CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2026 Solved Code 64-1-3

SECTION A

1. Which one of the following cities serve as headquarter of two railway zones ? [1 Mark]
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bilaspur

Answer: (A) Kolkata

Teacher's Note:
a) Kolkata is the headquarters of both the Eastern Railway and the South Eastern Railway zones.
b) Chennai, Jaipur and Bilaspur are headquarters of only one zone each.

2. Choose the right group of states where Dravadian language is spoken majorly. [1 Mark]
(A) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka

Teacher's Note:
a) Tamil, Malayalam and Kannada are Dravidian languages of South India.
b) Options with Maharashtra or Madhya Pradesh are wrong, as Marathi and Hindi are Indo-Aryan languages.

3. In which one of the following countries, the 'slash and burn cultivation' is known as 'Milpa' ? [1 Mark]
(A) Mexico
(B) Malaysia
(C) Indonesia
(D) India

Answer: (A) Mexico

Teacher's Note:
a) Shifting cultivation is called Milpa in Mexico and Central America.
b) It is called Ladang in Indonesia and Malaysia, and Jhuming in North-East India.

4. Choose the correct option related to 'entrepot port' : [1 Mark]
(A) Memphis, Copenhagen, Tripoli
(B) Memphis, Singapore, Manchester
(C) Rotterdam, Copenhagen, Singapore
(D) Rotterdam, Tripoli, Manchester

Answer: (C) Rotterdam, Copenhagen, Singapore

Teacher's Note:
a) Entrepot ports are collection centres where goods are brought from different countries for re-export.
b) Memphis and Manchester are not sea ports, so options with them can be ruled out quickly.

5. Which of the following statements related to the concept of 'development' are correct ? Choose the appropriate option. [1 Mark]
I. Development means positive change in life.
II. When positive growth is there, it is development.
III. When quantity is greater, it is development.
IV. Development is always relative to value.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive.
b) A mere increase in quantity is growth, not development, so statement III is wrong.

6. Match column-I with column-II correctly and choose the appropriate option : [1 Mark]
Column-I (Approach) | Column-II (Characteristics)
a. Income Approach | i. Proposed by International Labour Organisation
b. Welfare Approach | ii. Health, education and access to resources - key factors
c. Basic Needs Approach | iii. It is one of the oldest approach
d. Capability Approach | iv. Human being - targeted beneficiaries
Options :
(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Answer: (D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Teacher's Note:
a) The income approach is the oldest; the basic needs approach was proposed by the ILO.
b) The capability approach (Prof. Amartya Sen) stresses health, education and access to resources.

7. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) Red collar worker - Civil servants
(B) Gold collar worker - Environmental consultants
(C) Pink collar worker - Electricians
(D) White collar worker - Nurses

Answer: (B) Gold collar worker - Environmental consultants

Teacher's Note:
a) Gold collar (quinary) workers include highly paid experts, consultants and senior decision makers.
b) Pink collar jobs are usually low-paid service jobs, and electricians are blue collar workers.

8. The loudness of the sound is measured in the unit known as : [1 Mark]
(A) Millimeter
(B) Centimeter
(C) Decimal
(D) Decibel

Answer: (D) Decibel

Teacher's Note:
a) Noise level is measured in decibels (dB).
b) Do not confuse "Decimal" with "Decibel" - read the options carefully.

9. Which one of the following is a natural process of land degradation ? [1 Mark]
(A) Mining activities
(B) Gully erosion
(C) Industrial waste
(D) Shifting cultivation

Answer: (B) Gully erosion

Teacher's Note:
a) Gullied and ravenous land is created by natural erosion by running water.
b) Mining, industrial waste and shifting cultivation are human-made causes of degradation.

10. Which one of the following phases is associated with gradual slowing down of population growth in India ? [1 Mark]
(A) Phase I
(B) Phase II
(C) Phase III
(D) Phase IV

Answer: (D) Phase IV

Teacher's Note:
a) Phase IV (after 1981) shows a high but gradually declining growth rate.
b) Remember: Phase I stagnant, Phase II steady, Phase III population explosion, Phase IV slowing down.

11. The 'East-West Corridor' connects which of the following set of cities ? [1 Mark]
(A) Kandla to Silchar
(B) Kandla to Shillong
(C) Porbandar to Shillong
(D) Porbandar to Silchar

Answer: (D) Porbandar to Silchar

Teacher's Note:
a) The East-West Corridor links Porbandar in Gujarat with Silchar in Assam.
b) The North-South Corridor links Srinagar with Kanyakumari.

12. Which one of the following statements is true regarding 'medical tourism' in India ? [1 Mark]
(A) Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities.
(B) Doctors travel to developed country to do surgical operation.
(C) Doctors travel to treat the patients.
(D) Tourists on trip get treated, if they fall ill.

Answer: (A) Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities.

Teacher's Note:
a) In medical tourism, the main purpose of travel is medical treatment.
b) India attracts such patients because good treatment is available at low cost.

13. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : All the developed countries have opened their markets for products from developing countries.
Reason (R) : World Trade Organisation deals with the global rules of trade between nations.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Teacher's Note:
a) The WTO is criticised because developed countries have not fully opened their markets to developing countries.
b) The WTO does set the global rules of trade between nations, so R is true.

14. Read the following statements carefully regarding 'tertiary activities' and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
I. Tertiary activities include both production and exchange of services.
II. Tertiary activities involve the commercial output of services.
III. Tertiary activities are directly involved in the processing of raw material.
IV. The examples of tertiary activities are - plumber, doctor, publisher.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tertiary activities provide services; they do not process raw material.
b) Processing of raw material is a secondary activity, so statement III is wrong.

Study the following table carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17.

Most populous countries
Sr. No. | Country | Population | % of world
1 | India | 1,425,775,850 | 17.4
2 | China | 1,409,670,000 | 17.2
3 | United States of America | 337,975,234 | 4.13
4 | Indonesia | 278,696,200 | 3.41
5 | Pakistan | 229,488,994 | 2.80
6 | Nigeria | 216,746,934 | 2.65
7 | Brazil | 219,277,799 | 2.68
8 | Bangladesh | 168,220,000 | 2.06
9 | Mexico | 128,271,248 | 1.57

15. Which of the following set of continents is not represented in the table ? Choose the most appropriate option. [1 Mark]
(A) Australia and Africa
(B) Africa and South America
(C) Europe and South America
(D) Australia and Europe

Answer: (D) Australia and Europe

Teacher's Note:
a) Africa is represented by Nigeria and South America by Brazil.
b) No country of Europe or Australia appears in the list.

16. China and Brazil together account for what percentage of the world population ? [1 Mark]
(A) 17.88
(B) 17.58
(C) 19.88
(D) 19.58

Answer: (C) 19.88

Teacher's Note:
a) China 17.2 + Brazil 2.68 = 19.88 per cent.
b) Take the values from the "% of world" column, not the population column.

17. How many of the listed countries fall under Asian continent ? [1 Mark]
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

Answer: (C) 5

Teacher's Note:
a) The Asian countries are India, China, Indonesia, Pakistan and Bangladesh.
b) USA and Mexico are in North America, Nigeria in Africa and Brazil in South America.

SECTION B

18. Study the map showing areas of 'extensive commercial grains farming' carefully and answer questions that follow :

[Figure: Outline map of the World titled "Extensive Commercial Grain Farming", with shaded areas in North America, South America, Eurasia, South Africa and Australia. Area A is marked on the shaded region in the interior of North America; area B is marked on the shaded region in Eurasia, north of the Caspian Sea and east of Europe.]

(18.1) Write the geographical name of the area marked as A [1 Mark]

Answer: The Canadian and American Prairies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write the exact geographical name "Prairies", not just "North America".
b) Other such grasslands are the Pampas, the Velds, the Downs and the Canterbury Plains.

(18.2) Name any two major crops grown in the region A [1 Mark]

Answer: Wheat and corn (maize).

Teacher's Note:
a) Barley, oats and rye are also accepted.
b) Wheat is the principal crop of extensive grain farming.

(18.3) Explain the agricultural importance of the area marked as B [1 Mark]

Answer: Area B (the Eurasian steppes) is an important region of commercial grain farming, where the entire work from ploughing to harvesting is mechanised on very large farms.

Teacher's Note:
a) Any one point is enough: large farms, full mechanisation, or low yield per acre but high yield per person.
b) Link the point clearly to commercial grain farming.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 18)

Explain the main characteristics of 'extensive commercial grain farming' in the world. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes, such as the Prairies, Pampas, Velds, Downs and Canterbury Plains.
2. The size of the farm is very large, and all operations from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised.
3. The yield per acre is low but the yield per person is high. Major crops are wheat, corn, barley, oats and rye.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: mid-latitude grasslands, large farms, mechanisation, low yield per acre.
b) Naming one or two regions makes the answer stronger.

19. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Water Pollution
Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke, etc. Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes. Consequently, poisonous elements reach the reservoirs, rivers and other water bodies, which destroy the bio-system of these waters. Major water polluting industries are leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals.

(19.1) Explain how industries are the major contributor of water pollution in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Industries release industrial waste, poisonous gases, chemical effluents, dust, smoke and heavy metals. When these mix with rivers and lakes, they pollute the water.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the pollutants named in the passage to build the answer.
b) Mention that most waste is dumped into running water or lakes.

(19.2) Suggest the way for minimising water pollution. [1 Mark]

Answer: Industrial waste should not be disposed of in rivers and lakes; it should be treated first, so that the bio-system of water bodies is protected.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other accepted ways: stop fertilisers and pesticides reaching water, public awareness, reuse of treated water.
b) One clearly explained suggestion earns the full mark.

(19.3) Mention two rivers of India which are highly polluted. [1 Mark]

Answer: The Ganga and the Yamuna.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Sabarmati, Gomti, Kali, Adyar, Cooum, Vaigai and Musi are also accepted.
b) Each correct river name carries half a mark.

SECTION C

20. Examine the relationships between 'physical environment and human beings'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Human geography studies the inter-relationship between the physical environment and the socio-cultural environment created by human beings through mutual interaction.
2. The physical environment consists of landforms, soils, climate, water, natural vegetation and diverse flora and fauna. On this stage, human beings have created a cultural environment of villages, cities, industries, farms, ports and transport networks.
3. Nature provides opportunities, and human beings interact with the physical environment with the help of technology.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: physical environment, cultural environment, interaction, technology.
b) Give examples of both natural elements and human-made features.

21. Examine the importance of 'productivity' as a pillar of 'human development'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Productivity means human labour productivity or productivity in terms of human work.
2. Such productivity must be constantly enriched by building capabilities in people, because people are the real wealth of nations.
3. Efforts to increase their knowledge and provide better health facilities lead to better work efficiency.

Teacher's Note:
a) The four pillars are equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.
b) Link productivity with capability building through education and health.

22. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Sectoral composition of workforce in India, 2011
Categories | Persons | % to total workers | Male | Female
Primary | 26,30,22,473 | 54.6 | 16,54,47,075 | 9,75,75,398
Secondary | 1,83,36,307 | 3.8 | 97,75,635 | 85,60,672
Tertiary | 20,03,84,531 | 41.6 | 15,66,43,220 | 4,37,41,311

(22.1) Why is the large difference between primary and tertiary categories of female workers ? [1 Mark]

Answer: Most of the male population has migrated from rural to urban areas, so a large number of women remain engaged in primary activities. Participation of women in tertiary activities is low and is a recent phenomenon.

Teacher's Note:
a) Compare the female figures: about 9.76 crore in primary against 4.37 crore in tertiary.
b) Male out-migration from villages is the key reason.

(22.2) Explain the reason of low variation between male workers of 'primary' and 'tertiary' sectors. [1 Mark]

Answer: The workforce pattern of India is changing. Many males are still engaged in the primary sector, while many others are shifting to the tertiary sector as job opportunities grow. So both sectors have a large number of male workers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keyword: shift of male workers towards services.
b) Quote the figures (about 16.5 crore and 15.7 crore) to support the answer.

(22.3) Why 'secondary sector' has low contribution in India's workforce ? [1 Mark]

Answer: The secondary sector employs few workers because of low industrial growth in India, skill gaps among workers and a direct shift of workers towards services.

Teacher's Note:
a) The table shows only 3.8 per cent of workers in the secondary sector.
b) One clear reason, such as low industrial growth, is enough.

23. (a) Explain the main characteristics of urban settlements in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size, and they specialise in secondary and tertiary activities.
2. Urban centres act as centres of economic growth and provide goods and services to city dwellers as well as rural areas. They have a better network of transport and communication.
3. In cities, the way of life is complex and fast, and social relations are formal.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: compact, non-agricultural activities, services, formal relations.
b) Contrast with rural settlements to make the points clear.

OR

(b) Explain the evolution of towns in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ancient towns: towns flourished in India since prehistoric times, like Harappa and Mohenjodaro. Ancient towns have a history of over 2000 years and developed as religious and cultural centres, e.g. Varanasi, Prayag and Madurai.
2. Medieval towns: they developed as fort towns on the ruins of ancient towns, as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms, e.g. Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow and Agra.
3. Modern towns: the British and other Europeans developed towns such as Surat, Daman, Goa and Pondicherry, and later Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. After independence, administrative towns (Chandigarh, Gandhinagar), industrial towns (Durgapur, Bhilai) and satellite towns (Ghaziabad, Gurugram) developed.

Teacher's Note:
a) Arrange the answer as ancient, medieval and modern towns.
b) Give at least one example for each type.

SECTION D

24. "Manufacturing industries are classified on several bases." Examine the main bases of classification in favour of the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Size: household (cottage) industries use family labour and simple tools; small-scale industries use small machines and limited capital, e.g. garment making; large-scale industries need heavy capital and advanced technology, e.g. iron and steel.
2. Raw materials: agro-based (cotton textile, sugar), forest-based (paper, furniture) and animal-based (leather, wool, dairy) industries.
3. Other inputs: mineral-based industries (iron and steel, cement, aluminium) and chemical-based industries (petrochemicals, fertilisers, plastics).
4. Output or product: basic industries make raw materials for other industries, e.g. iron and steel; consumer goods industries make goods used directly by consumers, e.g. food processing.
5. Ownership: public sector (owned by government), private sector (owned by individuals or companies) and joint sector (owned jointly by government and private sector).

Teacher's Note:
a) Name each basis first and then give its types with examples.
b) Five bases with one example each can earn full marks.

25. (a) "Generally land-use in a region is influenced by the nature of economic activities." Support the statement with suitable examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The nature of economic activities changes over time, but land remains a static resource.
2. The size of the economy grows with rising population and income, which increases pressure on land and brings marginal land into use.
3. The composition of the economy changes, with growth of secondary and tertiary sectors, so land shifts from agriculture to non-agricultural uses.
4. As the economy grows, demand for land increases and forest land is shifted to other uses.
5. With growing population, demand for food rises, so culturable wasteland and fallow land (other than current fallow) are brought under agriculture.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: size of economy, composition of economy, pressure on land.
b) Give examples such as land shifting from farms to industries and roads.

OR

(b) "The Indian agricultural problems have physical constraints and institutional hindrances." Support the statement with suitable examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dependence on erratic monsoon: much of the farming is rainfed, so droughts and floods reduce output.
2. Low productivity: crop yields in India are low compared to other countries.
3. Constraints of financial resources and indebtedness: small farmers lack money and fall into debt.
4. Lack of land reforms and small, fragmented land holdings make farming uneconomical.
5. Degradation of cultivable land, along with lack of commercialisation and vast underemployment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Show both physical problems (monsoon, land degradation) and institutional problems (land reforms, credit).
b) Explain each point in one line instead of only naming it.

26. (a) Explain the significance of petroleum as major source of energy and describe its distribution in India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Significance:
1. Petroleum is an essential source of energy for internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft.
2. Its many by-products are processed in petrochemical industries to make fertilisers, synthetic rubber, fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics.
3. Petroleum is scarce but has diversified uses, so it is called liquid gold.
Distribution:
4. Assam: Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran. Gujarat: Ankaleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba and Lunej.
5. Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea, and exploratory wells in the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins on the east coast.

Teacher's Note:
a) This is a 3+2 question: three points on significance and two on distribution.
b) Name specific oil fields; just writing state names is weak.

OR

(b) Explain the significance of iron-ore as industrial raw material and describe its distribution in India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Significance:
1. Iron ore provides a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries.
2. India has the largest reserve of iron ore in Asia; the main types are hematite and magnetite, which are in great demand in the international market due to superior quality.
3. Iron ore mines occur close to the coal fields in the north-eastern plateau region, which adds to their advantage.
Distribution:
4. Odisha is the leading producer, with ore in the hill ranges of Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar. In Jharkhand, it is found in Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum.
5. Chhattisgarh has Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila; Karnataka has Ballari, Chikkamagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru.

Teacher's Note:
a) This is a 3+2 question: three points on significance and two on distribution.
b) Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Goa are also accepted for distribution.

27. (a) "Railway is the mode of land transport for bulky goods and passengers over long distances." In the context of this statement, explain the significance of railways in the world. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Railways are a significant mode of surface transport, with about 13 lakh km of railways open for traffic in the world. Commuter trains are popular in the UK, USA, Japan and India.
2. Europe has about 4,40,000 km of railways, the densest rail network in the world, and North America has one of the most extensive networks.
3. In Russia, railways account for 90 per cent of the country's total transport.
4. Trans-continental railways run across Australia, Russia, Canada, USA and South America.
5. In Asia, the rail network is densest in the thickly populated areas of Japan, China and India. Africa has 40,000 km of railways, almost half of it in South Africa.

Teacher's Note:
a) Support each point with a region or a figure from the textbook.
b) Mention trans-continental railways, as they carry bulky goods over long distances.

OR

(b) "Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railway." In the context of this statement, explain the significance of road transport in the world. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Roads are very economical for short distances and offer door to door services.
2. Roads act as feeders to railways, airways and waterways.
3. Roads play a vital role in a nation's trade and commerce and in promoting tourism.
4. The quality of roads varies between developed and developing countries. North America has a very high road density and accounts for 33 per cent of the world's motorable road length.
5. Europe has a well developed highway network; Russia has a dense network west of the Urals; in China and India, highways link all major cities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: door to door service, feeder role, short distances.
b) Add world examples, such as North America and Europe, to score full marks.

28. (a) Analyse the role of air transport in 'international trade' of India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Air transport is the fastest means of transport.
2. Valuable cargo can be moved rapidly on a worldwide scale.
3. It is often the only means to reach inaccessible areas.
4. Perishable goods can be sent safely over long distances.
5. Under the UDAN scheme, many new airports have been developed and old ones upgraded, which has increased the movement of goods and passengers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: fastest, valuable cargo, perishable goods.
b) Mentioning the UDAN scheme shows current awareness.

OR

(b) Analyse the importance of water transport in 'international trade' of India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. India is surrounded by sea on three sides and has a long coastline.
2. Water provides a smooth surface for cheap transportation and is best for heavy and bulky material.
3. It is a fuel efficient and eco-friendly mode of transport.
4. The capacity of Indian ports has increased from 20 million tonnes of cargo in 1951 to more than 837 million tonnes in 2016.
5. About 95 per cent of India's foreign trade by volume and 70 per cent by value moves through ocean routes.

Teacher's Note:
a) The 95 per cent (volume) and 70 per cent (value) figures are key value points.
b) Stress that it is the cheapest mode for bulky goods.

SECTION E

29. In the given political outline map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five of them with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : [5 Marks]
A. A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
B. A major sea port
C. A major air port
D. An international shipping canal
E. An area of 'subsistence gathering'
F. An area of 'commercial livestock rearing'
G. An area of 'dairy farming'

[Figure: Outline political map of the World. A is marked in north-western Russia near the Baltic Sea; B on the western coast of South America (Chile); C in East Africa (Kenya); D on the narrow isthmus of Central America; E is a shaded area in central Africa; F is a shaded area in the western part of the USA; G is a shaded area in south-eastern Australia.]

Answer:
A. St. Petersburg
B. Valparaiso
C. Nairobi
D. Panama Canal
E. Tropical Africa
F. Western USA (United States of America)
G. South-eastern Australia

Teacher's Note:
a) Write the names neatly on the lines drawn near the letters; spelling matters.
b) Only five features are needed, so start with the ones you are sure of.
c) The Trans-Siberian Railway runs from St. Petersburg in the west to Vladivostok in the east.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 29)

Attempt any five. [5 Marks]
29.1 Name the westernmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.
29.2 Mention a major sea port on the western coast of South America.
29.3 Mention an international airport of Kenya.
29.4 Name the shipping canal joining Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
29.5 Mention one major region of 'subsistence gathering' in Africa.
29.6 Name a major area of 'commercial livestock rearing' in United States of America.
29.7 Name the major area of 'dairy farming' in North America.

Answer:
29.1 St. Petersburg
29.2 Valparaiso
29.3 Nairobi
29.4 Panama Canal
29.5 Tropical Africa
29.6 Western parts of the USA
29.7 Canada

Teacher's Note:
a) Answer only five parts; each carries one mark.
b) One-word or short answers are enough for these questions.

30. On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : [5 Marks]
30.1 A state with the highest density of population (2011).
30.2 A state leading in the production of tea.
30.3 An iron-ore mining area in southern Chhattisgarh.
30.4 A major area of bauxite mining in Odisha.
30.5 An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 A major seaport located at the head of Gulf of Kuchchh.
30.7 An international airport in Punjab.

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

Answer:
30.1 Bihar - shade the state of Bihar.
30.2 Assam - shade the state of Assam.
30.3 Bailadila - mark with a dot in southern Chhattisgarh.
30.4 Koraput - mark with a dot in southern Odisha.
30.5 Mathura - mark the refinery in western Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 Kandla (Deendayal Port) - mark at the head of the Gulf of Kuchchh in Gujarat.
30.7 Amritsar (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport, Raja Sansi) - mark in north-western Punjab.

Teacher's Note:
a) Shade states and use dots or symbols for places, and label each one clearly.
b) For 30.4, Kalahandi, Sambalpur or Bolangir are also accepted; for 30.3, Durg, Dantewara or Rajhara.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 30)

Attempt any five. [5 Marks]
30.1 Name the state with the highest density of population (2011).
30.2 Which state is leading in tea production ?
30.3 Name any one iron-ore mining area in Chhattisgarh.
30.4 Mention one bauxite mining area in Odisha.
30.5 Name the place where oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 Name the major sea port located on the head of Gulf of Kuchchh.
30.7 Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

Answer:
30.1 Bihar
30.2 Assam
30.3 Bailadila
30.4 Koraput
30.5 Mathura
30.6 Kandla (Deendayal Port)
30.7 Amritsar (Raja Sansi)

Teacher's Note:
a) Answer only five parts; each carries one mark.
b) Durg, Dantewara or Rajhara (30.3) and Kalahandi, Sambalpur or Bolangir (30.4) are also accepted.

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