycolysis are progressively oxidised, releasing carbon dioxide and generating molecules that fuel ATP production.
Q4.Fermentation, which occurs in the absence of oxygen, is an example of: Answer: (b) Anaerobic respiration. Yeast cells rely on this process to survive without oxygen, producing ethanol and carbon dioxide as by products.
Q5.Among the respiratory pathways, the one that yields the maximum amount of ATP is: Answer: (c) Aerobic respiration. Because it fully oxidises glucose using oxygen, this pathway extracts far more energy than glycolysis or fermentation alone can provide.
Q1.The plant hormone primarily responsible for cell elongation is: Answer: (b) Auxin. It promotes the stretching of cells on the shaded side of a shoot, which is part of why shoots bend toward light.
Q2.Which hormone is most closely associated with the ripening of fruits? Answer: (c) Ethylene. Being a gas at normal temperatures, it diffuses easily between fruits, which is why one ripening fruit can speed up ripening in nearby ones.
Q3.Cytokinins are best known for promoting: Answer: (a) Cell division. They are often used alongside auxins in tissue culture to encourage cells to divide and form new plant tissue.
Q4.Abscisic acid is often called a stress hormone because it mainly helps plants: Answer: (b) Cope with unfavourable conditions like drought. It triggers responses such as stomatal closure to reduce water loss when a plant is under stress.
Q5.The growth pattern in which the rate of growth first increases and then gradually decreases over time is called: Answer: (b) Sigmoid growth curve. This S shaped curve is typical of how populations and organs grow when resources eventually become limiting.
Q1.The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the human lungs occurs in the: Answer: (c) Alveoli. These tiny, thin walled air sacs are surrounded by capillaries, and their large combined surface area makes gas exchange efficient.
Q2.Oxygen is mainly carried in the blood bound to: Answer: (b) Haemoglobin. This iron containing pigment in red blood cells binds oxygen in the lungs and releases it to tissues that need it.
Q3.The muscle that plays a major role in breathing by changing the volume of the thoracic cavity is the: Answer: (b) Diaphragm. When it contracts and flattens, the chest cavity expands, drawing air into the lungs.
Q4.Most of the carbon dioxide produced by tissues is transported in the blood as: Answer: (b) Bicarbonate ions. Carbon dioxide reacts with water in red blood cells to form this ion, which makes up the largest share of transported carbon dioxide.
Q5.The centre that regulates the rhythm and rate of breathing is located in the: Answer: (b) Medulla oblongata. This part of the brainstem continuously monitors blood gas levels and adjusts the breathing rate accordingly.
Q1.The fluid, non cellular component of blood is called: Answer: (b) Plasma. It makes up more than half the volume of blood and carries dissolved nutrients, hormones and waste products throughout the body.
Q2.The human heart is made up of how many chambers? Answer: (c) Four. These are the two atria and two ventricles, and this arrangement keeps oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing.
Q3.The natural pacemaker of the human heart is the: Answer: (b) Sinoatrial node. Located in the right atrium, it generates the electrical impulses that set the rhythm for each heartbeat.
Q4.Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart are called: Answer: (b) Arteries. These vessels usually carry oxygenated blood, except in the case of the pulmonary artery, which carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
Q5.Lymph mainly helps the body by: Answer: (b) Draining excess tissue fluid and supporting immunity. It collects fluid that leaks out of capillaries and returns it to the bloodstream, while also transporting immune cells.
Q1.The functional and structural unit of the human kidney is the: Answer: (b) Nephron. Each kidney contains roughly a million of these units, and together they filter blood and form urine.
Q2.The main nitrogenous waste product excreted by humans is: Answer: (b) Urea. Ammonia produced from protein breakdown is converted into this less toxic compound in the liver before being removed by the kidneys.
Q3.Filtration of blood in the kidney takes place mainly at the: Answer: (b) Glomerulus. Blood pressure forces water and small solutes out of this tuft of capillaries and into the surrounding Bowman's capsule.
Q4.The hormone that regulates the reabsorption of water in the kidneys is: Answer: (b) Antidiuretic hormone. Released from the pituitary gland, it increases water reabsorption when the body needs to conserve fluid.
Q5.Urine produced by the kidneys is temporarily stored in the: Answer: (b) Urinary bladder. This muscular sac expands as urine collects and contracts during urination to expel it from the body.
Q1.The type of muscle found in the walls of internal organs such as the intestine is: Answer: (b) Smooth muscle. It contracts slowly and involuntarily, which suits the steady, rhythmic movements needed for digestion.
Q2.The protein filament that works together with myosin to bring about muscle contraction is: Answer: (a) Actin. These two proteins slide past each other during contraction, shortening the muscle fibre as a whole.
Q3.The joint between the bones of the skull is an example of a: Answer: (b) Fibrous joint. This type of joint allows little or no movement, which suits its role in firmly protecting the brain.
Q4.The human skeleton is broadly divided into the axial skeleton and the: Answer: (b) Appendicular skeleton. This second division includes the bones of the limbs and their girdles, while the axial part covers the skull, spine and rib cage.
Q5.The molecule that directly supplies energy for muscle contraction is: Answer: (b) ATP. Its breakdown releases the energy that powers the sliding of actin and myosin filaments during contraction.
Q1.The basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system is the: Answer: (b) Neuron. These specialised cells are built to receive, conduct and transmit electrical signals throughout the body.
Q2.The small gap across which a nerve impulse passes from one neuron to the next is called a: Answer: (b) Synapse. Chemical messengers called neurotransmitters cross this gap to carry the signal forward to the next neuron.
Q3.The part of the brain mainly responsible for maintaining balance and coordinating posture is the: Answer: (b) Cerebellum. It fine tunes movements initiated elsewhere in the brain, helping the body stay steady and well coordinated.
Q4.The part of a neuron that carries the nerve impulse away from the cell body is the: Answer: (b) Axon. Dendrites typically receive incoming signals, while this long projection sends the impulse onward toward other cells.
Q5.The autonomic nervous system mainly controls: Answer: (b) Involuntary functions of internal organs. It regulates processes like heartbeat, digestion and glandular secretion, largely without any conscious effort on our part.
Q1.Hormones are chemical messengers that are secreted directly by: Answer: (b) Endocrine glands. These glands release their secretions straight into the bloodstream rather than through a duct, allowing hormones to travel throughout the body.
Q2.The gland often called the master gland because it regulates the activity of several other endocrine glands is the: Answer: (b) Pituitary gland. It sits at the base of the brain and releases hormones that in turn control glands such as the thyroid and adrenals.
Q3.Insulin, the hormone that helps regulate blood glucose levels, is secreted by the: Answer: (b) Pancreas. It is produced by specific cells within this organ and lowers blood sugar by promoting glucose uptake into cells.
Q4.A deficiency of thyroxine in adults can lead to a condition known as: Answer: (b) Myxoedema. This condition slows down metabolism and causes symptoms like fatigue and weight gain, differing from the childhood form of thyroxine deficiency.
Q5.Adrenaline, the hormone released during stressful or emergency situations, is secreted by the: Answer: (b) Adrenal medulla. It quickly raises heart rate and blood pressure, preparing the body for what is often called the fight or flight response.
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| All Chapters MCQs Set 04 |
| All Chapters MCQs Set 03 |
| All Chapters MCQs Set 01 |
| All Chapters MCQs Set 02 |
| All Chapters MCQs Set 05 |
| All Chapters MCQs Set 06 |
| All Chapters MCQs Set 07 |
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For the 2026-27 session, MCQs and objective-type questions carry around 20% weightage. CBSE has introduced 30% competency based questions as MCQs and they are important part of the Class 11 Biology paper.
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Yes, our Biology practice bank includes the new pattern of Assertion Reasoning and Case Study based MCQs. They have been designed to test the analytical skills of Class 11 students.
Solving Class 11 Biology MCQs regularly improves speed and accuracy as these are objective questions can get you 100% marks if your understanding of the topic is clear.
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