CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2026 Solved Code 64-1-2

SECTION A

1. The loudness of the sound is measured in the unit known as : [1 Mark]
(A) Millimeter
(B) Centimeter
(C) Decimal
(D) Decibel

Answer: (D) Decibel

Teacher's Note:
a) Noise pollution is measured in decibels (dB).
b) Do not confuse "Decimal" with "Decibel" - read the options carefully.

2. Which one of the following is a natural process of land degradation ? [1 Mark]
(A) Mining activities
(B) Gully erosion
(C) Industrial waste
(D) Shifting cultivation

Answer: (B) Gully erosion

Teacher's Note:
a) Gullied land, sheet erosion, salinity and waterlogging are natural causes of degradation.
b) Mining, industrial waste and shifting cultivation are human-made causes.

3. Which one of the following is the subsistence gathering zone in the high latitudes ? [1 Mark]
(A) Southern Chile
(B) South-east Asia
(C) Amazon Basin
(D) Tropical Africa

Answer: (A) Southern Chile

Teacher's Note:
a) High latitude gathering zones are northern Canada, northern Eurasia and southern Chile.
b) Amazon Basin, tropical Africa and South-east Asia are low latitude gathering zones.

4. Choose the correct option related to 'ports of call'. [1 Mark]
(A) Honolulu, Tripoli, Rotterdam
(B) Singapore, Kochchi, Tripoli
(C) Singapore, Honolulu, Aden
(D) Aden, Kochchi, Rotterdam

Answer: (C) Singapore, Honolulu, Aden

Teacher's Note:
a) Ports of call are rest points on main sea routes where ships refuel, water and take food.
b) Aden, Honolulu and Singapore are the standard textbook examples.

5. Which one of the following cities serve as headquarter of two railway zones ? [1 Mark]
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bilaspur

Answer: (A) Kolkata

Teacher's Note:
a) Kolkata is the headquarters of both Eastern Railway and South Eastern Railway.
b) Revise the zone headquarters table from the NCERT textbook.

6. Choose the right group of states where Dravadian language is spoken majorly. [1 Mark]
(A) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka

Teacher's Note:
a) Tamil, Malayalam and Kannada are Dravidian languages of South India.
b) Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh speak Indo-Aryan languages, so any option with them is wrong.

7. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) Red collar worker - Practicing lawyer
(B) Gold collar worker - Mining worker
(C) Pink collar worker - Environmental scientist
(D) White collar worker - Accountant

Answer: (D) White collar worker - Accountant

Teacher's Note:
a) White collar workers do office and professional work, such as accountants and clerks.
b) Red collar refers to farm workers and government employees; gold collar refers to highly skilled professionals.

8. Which of the following statements related to the concept of 'development' are correct ? Choose the appropriate option. [1 Mark]
I. Development means positive change in life.
II. When positive growth is there, it is development.
III. When quantity is greater, it is development.
IV. Development is always relative to value.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Development is a qualitative change which is always value positive.
b) An increase in quantity alone is growth, not development, so statement III is wrong.

9. Match column-I with column-II correctly and choose the appropriate option : [1 Mark]
Column-I (Approach) | Column-II (Characteristics)
a. Income Approach | i. Proposed by International Labour Organisation
b. Welfare Approach | ii. Health, education and access to resources - key factors
c. Basic Needs Approach | iii. It is one of the oldest approach
d. Capability Approach | iv. Human being - targeted beneficiaries
Options :
(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Answer: (D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Teacher's Note:
a) The income approach is the oldest; the basic needs approach was proposed by the ILO.
b) The capability approach (Amartya Sen) stresses building health, education and access to resources.

10. Which one of the following is known as the phase of population explosion in India ? [1 Mark]
(A) Phase I
(B) Phase II
(C) Phase III
(D) Phase IV

Answer: (C) Phase III

Teacher's Note:
a) Phase III (1951-1981) saw a rapid fall in death rate but a high birth rate.
b) Phase I is stagnant growth, Phase II steady growth and Phase IV high growth with definite signs of slowing down.

11. The 'North-South Corridor' connects which of the following set of cities ? [1 Mark]
(A) Delhi to Chennai
(B) Srinagar to Kanniyakumari
(C) Srinagar to Thiruvananthapuram
(D) Delhi to Mangaluru

Answer: (B) Srinagar to Kanniyakumari

Teacher's Note:
a) The North-South Corridor links Srinagar in the north with Kanniyakumari in the south.
b) The East-West Corridor links Silchar in Assam with Porbandar in Gujarat.

12. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : All the developed countries have opened their markets for products from developing countries.
Reason (R) : World Trade Organisation deals with the global rules of trade between nations.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Teacher's Note:
a) The WTO is criticised because developed countries have not fully opened their markets to developing countries.
b) The WTO does set the global rules of trade between nations, so the Reason is true.

13. Read the following statements carefully regarding 'tertiary activities' and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
I. Tertiary activities include both production and exchange of services.
II. Tertiary activities involve the commercial output of services.
III. Tertiary activities are directly involved in the processing of raw material.
IV. The examples of tertiary activities are - plumber, doctor, publisher.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tertiary activities provide services; they do not process raw material.
b) Processing of raw material is a secondary activity, so statement III is wrong.

14. Which one of the following statements is true regarding 'medical tourism' in India ? [1 Mark]
(A) Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities.
(B) Doctors travel to developed country to do surgical operation.
(C) Doctors travel to treat the patients.
(D) Tourists on trip get treated, if they fall ill.

Answer: (A) Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities.

Teacher's Note:
a) In medical tourism the main purpose of the trip is medical treatment.
b) India attracts such patients because of low cost and good quality health care.

Study the following table carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17.

Most populous countries
Sr. No. | Country | Population | % of world
1 | India | 1,425,775,850 | 17.4
2 | China | 1,409,670,000 | 17.2
3 | United States of America | 337,975,234 | 4.13
4 | Indonesia | 278,696,200 | 3.41
5 | Pakistan | 229,488,994 | 2.80
6 | Nigeria | 216,746,934 | 2.65
7 | Brazil | 219,277,799 | 2.68
8 | Bangladesh | 168,220,000 | 2.06
9 | Mexico | 128,271,248 | 1.57

15. China and Brazil together account for what percentage of the world population ? [1 Mark]
(A) 17.88
(B) 17.58
(C) 19.88
(D) 19.58

Answer: (C) 19.88

Teacher's Note:
a) Add the two shares: China 17.2 + Brazil 2.68 = 19.88.
b) Line up the decimal points before adding to avoid errors.

16. How many of the listed countries fall under Asian continent ? [1 Mark]
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

Answer: (C) 5

Teacher's Note:
a) The Asian countries are India, China, Indonesia, Pakistan and Bangladesh.
b) USA and Mexico are in North America, Nigeria in Africa and Brazil in South America.

17. Which of the following set of continents is not represented in the table ? Choose the most appropriate option. [1 Mark]
(A) Australia and Africa
(B) Africa and South America
(C) Europe and South America
(D) Australia and Europe

Answer: (D) Australia and Europe

Teacher's Note:
a) Africa is represented by Nigeria and South America by Brazil.
b) No country from Europe or Australia appears in the list.

SECTION B

18. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Water Pollution
Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke, etc. Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes. Consequently, poisonous elements reach the reservoirs, rivers and other water bodies, which destroy the bio-system of these waters. Major water polluting industries are leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals.

(18.1) Explain how industries are the major contributor of water pollution in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Industries release industrial waste, chemical effluents, poisonous gases, dust, smoke and heavy metals. When these mix with rivers and lakes, they pollute the water and destroy its bio-system.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name the pollutants and say that they are dumped into water bodies.
b) Leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals are the main polluting industries.

(18.2) Suggest the way for minimising water pollution. [1 Mark]

Answer: Industrial waste should not be disposed of in rivers and lakes. It should be treated before release, and industries and households should be encouraged to reuse treated water.

Teacher's Note:
a) One clearly explained measure earns the full mark.
b) Other accepted ways: stopping fertiliser and pesticide run-off, and public awareness programmes.

(18.3) Mention two rivers of India which are highly polluted. [1 Mark]

Answer: The Ganga and the Yamuna.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each river carries half a mark.
b) The Sabarmati, Gomti, Kali, Adyar, Cooum, Vaigai and Musi are also accepted.

19. Study the map showing areas of 'extensive commercial grains farming' carefully and answer questions that follow :

[Figure: World map showing areas of extensive commercial grain farming (shaded). Area A is marked in the interior of North America; area B is marked in Eurasia, to the north of the Caspian Sea. Other shaded areas are in southern South America, South Africa and south-east Australia.]

(19.1) Write the geographical name of the area marked as A [1 Mark]

Answer: The Canadian and American Prairies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write the regional name "Prairies", not just the country names.
b) Other such grasslands are the Pampas, Velds, Downs and Canterbury Plains.

(19.2) Name any two major crops grown in the region A [1 Mark]

Answer: Wheat and corn (barley, oats and rye are also grown).

Teacher's Note:
a) Each correct crop gets half a mark.
b) Wheat is the principal crop of this type of farming.

(19.3) Explain the agricultural importance of the area marked as B [1 Mark]

Answer: In area B (the Eurasian steppes), extensive commercial grain farming is practised on very large farms. All operations from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised, so yield per acre is low but yield per person is high.

Teacher's Note:
a) One explained point about commercial grain farming is enough for the mark.
b) Remember the key pair: low yield per acre, high yield per person.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 19)

Explain the main characteristics of 'extensive commercial grain farming' in the world. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes, such as the Prairies, Pampas, Velds, Downs and Canterbury Plains.
2. The size of the farm is very large, and all operations from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised.
3. There is low yield per acre but high yield per person. Wheat is the main crop; corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write three separate points; each carries one mark.
b) Naming the major areas adds value to your answer.

SECTION C

20. Examine the relationships between 'human societies' and 'earth surface'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Human geography is the synthetic study of the relationship between human societies and the earth's surface. Nature and humans are inseparable and closely intertwined.
2. Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of technology, while nature provides the opportunities. Humans have greatly modified the physical environment, and it in turn has affected human lives.
3. Physical and human phenomena are described using symbols from the human body, such as the face of the earth, eye of the storm, mouth of the river, snout of the glacier and profile of the soil.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: synthetic study, inseparable, intertwined, technology.
b) Examples of anatomical metaphors make the answer stand out.
c) Keep within 80 to 100 words.

21. Examine the importance of 'empowering people' as a pillar of 'human development'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Empowerment means having the power to make choices. This power comes from increasing freedom and capability.
2. Good governance and people-oriented policies are needed to empower people.
3. Empowering socially and economically disadvantaged groups is of special importance, so that they can take part in and benefit from development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Start with the meaning: power to make choices.
b) The four pillars are equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.

22. (a) Explain the main characteristics of urban settlements in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size. They specialise in secondary and tertiary activities.
2. Urban centres are centres of economic growth and provide goods and services to city dwellers as well as to rural areas. They have a better network of transport and communication.
3. In cities, the way of life is complex and fast, and social relations are formal.

Teacher's Note:
a) Compare with rural settlements to show the difference in functions.
b) Mention both size and function for full marks.

OR

(b) Explain the evolution of towns in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ancient towns: Towns flourished in India since prehistoric times, like Harappa and Mohenjodaro. Ancient towns have a history of over 2000 years and developed as religious and cultural centres, e.g. Varanasi, Prayag (Allahabad), Pataliputra (Patna) and Madurai.
2. Medieval towns: They developed as fort towns on the ruins of ancient towns, as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms, e.g. Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur.
3. Modern towns: The British and other Europeans developed towns like Surat, Daman, Goa and Pondicherry, and later Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata, hill towns and industrial towns. After independence, administrative towns (Chandigarh, Gandhinagar, Dispur), industrial towns (Durgapur, Bhilai) and satellite towns (Ghaziabad, Rohtak, Gurugram) developed.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the three-stage classification: ancient, medieval and modern.
b) Give at least one example for each stage.

23. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Sectoral composition of workforce in India, 2011
Categories | Persons | % to total workers | Male | Female
Primary | 26,30,22,473 | 54.6 | 16,54,47,075 | 9,75,75,398
Secondary | 1,83,36,307 | 3.8 | 97,75,635 | 85,60,672
Tertiary | 20,03,84,531 | 41.6 | 15,66,43,220 | 4,37,41,311

(23.1) Why is the large difference between primary and tertiary categories of female workers ? [1 Mark]

Answer: Many men migrate from rural to urban areas for work, so a large number of women remain in villages and work in the primary sector. Participation of women in tertiary activities is also a recent trend.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link the answer to male out-migration from rural areas.
b) One explained reason earns the mark.

(23.2) Explain the reason of low variation between male workers of 'primary' and 'tertiary' sectors. [1 Mark]

Answer: It is due to a change in the workforce pattern in India. Many men still work in the primary sector, while many others are shifting to the tertiary sector as job opportunities grow, so both sectors have a large number of male workers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote the figures: about 16.5 crore males in primary and 15.7 crore in tertiary.
b) Use the phrase "shift towards the tertiary sector".

(23.3) Why 'secondary sector' has low contribution in India's workforce ? [1 Mark]

Answer: India's secondary sector has a low share of workers (only 3.8%) because of slow industrial growth, gaps in skills and the direct shift of workers towards services.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote the table value of 3.8% to support the answer.
b) Mention low industrialisation as the main reason.

SECTION D

24. "There are many factors affecting the location of industries." Examine the main factors in favour of the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Access to market: Industries are set up near large markets with high purchasing power to reduce transport costs.
2. Access to raw material: Industries using heavy, cheap or perishable raw material are located close to its source.
3. Access to labour supply: Industries need a large and skilled labour force, so they come up where labour is available.
4. Access to sources of energy and transport: Energy-intensive industries are located near power sources, and good transport and communication help in moving raw materials and finished goods.
5. Government policy and agglomeration economies: Governments promote industries in certain areas through policies, and industries benefit by locating near other linked industries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use each factor as a sub-heading and explain it in one line.
b) Examples (e.g. sugar mills near cane fields) earn extra credit.
c) Keep within 120 to 150 words.

25. (a) Explain the significance of petroleum as major source of energy and describe its distribution in India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Significance:
1. Petroleum is an essential source of energy for internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft.
2. Its many by-products are used in petrochemical industries such as fertilisers, synthetic rubber, fibres, medicines, vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics.
3. Petroleum is scarce but has diversified uses, so it is called liquid gold.
Distribution:
4. Assam has oilfields at Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran; Gujarat has Ankaleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba and Lunej.
5. Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea is a major offshore field, and exploratory wells are in the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins on the east coast.

Teacher's Note:
a) The marks split is 3 for significance and 2 for distribution.
b) Name states together with specific oilfields.

OR

(b) Explain the significance of iron-ore as industrial raw material and describe its distribution in India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Significance:
1. Iron ore provides a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.
2. India has the largest reserves of iron ore in Asia, mainly of hematite and magnetite types, which are in great demand in the international market due to their superior quality.
3. Iron ore mines lie close to coalfields in the north-eastern plateau region, which is an added advantage.
Distribution:
4. Odisha is the leading producer, with ore in the hill ranges of Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar; Jharkhand has Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts.
5. Chhattisgarh has Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila, and Karnataka has Ballari, Chikkamagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru. Goa is also an important producer.

Teacher's Note:
a) The marks split is 3 for significance and 2 for distribution.
b) Remember Odisha as the leading producer and Bailadila as a famous mine.

26. (a) "Railway is the mode of land transport for bulky goods and passengers over long distances." In the context of this statement, explain the significance of railways in the world. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Railways are a major mode of surface transport over long distances; about 13 lakh km of railways are open for traffic in the world. Commuter trains are popular in the UK, USA, Japan and India.
2. Europe has about 4,40,000 km of railways, the densest rail network in the world.
3. North America has one of the most extensive rail networks, and in Russia railways carry about 90% of the country's total transport.
4. Trans-continental railways run across Russia, Canada, USA, Australia and South America.
5. In Asia, the rail network is densest in the thickly populated areas of Japan, China and India. Africa has about 40,000 km of railways, almost half of it in South Africa.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote figures such as 13 lakh km and 90% in Russia.
b) Cover different continents to show world-wide significance.

OR

(b) "Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railway." In the context of this statement, explain the significance of road transport in the world. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Roads are very economical for short distances and offer door-to-door service.
2. Roads act as feeders to railways, airways and waterways.
3. Roads play a vital role in a nation's trade and commerce and in promoting tourism.
4. The quality of roads varies between developed and developing countries. North America has very high road density and accounts for about 33% of the world's motorable road length.
5. Europe has a well-developed highway network; Russia has a dense network west of the Urals, and in China and India highways link all major cities.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Door-to-door service" and "feeder" are key words.
b) Add regional examples to link with the world context.

27. (a) "Generally land-use in a region is influenced by the nature of economic activities." Support the statement with suitable examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Economic activities change over time, but land is a fixed resource.
2. The size of the economy grows with rising population and income levels. This increases pressure on land, and even marginal land is put to use.
3. The composition of the economy changes over time with the growth of secondary and tertiary sectors. Land shifts from agriculture to non-agricultural uses such as factories, offices and housing.
4. With economic growth, the demand for land increases, so forest land is put to other uses.
5. As population rises, demand for food increases. So culturable wasteland and fallow land other than current fallow are brought under cultivation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Relate each point to a change in land-use category.
b) Use examples like growth of cities on farmland near metros.

OR

(b) "The Indian agricultural problems have physical constraints and institutional hindrances." Support the statement with suitable examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dependence on erratic monsoon: Only about a third of cropped area is irrigated, so droughts and floods harm crops.
2. Low productivity: Crop yields per hectare in India are low compared with many other countries.
3. Constraints of financial resources and indebtedness: Farmers lack money for inputs and fall into debt when crops fail.
4. Lack of land reforms and small, fragmented land holdings: Unequal land distribution and small farms make farming uneconomical.
5. Degradation of cultivable land: Wrong irrigation practices lead to salinity, alkalinity and waterlogging, reducing soil fertility.

Teacher's Note:
a) Show both physical (monsoon, land degradation) and institutional (land reforms, credit) problems.
b) Lack of commercialisation and vast underemployment are also accepted points.

28. (a) Analyse the changes in India's composition of foreign trade. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The share of agriculture and allied products in exports has decreased, and traditional items like cashew have declined, while floriculture products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar have increased.
2. Manufactured and engineering goods make up a large part of the export basket, and gems and jewellery contribute a large share.
3. The share of crude petroleum and its products has increased, while ores and minerals have remained largely constant.
4. In the 1950s and 1960s food grains, capital goods, machinery and equipment were the main imports. After the 1970s, food grain imports were replaced by fertilisers due to the Green Revolution.
5. The 1973 energy crisis pushed up the import bill for petroleum. Today machines, special steel, edible oil, chemicals, pearls and precious stones, gold and silver are major imports, while imports of capital goods and food items have declined.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover changes in both exports and imports.
b) Mention key turning points: Green Revolution and the 1973 oil crisis.

OR

(b) Analyse the causes for the sharp rise in India's foreign trade. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The manufacturing sector has picked up momentum, increasing exports.
2. Liberal policies of the government have boosted trade.
3. Trading partners and markets have been diversified.
4. Import liberalisation and reduction in import duties have increased imports.
5. De-licensing, change from process to product patents, and India's good relations with most countries and trading blocs have helped trade grow.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link the rise mainly to the liberalisation policy of 1991.
b) Write each cause as a separate numbered point.

SECTION E

29. In the given political outline map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five of them with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : [5 Marks]
A. A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
B. A major sea port
C. A major air port
D. An international shipping canal
E. An area of 'subsistence gathering'
F. An area of 'commercial livestock rearing'
G. An area of 'dairy farming'

[Figure: Outline political map of the World. A is a point in north-western Russia near the Baltic Sea; B is a point on the western coast of South America (Chile); C is a point in East Africa (Kenya); D is a point in Central America at the narrow isthmus between North and South America; E is a shaded area in central Africa; F is a shaded area in the western part of the USA; G is a shaded strip in south-eastern Australia.]

Answer:
A. St. Petersburg
B. Valparaiso
C. Nairobi
D. Panama Canal
E. Tropical Africa
F. Western parts of United States of America
G. South-Eastern Australia

Teacher's Note:
a) Only five features are to be identified; each correct name carries one mark.
b) Write the name neatly on the line drawn near the letter, not at another spot on the map.
c) St. Petersburg is the western terminal and Vladivostok the eastern terminal of the Trans-Siberian Railway.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 29)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 29. Attempt any five. [5 Marks]
29.1 Name the westernmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.
29.2 Mention a major sea port on the western coast of South America.
29.3 Mention an international airport of Kenya.
29.4 Name the shipping canal joining Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
29.5 Mention one major region of 'subsistence gathering' in Africa.
29.6 Name a major area of 'commercial livestock rearing' in United States of America.
29.7 Name the major area of 'dairy farming' in North America.

Answer:
29.1 St. Petersburg
29.2 Valparaiso
29.3 Nairobi
29.4 Panama Canal
29.5 Tropical Africa
29.6 Western parts of the USA
29.7 Canada

Teacher's Note:
a) Attempt any five; each correct answer carries one mark.
b) The Panama Canal joins the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans; the Suez Canal joins the Mediterranean and Red Seas.

30. On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : [5 Marks]
30.1 A state with the highest density of population (2011).
30.2 A state leading in the production of tea.
30.3 An iron-ore mining area in southern Chhattisgarh.
30.4 A major area of bauxite mining in Odisha.
30.5 An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 A major seaport located at the head of Gulf of Kuchchh.
30.7 An international airport in Punjab.

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

Answer:
30.1 Bihar (shade the state)
30.2 Assam (shade the state)
30.3 Bailadila (southern Chhattisgarh)
30.4 Koraput (southern Odisha)
30.5 Mathura (western Uttar Pradesh)
30.6 Deendayal Port / Kandla (Gujarat)
30.7 Amritsar - Raja Sansi (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee) International Airport (Punjab)

Teacher's Note:
a) Mark any five; use shading for states and a dot or symbol with a name for places.
b) Bihar had the highest population density in 2011 (1,106 persons per sq km).
c) For bauxite, Kalahandi, Sambalpur or Bolangir are also accepted.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 30)

Note : The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Question No. 30. Attempt any five. [5 Marks]
30.1 Name the state with the highest density of population (2011).
30.2 Which state is leading in tea production ?
30.3 Name any one iron-ore mining area in Chhattisgarh.
30.4 Mention one bauxite mining area in Odisha.
30.5 Name the place where oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 Name the major sea port located on the head of Gulf of Kuchchh.
30.7 Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

Answer:
30.1 Bihar
30.2 Assam
30.3 Bailadila (also Durg, Dantewara or Rajhara)
30.4 Koraput (also Kalahandi, Sambalpur or Bolangir)
30.5 Mathura
30.6 Kandla (Deendayal Port)
30.7 Amritsar (Raja Sansi / Guru Ram Dass Ji International Airport)

Teacher's Note:
a) Attempt any five; each correct answer carries one mark.
b) Kandla was renamed Deendayal Port; either name is accepted.

Please click the link below to download pdf file of CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2026 Solved Code 64-1-2