CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2026 Solved Code 64-1-1

SECTION A

1. Which of the following statements related to the concept of 'development' are correct ? Choose the appropriate option. [1 Mark]
I. Development means positive change in life.
II. When positive growth is there, it is development.
III. When quantity is greater, it is development.
IV. Development is always relative to value.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Development means a qualitative change which is always value positive.
b) Statement III describes growth (quantity), not development, so it is wrong.

2. Match column-I with column-II correctly and choose the appropriate option : [1 Mark]
Column-I (Approach) | Column-II (Characteristics)
a. Income Approach | i. Proposed by International Labour Organisation
b. Welfare Approach | ii. Health, education and access to resources - key factors
c. Basic Needs Approach | iii. It is one of the oldest approach
d. Capability Approach | iv. Human being - targeted beneficiaries
Options :
(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(C) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Answer: (D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

Teacher's Note:
a) The income approach is the oldest; the basic needs approach was proposed by the ILO.
b) The capability approach is linked with Prof. Amartya Sen and stresses health, education and access to resources.

3. Which one of the following is the low latitudes zone of subsistence gathering practiced in the world ? [1 Mark]
(A) Northern Canada
(B) Northern Eurasia
(C) Southeast Asia
(D) Southeast Chile

Answer: (C) Southeast Asia

Teacher's Note:
a) Low latitude gathering zones are the Amazon Basin, tropical Africa and interior Southeast Asia.
b) Northern Canada, Northern Eurasia and Southern Chile are high latitude zones.

4. Choose the correct option related to oil tanker ports of the world. [1 Mark]
(A) Maracaibo, Tripoli, Singapore
(B) Esskhira, Singapore, Manchester
(C) Maracaibo, Esskhira, Tripoli
(D) Manchester, Esskhira, Marmagao

Answer: (C) Maracaibo, Esskhira, Tripoli

Teacher's Note:
a) Oil ports deal in the processing and shipping of oil; Maracaibo (Venezuela), Esskhira (Tunisia) and Tripoli (Lebanon) are tanker ports.
b) Singapore is an entrepot port and Manchester is an inland port, so avoid options containing them.

5. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : All the developed countries have opened their markets for products from developing countries.
Reason (R) : World Trade Organisation deals with the global rules of trade between nations.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Teacher's Note:
a) The WTO is criticised because developed countries have not fully opened their markets to products from developing countries.
b) The WTO does set the global rules of trade, so the Reason is true.

6. Read the following statements carefully regarding 'tertiary activities' and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
I. Tertiary activities include both production and exchange of services.
II. Tertiary activities involve the commercial output of services.
III. Tertiary activities are directly involved in the processing of raw material.
IV. The examples of tertiary activities are - plumber, doctor, publisher.
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only II, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (B) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tertiary activities provide services; they do not process raw material directly.
b) Processing of raw material is a secondary activity, so statement III is wrong.

7. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following. [1 Mark]
(A) Red collar worker - Practicing lawyers
(B) Gold collar worker - Senior business executive
(C) Pink collar worker - Environmental scientist
(D) White collar worker - Mining worker

Answer: (B) Gold collar worker - Senior business executive

Teacher's Note:
a) Quinary activities are done by highly paid senior executives, called gold collar workers.
b) Mining workers do manual work and are blue collar, not white collar, workers.

8. Which one of the following statements is true regarding 'medical tourism' in India ? [1 Mark]
(A) Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities.
(B) Doctors travel to developed country to do surgical operation.
(C) Doctors travel to treat the patients.
(D) Tourists on trip get treated, if they fall ill.

Answer: (A) Tourists travel specially for availing cheap medical facilities.

Teacher's Note:
a) In medical tourism, the main purpose of the trip is medical treatment.
b) India attracts many foreign patients because of low-cost, good quality treatment.

9. Choose the right group of states where Dravadian language is spoken majorly. [1 Mark]
(A) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka, Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Madhya Pradesh

Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka

Teacher's Note:
a) Tamil, Malayalam and Kannada are Dravidian languages spoken in these states.
b) Marathi (Maharashtra) and Hindi (Madhya Pradesh) are Indo-Aryan languages.

10. During which one of the following phase of population growth in India, negative growth was recorded in a decade ? [1 Mark]
(A) Phase I
(B) Phase II
(C) Phase III
(D) Phase IV

Answer: (A) Phase I

Teacher's Note:
a) Phase I (1901-1921) is the period of stagnant or stationary growth.
b) Negative growth was recorded during 1911-1921 due to epidemics and famines.

11. Which one of the following set of cities falling on the 'Golden Quadrilateral' are arranged in a clock-wise direction from Delhi ? [1 Mark]
(A) Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai
(B) Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai
(C) Delhi, Chennai, Mumbai and Kolkata
(D) Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai

Answer: (D) Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai

Teacher's Note:
a) Picture the map of India: clockwise from Delhi goes east to Kolkata, south to Chennai and west to Mumbai.
b) The Golden Quadrilateral links the four metro cities by six-lane highways.

12. Which one of the following cities serve as headquarter of two railway zones ? [1 Mark]
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Jaipur
(D) Bilaspur

Answer: (A) Kolkata

Teacher's Note:
a) Kolkata is the headquarters of both the Eastern Railway and the South Eastern Railway.
b) Mumbai is the other city with two zonal headquarters (Central and Western Railway).

13. Which one of the following is a natural process of land degradation ? [1 Mark]
(A) Mining activities
(B) Gully erosion
(C) Industrial waste
(D) Shifting cultivation

Answer: (B) Gully erosion

Teacher's Note:
a) Gullied or ravinous land is formed by natural processes of running water.
b) Mining, industrial waste and shifting cultivation are human-made causes.

14. The loudness of the sound is measured in the unit known as : [1 Mark]
(A) Millimeter
(B) Centimeter
(C) Decimal
(D) Decibel

Answer: (D) Decibel

Teacher's Note:
a) The level of noise is measured in decibels (dB).
b) Do not confuse "Decimal" with "Decibel" - read the options carefully.

Study the following table carefully and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17.

Most populous countries
Sr. No. | Country | Population | % of world
1 | India | 1,425,775,850 | 17.4
2 | China | 1,409,670,000 | 17.2
3 | United States of America | 337,975,234 | 4.13
4 | Indonesia | 278,696,200 | 3.41
5 | Pakistan | 229,488,994 | 2.80
6 | Nigeria | 216,746,934 | 2.65
7 | Brazil | 219,277,799 | 2.68
8 | Bangladesh | 168,220,000 | 2.06
9 | Mexico | 128,271,248 | 1.57

15. How many of the listed countries fall under Asian continent ? [1 Mark]
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6

Answer: (C) 5

Teacher's Note:
a) The Asian countries in the table are India, China, Indonesia, Pakistan and Bangladesh.
b) Nigeria is in Africa, the USA and Mexico are in North America and Brazil is in South America.

16. Which of the following set of continents is not represented in the table ? Choose the most appropriate option. [1 Mark]
(A) Australia and Africa
(B) Africa and South America
(C) Europe and South America
(D) Australia and Europe

Answer: (D) Australia and Europe

Teacher's Note:
a) Africa is represented by Nigeria and South America by Brazil.
b) No country from Australia or Europe appears in the list.

17. China and Brazil together account for what percentage of the world population ? [1 Mark]
(A) 17.88
(B) 17.58
(C) 19.88
(D) 19.58

Answer: (C) 19.88

Teacher's Note:
a) Add the "% of world" values: 17.2 + 2.68 = 19.88.
b) Take Brazil's value (2.68), not Nigeria's (2.65), which is in the row above it.

SECTION B

18. Study the map showing areas of 'extensive commercial grains farming' carefully and answer questions that follow :

[Figure: World map titled with the legend "Extensive commercial grain farming", showing shaded areas of this farming. Area A is marked in the interior of North America (Canada and USA). Area B is marked in Eurasia, north of the Caspian Sea region. Other shaded areas appear in South America (Argentina), southern Africa and south-eastern Australia.]

(18.1) Write the geographical name of the area marked as A [1 Mark]

Answer: The area marked A is the Canadian and American Prairies (Prairies of North America).

Teacher's Note:
a) Write the proper geographical name "Prairies", not just the country names.
b) Other such regions are the Pampas, Velds, Downs and Canterbury Plains.

(18.2) Name any two major crops grown in the region A [1 Mark]

Answer: Wheat and corn (maize). (Barley, oats and rye are also grown.)

Teacher's Note:
a) Wheat is the principal crop of extensive grain farming; half a mark is given for each crop.
b) Do not write rice or tea, which are crops of intensive or plantation farming.

(18.3) Explain the agricultural importance of the area marked as B [1 Mark]

Answer: Area B (the Steppes of Eurasia) is a region of extensive commercial grain farming, where grain is grown on very large, fully mechanised farms from ploughing to harvesting, giving low yield per acre but high yield per person.

Teacher's Note:
a) One clear point about extensive commercial grain farming earns the mark.
b) Use the keywords "large farms", "mechanised" and "high yield per person".

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 18)

Explain the main characteristics of 'extensive commercial grain farming' in the world. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is practised in the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
2. The size of the farm is very large, and all operations from ploughing to harvesting are mechanised.
3. The yield per acre is low but the yield per person is high. The main crop is wheat; corn, barley, oats and rye are also grown. Major areas are the Prairies of North America, the Steppes of Eurasia, the Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Africa, the Australian Downs and the Canterbury Plains of New Zealand.

Teacher's Note:
a) Three clearly explained characteristics earn full marks.
b) Naming at least two major regions makes the answer stronger.

19. Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Water Pollution
Industries produce several undesirable products including industrial wastes, polluted waste water, poisonous gases, chemical residuals, numerous heavy metals, dust, smoke, etc. Most of the industrial wastes are disposed off in running water or lakes. Consequently, poisonous elements reach the reservoirs, rivers and other water bodies, which destroy the bio-system of these waters. Major water polluting industries are leather, pulp and paper, textiles and chemicals.

(19.1) Explain how industries are the major contributor of water pollution in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Industries release industrial waste, poisonous gases, chemical effluents, dust, smoke and heavy metals, which mix with water in rivers and lakes and pollute it.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pick the pollutants from the passage itself to answer quickly.
b) Mention that the waste is disposed of into running water or lakes.

(19.2) Suggest the way for minimising water pollution. [1 Mark]

Answer: Industries should be prevented from disposing their untreated waste into rivers and lakes, and should be encouraged to treat and reuse waste water, so that the bio-system of water bodies is protected.

Teacher's Note:
a) Any one practical measure, clearly explained, earns the mark.
b) Other accepted ways: preventing fertilisers and pesticides from reaching water bodies and public awareness programmes.

(19.3) Mention two rivers of India which are highly polluted. [1 Mark]

Answer: The Ganga and the Yamuna.

Teacher's Note:
a) Half a mark is given for each correct river.
b) The Sabarmati, Gomti, Kali, Adyar, Cooum, Vaigai and Musi are also accepted.

SECTION C

20. Examine the relationships between the 'unresting man' and 'unstable earth'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The earth is dynamic in nature; its physical features keep changing all the time. Man is also not static but very dynamic on the earth.
2. Because both are changing, the relationship between man and the earth keeps on changing over time.
3. Man uses the resources of the physical environment - he cultivates land and builds houses and roads - and greatly modifies the earth. These changes in turn impact human lives.

Teacher's Note:
a) The key idea is that both man and earth are dynamic, so their interaction keeps changing.
b) Give an example of human modification such as roads, houses or farming.

21. Examine the importance of 'sustainability' as a pillar of 'human development'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Sustainability means continuity in the availability of opportunities. Each generation must have the same opportunities.
2. All environmental, financial and human resources must be used judiciously, keeping the future in mind.
3. Misuse of any of these resources will lead to fewer opportunities for future generations, so each generation must ensure choices and opportunities for the next.

Teacher's Note:
a) The four pillars are equity, sustainability, productivity and empowerment.
b) Use the keywords "continuity", "judicious use" and "future generations".

22. (a) Explain the main characteristics of urban settlements in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Urban settlements are generally compact and larger in size, and they specialise in secondary and tertiary activities.
2. Urban centres act as centres of economic growth and provide goods and services to city dwellers and to the rural areas. They are connected directly and indirectly with villages and with one another.
3. Cities have a better network of transport and communication, and the way of life is complex and fast with formal social relations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast with rural settlements, which depend mainly on primary activities.
b) Mention "secondary and tertiary activities" as the key function of towns.

OR

(b) Explain the evolution of towns in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ancient towns: Towns flourished in India since prehistoric times (Harappa and Mohenjodaro). Ancient towns have over 2000 years of history and developed as religious and cultural centres, e.g. Varanasi, Prayag (Allahabad), Pataliputra (Patna) and Madurai.
2. Medieval towns: They developed as fort towns on the ruins of ancient towns, as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms, e.g. Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and Nagpur.
3. Modern towns: The British and other Europeans developed towns like Surat, Daman, Goa and Pondicherry, and later built Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata in British style, along with hill towns and industrial and administrative towns. After Independence, administrative towns (Chandigarh, Gandhinagar, Dispur), industrial towns (Durgapur, Bhilai) and satellite towns (Ghaziabad, Rohtak, Gurugram) developed.

Teacher's Note:
a) Organise the answer under ancient, medieval and modern towns.
b) Give at least one example town for each stage.

23. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Sectoral composition of workforce in India, 2011
Categories | Population: Persons | % to total workers | Male | Female
Primary | 26,30,22,473 | 54.6 | 16,54,47,075 | 9,75,75,398
Secondary | 1,83,36,307 | 3.8 | 97,75,635 | 85,60,672
Tertiary | 20,03,84,531 | 41.6 | 15,66,43,220 | 4,37,41,311

(23.1) Why is the large difference between primary and tertiary categories of female workers ? [1 Mark]

Answer: Most men from rural areas migrate to urban areas for work, so a large number of women stay back and work in primary activities like farming, while women's participation in tertiary activities is low and is a recent phenomenon.

Teacher's Note:
a) Compare the female figures: about 9.76 crore in primary against 4.37 crore in tertiary.
b) Male out-migration from villages is the key reason examiners look for.

(23.2) Explain the reason of low variation between male workers of 'primary' and 'tertiary' sectors. [1 Mark]

Answer: The workforce pattern of India is changing. Many male workers are still engaged in the primary sector, while many others are shifting to the tertiary sector with increasing job opportunities, so both sectors have a large number of male workers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Male workers: about 16.5 crore in primary and 15.7 crore in tertiary - the gap is small.
b) Link the answer to the shift of men towards service jobs.

(23.3) Why 'secondary sector' has low contribution in India's workforce ? [1 Mark]

Answer: The secondary sector has a low share (only 3.8 per cent) of the workforce because of low industrial growth in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote the 3.8 per cent figure from the table to support your answer.
b) Skill gaps and the shift towards services are also accepted reasons.

SECTION D

24. "Industries should be located at points where the production costs are minimum." Examine the statement with suitable arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Access to market: Industries are located near markets, as the demand for goods and people's purchasing power reduce transport costs of finished goods.
2. Access to raw material: Industries using heavy, cheap or weight-losing raw materials (like iron and steel, sugar) are located near the source of raw material.
3. Access to labour supply: Industries need a supply of cheap and skilled labour, so they are located where labour is easily available.
4. Access to sources of energy and to transport and communication: Industries needing much power (like aluminium) are located near energy sources, and good transport and communication lower the cost of moving raw materials and goods.
5. Government policy and agglomeration economies: Government incentives encourage balanced regional growth, and industries gain from being close to linked industries that supply services and inputs.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each factor must be linked to lowering production cost, as the statement asks.
b) Give an example industry for raw material or energy based location.
c) Five factors, each briefly explained, earn full marks.

25. (a) "Railway is the mode of land transport for bulky goods and passengers over long distances." In the context of this statement, explain the significance of railways in the world. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Railways are a significant mode of surface transport over long distances; about 13 lakh km of railways are open for traffic in the world.
2. Commuter trains are very popular in the UK, USA, Japan and India for daily travel.
3. Europe has about 4,40,000 km of railways, the densest rail network in the world, and North America has one of the most extensive rail networks.
4. In Russia, railways account for about 90 per cent of the country's total transport. Trans-continental railways run across Russia, Canada, the USA, Australia and South America.
5. In Asia, the rail network is densest in the thickly populated areas of Japan, China and India, while Africa has about 40,000 km of railways, almost half of it in South Africa.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote facts like 90 per cent share in Russia and the dense network of Europe.
b) Name at least one trans-continental railway, such as the Trans-Siberian.

OR

(b) "Road transport is the most economical for short distances compared to railway." In the context of this statement, explain the significance of road transport in the world. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Roads are very economical for short distances and offer door-to-door services.
2. Roads act as feeders to railways, airways and waterways.
3. Roads play a vital role in a nation's trade and commerce and in promoting tourism.
4. The quality of roads varies from developed to developing countries. North America has a very high road density with good connectivity and accounts for about 33 per cent of the world's motorable road length.
5. Europe has a well-developed highway network; Russia has a dense highway network in the industrial region west of the Urals; in China all major cities are connected by roads, and in India many highways link major cities.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Door-to-door service" and "feeder to other modes" are key value points.
b) Add regional examples to show significance in the world.

26. (a) "Generally land-use in a region is influenced by the nature of economic activities." Support the statement with suitable examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Economic activities change over time, but land is a fixed resource, so the same land must be put to different uses.
2. The size of the economy grows with increasing population and income levels. This increases the pressure on land, and marginal land is also put to use.
3. The composition of the economy changes over time with growth of the secondary and tertiary sectors, so land shifts from agriculture to non-agricultural uses, such as industries, roads and buildings.
4. With the growth of the economy, the demand for land increases, and land under forests is put to other uses.
5. With the increase in population, the demand for food rises, so culturable wasteland and fallow land (other than current fallow) are brought under cultivation to increase food production.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: size of economy, composition of economy and pressure on land.
b) Give a clear example such as agricultural land turning into urban or industrial land.

OR

(b) "The Indian agricultural problems have physical constraints and institutional hindrances." Support the statement with suitable examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dependence on erratic monsoon: Only about one-third of the cropped area is irrigated, so the rest depends on uncertain and uneven rainfall, causing droughts and floods.
2. Low productivity: The yield of most crops in India is low compared to many other countries.
3. Constraints of financial resources and indebtedness: Small farmers lack money for inputs and fall into debt when crops fail.
4. Lack of land reforms and small, fragmented farm size: Unequal land distribution and tiny, scattered holdings make farming uneconomical.
5. Degradation of cultivable land and vast underemployment: Soil erosion, waterlogging and salinity reduce fertility, and farm workers remain unemployed for 4 to 8 months a year.

Teacher's Note:
a) Show both physical problems (monsoon, land degradation) and institutional problems (land reforms, credit).
b) Lack of commercialisation is another accepted point.

27. (a) Explain the significance of petroleum as major source of energy and describe its distribution in India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Significance of petroleum:
1. Petroleum is an essential source of energy for all internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft.
2. Its many by-products are processed in petrochemical industries to make fertilisers, synthetic rubber, fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics.
3. Petroleum is scarce but has diversified uses, so it is called "liquid gold".
Distribution in India:
4. Digboi, Naharkatiya and Moran in Assam; Ankaleshwar, Kalol, Mehsana, Nawagam, Kosamba and Lunej in Gujarat.
5. Mumbai High in the Arabian Sea, and exploratory wells in the Krishna-Godavari and Kaveri basins on the east coast.

Teacher's Note:
a) Marks are split 3 for significance and 2 for distribution, so answer both parts.
b) Name the state along with the oil field for full marks in distribution.

OR

(b) Explain the significance of iron-ore as industrial raw material and describe its distribution in India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Significance of iron-ore:
1. Iron ore provides a strong base for the development of metallurgical industries like iron and steel.
2. India has fairly abundant iron ore, the largest reserves in Asia, mainly of hematite and magnetite types.
3. Indian iron ore is in great demand in the international market due to its superior quality, and the mines lie close to coal fields in the north-eastern plateau region, which is an added advantage.
Distribution in India:
4. Odisha is the leading producer, with mines in Sundergarh, Mayurbhanj and Jhar; in Jharkhand, Poorbi and Pashchimi Singhbhum districts.
5. Chhattisgarh has Durg, Dantewara and Bailadila; Karnataka has Ballari, Chikkamagaluru, Shivamogga, Chitradurg and Tumakuru.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keep the 3 + 2 mark split in mind and answer both parts.
b) Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Goa are also accepted in distribution.

28. (a) Analyse the importance of Indian seaports in the development of international trade. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. India has 12 major ports and about 200 minor or intermediate ports along its long coastline.
2. These ports are the gateways of international trade.
3. Indian ports handle a large volume of domestic as well as overseas trade; about 95 per cent of India's foreign trade by volume and 70 per cent by value moves through ocean routes.
4. Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure.
5. The cargo handling capacity of Indian ports increased from 20 million tonnes in 1951 to more than 837 million tonnes in 2016.

Teacher's Note:
a) The "95 per cent by volume and 70 per cent by value" fact is a strong value point.
b) Use the word "gateways" to show the role of ports in trade.

OR

(b) Analyse the changing pattern of India's international trade. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. India's international trade has increased many times from 1950-51 to 2020-21. The export of traditional agricultural products like cashews has decreased, while floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar have increased.
2. In the 1950s and 1960s, food grains, capital goods, machinery and equipment were imported. After the 1970s, food grain imports were replaced by fertilisers due to the Green Revolution, and the import of crude petroleum increased.
3. The export of manufactured goods and engineering goods has increased significantly.
4. Machines and equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals make up a large part of the import basket, while the import of capital goods has declined.
5. Pearls, precious and semi-precious stones, gold and silver are part of both imports and exports: India imports them, adds value by making gems and jewellery, and exports them.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover changes in both exports and imports to show the full pattern.
b) Mention the Green Revolution as the reason for the fall in food grain imports.

SECTION E

29. In the given political outline map of the world, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five of them with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : [5 Marks]
A. A terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway
B. A major sea port
C. A major air port
D. An international shipping canal
E. An area of 'subsistence gathering'
F. An area of 'commercial livestock rearing'
G. An area of 'dairy farming'

[Figure: Outline political map of the World with seven features marked: A - a point in north-western Russia near the Gulf of Finland; B - a point on the west coast of South America (central Chile); C - a point in East Africa (Kenya); D - a point on the isthmus of Central America; E - a shaded area in central Africa; F - a shaded area in the western United States; G - a shaded strip in south-eastern Australia. Each has an arrow and a blank line for writing the name.]

Answer:
A: St. Petersburg (terminal station of the Trans-Siberian Railway)
B: Valparaiso (major sea port)
C: Nairobi (major airport)
D: Panama Canal (international shipping canal)
E: Tropical Africa (area of subsistence gathering)
F: Western parts of the United States of America (area of commercial livestock rearing)
G: South-Eastern Australia (area of dairy farming)

Teacher's Note:
a) Attempt any five; write each name neatly on the line drawn near the marked feature.
b) Use the latitude and continent position to identify each feature before writing its name.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 29)

Note : The following questions are for the Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Question No. 29. Attempt any five. [5 Marks]
29.1 Name the westernmost terminal station of Trans-Siberian Railway.
29.2 Mention a major sea port on the western coast of South America.
29.3 Mention an international airport of Kenya.
29.4 Name the shipping canal joining Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
29.5 Mention one major region of 'subsistence gathering' in Africa.
29.6 Name a major area of 'commercial livestock rearing' in United States of America.
29.7 Name the major area of 'dairy farming' in North America.

Answer:
29.1 St. Petersburg
29.2 Valparaiso
29.3 Nairobi
29.4 Panama Canal
29.5 Tropical Africa
29.6 Western parts of the United States of America
29.7 Canada

Teacher's Note:
a) Any five correct answers earn full marks (1 mark each).
b) The Trans-Siberian Railway runs from St. Petersburg in the west to Vladivostok in the east.

30. On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : [5 Marks]
30.1 A state with the highest density of population (2011).
30.2 A state leading in the production of tea.
30.3 An iron-ore mining area in southern Chhattisgarh.
30.4 A major area of bauxite mining in Odisha.
30.5 An oil refinery in Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 A major seaport located at the head of Gulf of Kuchchh.
30.7 An international airport in Punjab.

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

Answer:
30.1 Bihar - shade the state.
30.2 Assam - shade the state.
30.3 Bailadila - mark with a dot in southern Chhattisgarh.
30.4 Koraput - mark with a dot in southern Odisha.
30.5 Mathura - mark with a dot in western Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 Kandla (Deendayal Port) - mark with a dot at the head of the Gulf of Kachchh.
30.7 Amritsar (Raja Sansi / Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport) - mark with a dot in Punjab.

Teacher's Note:
a) Shade states and use dots or symbols for places, and label each one clearly.
b) For 30.3, Durg, Dantewara or Rajhara are also accepted; for 30.4, Kalahandi, Sambalpur or Bolangir.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 30)

Note : The following questions are for the visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Question No. 30. Attempt any five. [5 Marks]
30.1 Name the state with the highest density of population (2011).
30.2 Which state is leading in tea production ?
30.3 Name any one iron-ore mining area in Chhattisgarh.
30.4 Mention one bauxite mining area in Odisha.
30.5 Name the place where oil refinery is located in Uttar Pradesh.
30.6 Name the major sea port located on the head of Gulf of Kuchchh.
30.7 Name the place where an international airport is located in Punjab.

Answer:
30.1 Bihar
30.2 Assam
30.3 Bailadila (also Durg / Dantewara / Rajhara)
30.4 Koraput (also Kalahandi / Sambalpur / Bolangir)
30.5 Mathura
30.6 Kandla (Deendayal Port)
30.7 Amritsar (Raja Sansi / Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee International Airport)

Teacher's Note:
a) Any five correct answers earn full marks (1 mark each).
b) Bihar had the highest population density in India in Census 2011 (1,106 persons per sq km).

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