CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 64-1-3

SECTION A

1. Choose the correct option to fill the blank :
By 2050, the world population is estimated to live in urban areas is _____. [1 Mark]
(A) One fourth
(B) Half
(C) Two third
(D) Three fourth

Answer: (C) Two third

Teacher's Note:
a) By 2050, about two-thirds of the world population is expected to live in urban areas.
b) Do not confuse this with the present share, which is a little more than half.

2. Which of the following statements are correct related to underground mining method ? Choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. It is used when the ore lies deep below the surface.
ii. It is the easiest and cheapest mining method.
iii. It requires specially designed lift and drills.
iv. It is also known as shaft method.
Options :
(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(B) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
(C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
(D) Only i, ii and iv are correct.

Answer: (C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Open-cast (surface) mining is the easiest and cheapest method, so statement ii is wrong.
b) Underground (shaft) mining needs lifts, drills, haulage vehicles and ventilation systems.

3. Identify the statement applicable to outsource receiving country. [1 Mark]
(A) Highly paid executive class workers.
(B) Availability of cheap and skilled workers.
(C) Outsourced to highly developed countries.
(D) High per head cost in outsource receiving countries.

Answer: (B) Availability of cheap and skilled workers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Countries like India, China and the Philippines receive outsourced work because of cheap, skilled labour.
b) Work is outsourced from developed countries to developing countries, not the other way.

4. Arrange the following major airports along western coast of America from south to north direction as per their locations and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. Mexico City
ii. Vancouver
iii. Santiago
iv. Lima
Options :
(A) iv, iii, ii and i
(B) iii, iv, ii and i
(C) iv, iii, i and ii
(D) iii, iv, i and ii

Answer: (D) iii, iv, i and ii

Teacher's Note:
a) South to north: Santiago (Chile), Lima (Peru), Mexico City (Mexico), Vancouver (Canada).
b) Picture the Americas map and move upward from Chile to Canada to check the order.

5. Ports concerned with transportation passengers and mails are called ____. [1 Mark]
(A) Commercial Ports
(B) Inland Ports
(C) Ferry Ports
(D) Naval Ports

Answer: (C) Ferry Ports

Teacher's Note:
a) Ferry ports carry passengers and mail across short water bodies, e.g. Dover and Calais.
b) Commercial ports handle general cargo, while naval ports serve warships.

6. Arrange the following copper mines of Rajasthan from north to south as per their locations and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. Bhilwara
ii. Khetri
iii. Udaipur
iv. Alwar
Options :
(A) ii, iv, i and iii
(B) ii, iv, iii and i
(C) iv, ii, iii and i
(D) iv, ii, i and iii

Answer: (A) ii, iv, i and iii

Teacher's Note:
a) North to south: Khetri (Jhunjhunu), Alwar, Bhilwara, Udaipur.
b) Khetri is the most important copper mine of Rajasthan and lies in the north.

7. "Some wastelands are rendered unfit for agriculture by human activities." Choose the correct option related to the statement : [1 Mark]
i. Shifting cultivation area
ii. Coastal plains
iii. Degraded pastures
iv. Bhabar areas
Options :
(A) Only ii
(B) Both ii and iv
(C) Only iii
(D) Both i and iii

Answer: (D) Both i and iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Degraded shifting cultivation areas and degraded pastures are wastelands caused by human action.
b) Bhabar areas and coastal sands are wastelands caused by natural processes.

8. Choose the correctly matched pair of areas and their characteristics from the following : [1 Mark]
(Areas) - (Characteristics)
(A) Jhabua District - Bhil Tribe
(B) Daurala Meerut - Gaddi Tribe
(C) Bharmaur Tehsil - Dilapidated Houses
(D) Dharavi Mumbai - Groundwater Pollution

Answer: (A) Jhabua District - Bhil Tribe

Teacher's Note:
a) Jhabua district in Madhya Pradesh is inhabited mainly by the Bhil tribe.
b) Gaddi tribe lives in Bharmaur, and Dharavi is known for slums and dilapidated houses.

9. Identify the unit to measure sound from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) Particles per hundred
(B) Decibel
(C) Particles per thousand
(D) Nanometer

Answer: (B) Decibel

Teacher's Note:
a) Noise level is measured in decibels (dB).
b) This unit is used when studying noise pollution.

10. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : All manufacturing industries are associated with raw materials.
Reason (R) : Resources are essential for human survival.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Both statements are true, but the need of resources for survival does not explain why industries use raw materials.
b) In A-R questions, first check each statement, then check the link between them.

11. Identify the district of first phase of construction of Rajasthan canal. [1 Mark]
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Barmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Ganganagar

Answer: (D) Ganganagar

Teacher's Note:
a) Stage I of the Indira Gandhi Canal command area covers Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern Bikaner.
b) Stage II covers Bikaner, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jodhpur, Nagaur and Churu districts.

12. Identify the main objective of Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) To transport and store natural gas at its depot.
(B) To process and allocate natural gas to different states.
(C) To transport, process and market natural gas.
(D) To sale, stored natural gas for greater profit.

Answer: (C) To transport, process and market natural gas.

Teacher's Note:
a) GAIL was set up in 1984 as a public sector undertaking.
b) Remember its three tasks: transport, process and market natural gas.

13. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : Water transport plays an important role in the international trade of India.
Reason (R) : The east coast of India has more ports than its west coast.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Teacher's Note:
a) About 95 per cent of India's foreign trade by volume moves through sea ports.
b) The west coast has more major ports than the east coast, so the Reason is false.

14. Read the following facts about 'Swachh Bharat Mission' carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. It is a part of urban renewable mission.
ii. It is launched by Government of India.
iii. It is associated with improving greenery in urban areas.
iv. It is aimed to improve quality of life in urban slums.
Options :
(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(B) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
(C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
(D) Only i, iii and iv are correct.

Answer: (C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Swachh Bharat Mission is about sanitation and cleanliness, not greenery.
b) It was launched by the Government of India to improve living conditions, including in slums.

Read the following table and passage and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

International Comparison of Human Development
Human Development Categories
Level of Human Development | Score in Development Index
Very High | above 0.800
High | between 0.700 up to 0.799
Medium | between 0.550 up to 0.699
Low | below 0.549
The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.
Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.

15. Greater improvement among the medium level of human development countries is marked by _____. [1 Mark]
(A) Development related policies
(B) Environment related policies
(C) Economy oriented policies
(D) Society oriented policies

Answer: (D) Society oriented policies

Teacher's Note:
a) The passage says these countries adopted people-oriented policies and reduced social discrimination.
b) Look for the matching keyword in the passage before choosing.

16. Which one of the following score of human development index shows the range for Medium category ? [1 Mark]
(A) 0.049
(B) 0.099
(C) 0.149
(D) 0.199

Answer: (C) 0.149

Teacher's Note:
a) Range = upper limit minus lower limit = 0.699 - 0.550 = 0.149.
b) Read the Medium row of the table carefully before subtracting.

17. The most important factor applicable with high human development countries is _____ [1 Mark]
(A) maximum investment in social sector.
(B) maximum investment in service sector.
(C) maximum investment in industrial development.
(D) maximum investment in agricultural development.

Answer: (A) maximum investment in social sector.

Teacher's Note:
a) High human development countries invest more in the social sector, such as education and healthcare.
b) Good governance and investment in people set them apart from others.

SECTION B

18. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Case for Free Trade
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalization. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalization allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.
Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.
Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

(18.1) Explain the meaning of 'trade liberalisation'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Opening up economies for trading by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs is known as trade liberalisation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: opening up economies and removing trade barriers such as tariffs.
b) Trade liberalisation is also called free trade.

(18.2) How have 'Globalisation' and 'free trade' affected the economies of developing countries ? [1 Mark]

Answer: They have adversely affected the economies of developing countries, because developed countries do not give them an equal playing field and impose conditions that are unfavourable to them.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write "adversely affected" and give the reason - no equal playing field.
b) The answer is directly in the second paragraph of the passage.

(18.3) What should be done by the developing countries to protect from negative impact of 'free trade' ? Mention any two steps. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. They should keep their own markets protected from foreign products.
2. They should be cautious about cheap dumped goods, as these can harm domestic producers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each step carries half a mark, so write two separate points.
b) Dumping means selling goods in another country at a price lower than their cost.

19. Study the map of 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway' and answer the questions that follow :

[Figure: Map of Australia (latitudes 10 to 40 degrees S, longitudes 110 to 150 degrees E) showing the Trans-Continental Railway as a dashed line running west to east across the southern part of the continent, with stations Kalgoorlie, Port Augusta, Port Pirie, Broken Hill, Petterborough, Porkes, Albury and Melbourne marked. Station 'A' is marked between Kalgoorlie and Port Augusta and station 'B' is marked between Broken Hill and Porkes. Indian Ocean, Timor Sea, Coral Sea and Tasman Sea are labelled.]

(19.1) In which part of the continent this railway line is located ? [1 Mark]

Answer: It is located in the southern part of the continent.

Teacher's Note:
a) The railway runs east-west across southern Australia.
b) Use the latitude lines on the map (about 30 to 35 degrees S) to check.

(19.2) Identify the stations of this railway marked as 'A' and 'B'. [1 Mark]

Answer:
A - Forrest
B - Roto

Teacher's Note:
a) Each correct station name carries half a mark.
b) Forrest lies on the Nullarbor Plain section between Kalgoorlie and Port Augusta.

(19.3) Write the names of stations located at the easternmost and westernmost end of this railway. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Easternmost end - Sydney
Westernmost end - Perth

Teacher's Note:
a) The railway runs from Perth on the west coast to Sydney on the east coast.
b) Do not mix up east and west - label each station clearly.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 19)

19. Describe any three characteristics of the 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It runs east-west across the southern part of the Australian continent.
2. It runs from Perth on the west coast to Sydney on the east coast.
3. It passes through important stations such as Kalgoorlie, Port Augusta and Broken Hill.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention both terminal stations, Perth and Sydney, for full marks.
b) Naming the route (Kalgoorlie, Broken Hill, Port Augusta) makes the answer stronger.

SECTION C

20. (a) "Nature and human are intricately inter-wined." Analyse the statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Nature and humans are inseparable elements and should be seen holistically.
2. Both physical and human phenomena are described in metaphors using symbols from human anatomy, such as face of the earth, eye of the storm, mouth of the river and snout of the glacier.
3. Regions, villages and towns are described as 'organisms', and networks of roads, railways and waterways are called 'arteries of circulation'.

Teacher's Note:
a) Examples like "eye of the storm" and "mouth of the river" earn marks - include them.
b) Use the keyword "holistic" to show that nature and humans must be studied together.

OR

(b) "Human beings utilize the opportunities provided by nature." Analyse the statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Humans create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment and move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom.
2. Human activity creates a cultural landscape, and the imprints of human activities are seen everywhere.
3. Examples are health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes and satellites in space.

Teacher's Note:
a) This statement explains the idea of possibilism.
b) Keywords: cultural landscape, necessity to freedom, imprints of human activities.

21. Differentiate between small scale and large scale industries with examples. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Raw material and market: Small scale industries use local raw materials and serve local markets, while large scale industries use various raw materials and serve a large market.
2. Machines and energy: Small scale industries use simple power-driven machines, while large scale industries need advanced technology and enormous energy to run machines.
3. Labour and capital: Small scale industries need semi-skilled labour and little capital, while large scale industries need specialised workers and large capital.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write each difference as a pair, one for small scale and one for large scale.
b) Examples help: handloom or food processing units (small scale) and iron and steel plants (large scale).

22. "Petroleum is referred to as liquid gold." Explain the statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Petroleum is called liquid gold because of its scarcity and diversified uses.
2. It is an essential source of energy for internal combustion engines in automobiles, railways and aircraft.
3. Its many by-products are processed in petrochemical industries, such as fertilisers, synthetic rubber, synthetic fibre, medicines, vaseline, lubricants, wax, soap and cosmetics.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: scarcity, diversified uses and by-products.
b) You may also add that countries like India import oil and spend foreign exchange on it.

23. Study the following table carefully and answer the question that follow : [3 Marks]

India - Trends of Urbanisation 1961-2011
Year | Number of Towns/UAs | Urban Population (in Thousands) | % of Total Population | Decennial Growth (%)
1961 | 2,365 | 78,936.6 | 17.97 | 26.41
1971 | 2,590 | 1,09,114 | 19.91 | 38.23
1981 | 3,378 | 1,59,463 | 23.34 | 46.14
1991 | 4,689 | 2,17,611 | 25.71 | 36.47
2001 | 5,161 | 2,85,355 | 27.78 | 31.13
2011 | 6,171 | 3,77,000 | 31.16 | 31.08

(23.1) In which census year, the decennial growth of urban population is the highest. [1 Mark]

Answer: 1981 (decennial growth of 46.14 per cent).

Teacher's Note:
a) Look only at the last column, Decennial Growth (%).
b) Do not confuse it with the year of the highest urban population, which is 2011.

(23.2) Explain the increasing trend of urban population in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: The share of urban population in India has increased regularly from 1961 to 2011. It was 17.97 per cent in 1961 and rose to 31.16 per cent in 2011.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote the first and last values from the table to support the trend.
b) Use the words "regular" or "continuous increase".

(23.3) Analyse the continuous increasing trend of number of towns in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: The number of towns has increased regularly from 2,365 in 1961 to 6,171 in 2011. The most rapid growth of towns was recorded between 1981 and 1991.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give the starting and ending figures from the table.
b) Point out the decade of fastest growth (1981-1991, an increase of 1,311 towns).

SECTION D

24. Define natural growth of population. Describe the impact of migration on changing population in the world. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Natural growth of population: It is the increase in population of a region between two points of time due to the difference between births and deaths. (Natural Growth = Births - Deaths)
Impact of migration on changing population in the world:
1. Migration is a spontaneous effort to achieve a better balance between population and resources.
2. The place of origin shows a decrease in population, while the population increases at the place of destination.
3. Positive growth of population takes place when the birth rate is more than the death rate or when people from other places migrate permanently to a region, while negative growth occurs when the birth rate falls below the death rate or people migrate out to other countries.

Teacher's Note:
a) The definition carries 2 marks - mention births, deaths and two points of time.
b) Link migration to both positive and negative growth of population.
c) Remember: origin loses population, destination gains population.

25. (a) Explain the meaning of 'target area planning'. Analyse the need of 'target area planning' for development. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Target area planning: The approach of reducing regional imbalance by focusing on the resource base of economically backward regions is known as target area planning.
Need of target area planning for development:
1. Economic development of a region depends on its resource base, but sometimes even resource-rich regions remain backward.
2. It was realised that regional imbalances in economic development were getting accentuated.
3. To arrest the growing regional and social disparities, the Planning Commission introduced the 'target area' and 'target group' approaches to planning, e.g. Command Area Development Programme, Drought Prone Areas Programme and Desert Development Programme.
4. In the Eighth Five Year Plan, special area programmes were designed to develop infrastructure in hill areas, north-eastern states, tribal areas and backward areas.

Teacher's Note:
a) The meaning carries 1 mark and the need carries 4 marks - give four clear points.
b) Naming programmes like CADP, DPAP and DDP earns credit as examples.

OR

(b) Explain the meaning of 'regional planning'. Assess the outcomes of 'Integrated Tribal Development Project' in Bharmaur region. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Regional planning: Planning done to reduce regional imbalance in development is called regional planning.
Outcomes of the Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur region:
1. Infrastructure such as schools, healthcare facilities and potable water was developed.
2. Roads, communication facilities and supply of electricity improved.
3. There was a tremendous increase in the literacy rate, especially female literacy.
4. The sex ratio improved, child marriage declined and gender inequality reduced; cultivation of pulses and other cash crops also increased.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bharmaur is in Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh and is inhabited by the Gaddi tribe.
b) Mix social outcomes (literacy, sex ratio) with economic ones (roads, cash crops).

26. (a) "Indian Railways have facilitated the movement of both freight and passengers and contributed to the growth of economy." Support the statement with suitable arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Indian railway network is one of the longest in the world.
2. Conversion of metre and narrow gauge to broad gauge and replacement of steam engines by diesel and electric engines have increased both speed and haulage capacity.
3. Metro rail has revolutionised urban transport, easing movement of people and improving their working efficiency.
4. Since the British period, towns, raw material producing areas, plantation areas, hill stations and cantonment towns have been well connected by railways; after independence, routes were extended, e.g. the Konkan Railway linking Mumbai and Mangalore.
5. Railways remain the main means of transport for the masses as well as for goods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give examples like the Konkan Railway and metro rail to support your points.
b) Mention both freight and passenger movement, as the statement asks.

OR

(b) "Indian ports have continuously been growing for successful international trade." Support the statement with suitable arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Indian ports have been growing continuously since independence.
2. They handle large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade.
3. Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure.
4. Earlier, development and modernisation were the responsibility of government agencies; now private entrepreneurs have been invited to modernise ports and bring them at par with international ports.
5. The capacity of Indian ports increased more than forty times between 1951 and 2016.

Teacher's Note:
a) The fact "capacity increased more than forty times since 1951" is a strong value point.
b) Mention the role of private entrepreneurs in modernisation.

27. (a) "The cost of transport plays an important role in location of industries." Justify the statement with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Speedy and efficient transport is essential to carry raw materials to factories and finished goods to markets.
2. Lower transport cost leads to greater concentration of industries.
3. Western Europe and eastern North America have a highly developed transport system, which has always induced concentration of industries there.
4. Modern industry is inseparably tied to transportation systems.
5. Improvements in transport have led to integrated economic development and regional specialisation of manufacturing.

Teacher's Note:
a) The examples of Western Europe and eastern North America are important for "with examples".
b) Link low transport cost directly to concentration of industries.

OR

(b) 'Dairy farming is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres.' Justify the statement with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dairy is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals.
2. Urban and industrial centres provide a neighbourhood market for fresh milk and dairy products.
3. Transport, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation processes are easily available near urban areas.
4. It is highly capital intensive, as animal sheds, fodder storage, feeding and milching machines add to its cost.
5. Cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services are more available in urban centres, and it is highly labour intensive, needing workers who are available nearby.

Teacher's Note:
a) Key idea: fresh milk is perishable, so dairy farms stay close to markets.
b) Examples of major dairy regions: north-western Europe, Canada, and south-eastern Australia.

28. (a) Evaluate the objectives of the social campaign 'Beti Bachao - Beti Padhao' run by the Government of India with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The division of society into male, female and transgender is natural and biological, but these biological differences become the basis of social differentiation, discrimination and exclusion.
2. Keeping over half of the population deprived becomes a serious handicap for any developing and civilised society.
3. Discrimination in general, and gender discrimination in particular, is a crime against humanity.
4. Efforts are needed to end the denial of opportunities of education, employment and political representation, low wages for similar work, and disregard of women's right to a dignified life.
5. The Government of India acknowledged the adverse impacts of these discriminations and launched the nationwide campaign 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' to save and educate the girl child.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: gender discrimination, crime against humanity, denial of opportunities.
b) End by linking the points to the campaign's aim of saving and educating girls.

OR

(b) Evaluate the spatial variation of work participation in different sectors in the country. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The spatial variation of work participation in different sectors in India is very wide.
2. States like Himachal Pradesh and Nagaland have very large shares of cultivators.
3. States like Bihar, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and Odisha have a higher proportion of agricultural labourers.
4. Highly urbanised areas like Delhi and Chandigarh have a very large proportion of workers in other services, showing limited farming land and large-scale urbanisation.
5. States like Maharashtra, Gujarat and West Bengal have large proportions of household industrial workers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name states for each category of workers - these are the value points.
b) Explain why Delhi and Chandigarh have more service workers (urbanisation, little farmland).

SECTION E

29. On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : [5 Marks]
A. A major sea-port
B. A major airport
C. An inland waterway
D. A major area of nomadic herding
E. A major area of commercial livestock rearing
F. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming
G. A major area of mixed farming

[Figure: Outline political map of the World with seven features marked: A - a point at the southern tip of Africa; B - a point on the northern coast of Australia; C - a mark across the narrow isthmus of Central America; D - a hatched area in the Arabian Peninsula; E - a dotted area in south-eastern South America; F - a shaded area in south-eastern Australia; G - an area in the eastern part of North America. Each feature has a line drawn near it for writing the name.]

Answer:
A. Cape Town
B. Darwin
C. Panama Canal
D. Arabian Peninsula
E. Argentina
F. Downs (Australia)
G. Eastern part of North America

Teacher's Note:
a) Only five features need to be identified; write each name neatly on the line drawn near the letter.
b) Panama Canal joins the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans; Downs of Australia are known for extensive wheat farming.
c) Spell place names correctly, as wrong spellings can cost marks.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 29)

29. Answer any five. [5 Marks]
29.1 Name the major seaport of South Africa.
29.2 Name the major airport of Australia.
29.3 Name the inland waterway that connects Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean.
29.4 Name the Asian peninsula where nomadic herding is practiced.
29.5 Name the major area of commercial livestock rearing of South America.
29.6 Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of Australia.
29.7 Name an area of mixed farming of Africa.

Answer:
29.1 Cape Town (or Durban)
29.2 Darwin (or Wellington, Perth, Sydney as accepted in the scheme)
29.3 Panama Canal
29.4 Arabian Peninsula
29.5 Argentina (or Uruguay, Brazil, Venezuela, Guyana)
29.6 Downs (Australia)
29.7 Temperate latitudes of South Africa

Teacher's Note:
a) Answer only five parts; extra answers do not earn extra marks.
b) One correct name for each part is enough for 1 mark.

30. On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : [5 Marks]
30.1 The state with the lowest population density (2011).
30.2 The state leading in the production of sugarcane.
30.3 A major sea port in Gujarat.
30.4 A copper mining centre in Jharkhand.
30.5 A manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh.
30.6 An Iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra.
30.7 An international airport in Karnataka.

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

Answer:
30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Uttar Pradesh
30.3 Kandla
30.4 Hazaribagh (or Singhbhum)
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Ratnagiri (or Chandrapur)
30.7 Bengaluru

Teacher's Note:
a) Shade states (Arunachal Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh) and mark places with a dot or symbol, then label them.
b) Kandla is in the Gulf of Kachchh; Balaghat is in south-eastern Madhya Pradesh.
c) Always write the name clearly next to the symbol - an unlabelled symbol gets no marks.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 30)

30. Answer any five. [5 Marks]
30.1 Name the state with the lowest population density (2011).
30.2 Name the leading state of sugarcane production.
30.3 Name the place where major sea port is located in Gujarat.
30.4 Name the copper mining centre located in Jharkhand.
30.5 Name the manganese mining centre located in Madhya Pradesh.
30.6 Name the Iron-ore mining centre located in Maharashtra.
30.7 Name the place where international airport is located in Karnataka.

Answer:
30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Uttar Pradesh
30.3 Kandla
30.4 Hazaribagh (or Singhbhum)
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Ratnagiri (or Chandrapur)
30.7 Bengaluru

Teacher's Note:
a) Answer only five parts, each carrying 1 mark.
b) Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density in 2011 (17 persons per sq km).

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