CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 64-1-2

SECTION A

1. Identify the district of first phase of construction of Rajasthan canal. [1 Mark]
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Barmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Ganganagar

Answer: (D) Ganganagar

Teacher's Note:
a) Stage I of the Indira Gandhi (Rajasthan) Canal command area lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern Bikaner districts.
b) Stage II covers Jaisalmer, Barmer and other districts, so do not confuse the two stages.

2. Read the following statements related to 'surface mining' carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. It is the cheapest and the safest way of mining minerals.
ii. Its output is large and rapid.
iii. It is used to extract minerals from deeper part.
iv. It is also known as open cast mining.
Options :
(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(B) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
(C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
(D) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.

Answer: (C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Surface (open cast) mining is used for minerals lying near the surface.
b) Minerals from deeper parts are taken out by underground (shaft) mining, so statement iii is wrong.

3. Read the following statements regarding quaternary activities carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. It is associated with collection and production of information.
ii. It focuses on the production of tools.
iii. It is centred around research and development.
iv. It involves specialized knowledge and technical skills.
Options :
(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(B) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
(C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
(D) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.

Answer: (C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quaternary activities are knowledge-based: information, research and development.
b) Production of tools is a secondary (manufacturing) activity, so statement ii is wrong.

4. Arrange the following seaports from south to north according to their location and choose the correct option :
i. Shanghai
ii. Singapore
iii. Yokohama
iv. Hong Kong [1 Mark]
Options :
(A) ii, iv, iii and i
(B) ii, iv, i and iii
(C) iv, ii, iii and i
(D) iv, ii, i and iii

Answer: (B) ii, iv, i and iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Singapore lies near the equator, Hong Kong near the Tropic of Cancer, Shanghai around 31 degrees N and Yokohama around 35 degrees N.
b) For ordering questions, recall the approximate latitude of each port.

5. Ports, which handle bulk and general cargo in large volume, are called ________. [1 Mark]
(A) Ferry Ports
(B) Inland Ports
(C) Ports of Call
(D) Comprehensive Ports

Answer: (D) Comprehensive Ports

Teacher's Note:
a) Comprehensive ports handle both bulk and general cargo in large volumes, for example most major ports of the world.
b) Ports of call are stopping points on main sea routes for refuelling and supplies.

6. Arrange the following iron-ore mines of India from south-west to north-east direction of their locations and choose the correct option :
i. Bailadila
ii. Mayurbhanj
iii. Ballari
iv. Kudremukh [1 Mark]
Options :
(A) iii, iv, i and ii
(B) iii, iv, ii and i
(C) iv, iii, i and ii
(D) iv, iii, ii and i

Answer: (C) iv, iii, i and ii

Teacher's Note:
a) Kudremukh is in south-western Karnataka, Ballari in eastern Karnataka, Bailadila in Chhattisgarh and Mayurbhanj in Odisha.
b) Practise locating iron-ore mines on the India map to solve such ordering questions quickly.

7. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : All manufacturing industries are associated with raw materials.
Reason (R) : Resources are essential for human survival.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Manufacturing always converts raw materials into finished goods, so the Assertion is true.
b) The Reason is a general fact about resources and does not explain why industries depend on raw materials.

8. Choose the correct option to fill the blank.
By 2050, the world population is estimated to live in urban areas is _____. [1 Mark]
(A) One fourth
(B) Half
(C) Two third
(D) Three fourth

Answer: (C) Two third

Teacher's Note:
a) About two-thirds of the world population is projected to be urban by 2050.
b) Today a little over half of the world population lives in urban areas; do not confuse present and future figures.

9. "Some wastelands are rendered unfit for agriculture by human activities." Choose the correct option related to the statement :
i. Shifting cultivation area
ii. Coastal plains
iii. Degraded pastures
iv. Bhabar areas [1 Mark]
Options :
(A) Only ii
(B) Both ii and iv
(C) Only iii
(D) Both i and iii

Answer: (D) Both i and iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Shifting cultivation areas and degraded pastures are wastelands created by human activities.
b) Bhabar areas and coastal sands are natural wastelands, not human-made.

10. Choose the correctly matched pair of areas and their characteristics from the following : [1 Mark]
(Areas) - (Characteristics)
(A) Jhabua District - Bhil Tribe
(B) Daurala Meerut - Gaddi Tribe
(C) Bharmaur Tehsil - Dilapidated Houses
(D) Dharavi Mumbai - Groundwater Pollution

Answer: (A) Jhabua District - Bhil Tribe

Teacher's Note:
a) Jhabua district in Madhya Pradesh is dominated by the Bhil tribe and is known for watershed management.
b) Gaddi tribe belongs to Bharmaur, Daurala is linked with groundwater pollution and Dharavi with dilapidated houses.

11. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : Water transport plays an important role in the international trade of India.
Reason (R) : The east coast of India has more ports than its west coast.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Teacher's Note:
a) About 95 percent of India's foreign trade by volume moves by sea, so the Assertion is true.
b) The west coast has more major ports than the east coast, so the Reason is false.

12. Read the following facts about 'Swachh Bharat Mission' carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. It is a part of urban renewable mission.
ii. It is launched by Government of India.
iii. It is associated with improving greenery in urban areas.
iv. It is aimed to improve quality of life in urban slums.
Options :
(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(B) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
(C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
(D) Only i, iii and iv are correct.

Answer: (C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Swachh Bharat Mission is a Government of India mission for cleanliness and better living in cities and slums.
b) Improving greenery is linked with other schemes like AMRUT, not the main aim of this mission.

13. Identify the unit to measure sound from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) Particles per hundred
(B) Decibel
(C) Particles per thousand
(D) Nanometer

Answer: (B) Decibel

Teacher's Note:
a) Noise level is measured in decibels (dB).
b) Noise pollution is mentioned in the chapter on geographical perspective on selected issues and problems.

14. Identify the main objective of Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) To transport and store natural gas at its depot.
(B) To process and allocate natural gas to different states.
(C) To transport, process and market natural gas.
(D) To sale, stored natural gas for greater profit.

Answer: (C) To transport, process and market natural gas.

Teacher's Note:
a) GAIL was set up in 1984 as a public sector undertaking for natural gas.
b) Remember the three keywords: transport, process and market.

Read the following table & passage and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

International Comparison of Human Development
Human Development Categories
Level of Human Development | Score in Development Index
Very High | above 0.800
High | between 0.700 up to 0.799
Medium | between 0.550 up to 0.699
Low | below 0.549
The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.
Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.

15. Which one of the following score of human development index shows the range for Medium category ? [1 Mark]
(A) 0.049
(B) 0.099
(C) 0.149
(D) 0.199

Answer: (C) 0.149

Teacher's Note:
a) Range = highest value minus lowest value of the category: \( 0.699 - 0.550 = 0.149 \).
b) Read the Medium row of the table carefully before subtracting.

16. The most important factor applicable with high human development countries is _____ [1 Mark]
(A) maximum investment in social sector.
(B) maximum investment in service sector.
(C) maximum investment in industrial development.
(D) maximum investment in agricultural development.

Answer: (A) maximum investment in social sector.

Teacher's Note:
a) The passage says high human development countries invest more in the social sector, such as education and healthcare.
b) In source-based MCQs, pick the option that matches the words of the passage.

17. Greater improvement among the medium level of human development countries is marked by _____. [1 Mark]
(A) Development related policies
(B) Environment related policies
(C) Economy oriented policies
(D) Society oriented policies

Answer: (D) Society oriented policies

Teacher's Note:
a) The passage says these countries adopted more people-oriented policies and reduced social discrimination.
b) People-oriented policies are society oriented policies.

SECTION B

18. Study the map of 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway' and answer the questions that follow :

[Figure: Map of Australia (longitudes 110 degrees E to 150 degrees E, latitudes 10 degrees S to 40 degrees S) showing the Trans-Continental Railway as a dashed line across the southern part of the continent. Stations shown: Kalgoorlie, Port Augusta, Port Pirie, Broken Hill, Petterborough, Porkes, Albury and Melbourne. Station 'A' is marked between Kalgoorlie and Port Augusta and station 'B' is marked between Broken Hill and Porkes. Timor Sea, Coral Sea, Indian Ocean and Tasman Sea are labelled.]

(18.1) In which part of the continent this railway line is located ? [1 Mark]

Answer: The railway line is located in the southern part of the continent.

Teacher's Note:
a) The line runs east-west across southern Australia.
b) Write the direction clearly; one word "southern" earns the mark.

(18.2) Identify the stations of this railway marked as 'A' and 'B'. [1 Mark]

Answer:
A - Forrest
B - Roto

Teacher's Note:
a) Each correct station name carries half a mark.
b) Forrest lies on the Nullarbor Plain section between Kalgoorlie and Port Augusta.

(18.3) Write the names of stations located at the easternmost and westernmost end of this railway. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Easternmost end - Sydney
Westernmost end - Perth

Teacher's Note:
a) The railway links Perth on the west coast with Sydney on the east coast.
b) Do not mix up the two ends; label each one clearly.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 18)

18. Describe any three characteristics of the 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It runs east-west across the southern part of the continent.
2. It runs from Perth on the west coast to Sydney on the east coast.
3. It passes through Kalgoorlie, Port Augusta and Broken Hill.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the direction, the two end stations and important stations on the way.
b) Each correct characteristic carries one mark.

19. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Case for Free Trade
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalization. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalization allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.
Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.
Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

(19.1) Explain the meaning of 'trade liberalisation'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Opening up economies for trading by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs is known as trade liberalisation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: opening up economies and bringing down trade barriers like tariffs.
b) Trade liberalisation is also called free trade.

(19.2) How have 'Globalisation' and 'free trade' affected the economies of developing countries ? [1 Mark]

Answer: They have adversely affected the economies of developing countries, because developed countries do not give them an equal playing field and impose conditions which are unfavourable to them.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: no equal playing field and unfavourable conditions.
b) Take the answer directly from the second paragraph of the passage.

(19.3) What should be done by the developing countries to protect from negative impact of 'free trade' ? Mention any two steps. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. They should keep their own markets protected from foreign products.
2. They should be cautious about dumped goods of cheaper prices, as these can harm domestic producers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each step carries half a mark.
b) Dumping means selling a product in another country at a price lower than its cost.

SECTION C

20. Differentiate between retail and wholesale trading with examples. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Retail trading is the sale of goods directly to the consumers, whereas wholesale trading is bulk business carried on through numerous intermediary merchants and supply houses.
2. Most retail trading takes place in fixed stores solely devoted to selling, and also in non-store forms like street peddling, handcarts, door-to-door, mail-order, vending machines and internet; in wholesale trading, some large stores including chain stores buy directly from manufacturers.
3. Retailers operate largely on the wholesaler's capital, whereas wholesalers often extend credit to retail stores.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write each point as a clear comparison of retail versus wholesale.
b) Include examples such as chain stores, handcarts or internet selling.
c) Three points of difference carry one mark each.

21. (a) "Nature and human are intricately inter-wined." Analyse the statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Nature and humans are inseparable elements and should be seen holistically.
2. Both physical and human phenomena are described in metaphors using symbols from human anatomy, such as face of the earth, eye of the storm, mouth of the river and snout of the glacier.
3. Regions, villages and towns are described as 'organisms', and networks of roads, railways and waterways are described as 'arteries of circulation'.

Teacher's Note:
a) Examples of metaphors earn marks, so quote at least two.
b) This comes from Chapter 1, Human Geography: Nature and Scope.

OR

(b) "Human beings utilize the opportunities provided by nature." Analyse the statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Humans create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment and move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom.
2. Human activity creates a cultural landscape, and the imprints of human activities are seen everywhere.
3. Examples are health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling hills, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes and satellites in space.

Teacher's Note:
a) This idea is called possibilism; mention the term for extra clarity.
b) Give examples of human imprints to support the analysis.

22. Explain the importance of bio-energy in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Bio-energy is energy derived from biological products like agricultural residues, municipal and industrial waste, and is a potential source of energy conversion.
2. It can be converted into electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking, and it also processes waste and garbage while producing energy.
3. It improves the economic life of rural areas, reduces environmental pollution, enhances self-reliance and reduces pressure on fuel wood.

Teacher's Note:
a) Start with a one-line meaning of bio-energy, then give its uses and benefits.
b) Keywords: waste to energy, rural economy, less pollution, less pressure on fuel wood.

23. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow : [3 Marks]
India - Trends of Urbanisation 1961-2011
Year | Number of Towns/UAs | Urban Population (in Thousands) | % of Total Population | Decennial Growth (%)
1961 | 2,365 | 78,936.6 | 17.97 | 26.41
1971 | 2,590 | 1,09,114 | 19.91 | 38.23
1981 | 3,378 | 1,59,463 | 23.34 | 46.14
1991 | 4,689 | 2,17,611 | 25.71 | 36.47
2001 | 5,161 | 2,85,355 | 27.78 | 31.13
2011 | 6,171 | 3,77,000 | 31.16 | 31.08

(23.1) In which census year, the decennial growth of urban population is the highest. [1 Mark]

Answer: 1981 (decennial growth of 46.14 percent).

Teacher's Note:
a) Read only the last column (Decennial Growth) to find the highest value.
b) Do not confuse decennial growth with the percentage of total population.

(23.2) Explain the increasing trend of urban population in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: The share of urban population in India has increased regularly from 1961 to 2011. It was 17.97 percent in 1961 and rose to 31.16 percent in 2011.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote the starting and ending figures from the table to support the trend.
b) Use the word "steady" or "regular" increase.

(23.3) Analyse the continuous increasing trend of number of towns in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: The number of towns has increased regularly from 2,365 in 1961 to 6,171 in 2011. The most rapid growth was recorded between 1981 and 1991.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention both the figures and the decade of fastest growth (1981 - 1991, an increase of 1,311 towns).
b) Data-based answers must quote numbers from the table.

SECTION D

24. Explain the Malthus Theory of population growth. Suggest important measures to control the rapidly increasing population. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Malthus Theory of population growth:
1. Thomas Malthus, in his theory (1798), stated that the number of people would increase faster than the food supply.
2. Any further increase would result in a population crash caused by famine, disease and war.
Measures to control the rapidly increasing population:
3. Family planning programmes should be implemented widely across the country.
4. Awareness about population control measures should be spread among people.
5. Free availability of contraceptives and tax disincentives for large families should be ensured; access to family planning services also improves women's health.

Teacher's Note:
a) The theory carries 2 marks and the measures carry 3 marks, so write both parts clearly.
b) Keywords for the theory: population grows faster than food supply, and checks like famine, disease and war.
c) Mention the year 1798 to make the answer precise.

25. (a) "Indian Railways have facilitated the movement of both freight and passengers and contributed to the growth of economy." Support the statement with suitable arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Indian railway network is one of the longest in the world.
2. Conversion of metre and narrow gauge to broad gauge and replacement of steam engines by diesel and electric engines have increased both speed and haulage capacity.
3. Metro rail has revolutionised urban transport; it moves people quickly and improves their working efficiency.
4. After independence, railway routes were extended to other areas; the Konkan Railway along the west coast gives a direct link between Mumbai and Mangalore.
5. Railways remain the main means of transport for the masses as well as for goods, connecting raw material areas, plantations, hill stations and towns.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover both freight and passenger movement, as the statement asks.
b) Examples like Konkan Railway and metro rail make the answer stronger.
c) Write five separate points for five marks.

OR

(b) "Indian ports have continuously been growing for successful international trade." Support the statement with suitable arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Indian ports have been growing continuously since independence.
2. They handle large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade.
3. Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure.
4. Earlier, development and modernisation were the responsibility of government agencies; now private entrepreneurs have been invited to modernise ports and bring them on par with international ports.
5. The capacity of Indian ports increased more than forty times in 2016 compared with 1951.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote the data point about capacity growth (over 40 times since 1951).
b) Mention the role of private participation in modernisation.

26. (a) "The cost of transport plays an important role in location of industries." Justify the statement with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Speedy and efficient transport is essential to carry raw materials to factories and finished goods to markets.
2. Lower transportation cost leads to a greater concentration of industries.
3. Western Europe and eastern North America have highly developed transport systems, which have always attracted industries to these areas.
4. Modern industry is inseparably tied to transportation systems.
5. Improvements in transportation led to integrated economic development and regional specialisation of manufacturing.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give regional examples such as Western Europe and eastern North America.
b) Link transport cost to both raw materials and markets.

OR

(b) 'Dairy farming is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres.' Justify the statement with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dairy is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals.
2. Urban and industrial centres provide a nearby market for fresh milk and dairy products.
3. Transport, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation facilities are easily available near urban areas.
4. Dairy farming is highly capital intensive; animal sheds, fodder storage, feeding and milching machines add to the cost, which suits areas with good investment.
5. It needs special care in cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services, which are more available near urban centres; it is also highly labour intensive.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: nearby market, perishable product, refrigeration and pasteurisation.
b) Examples of regions: North-western Europe, Canada, north-eastern USA, New Zealand and south-eastern Australia.

27. (a) Explain the meaning of 'target area planning'. Analyse the need of 'target area planning' for development. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Meaning: Target area planning is the approach of reducing regional imbalance by focusing on the resource base of economically backward regions.
Need of target area planning:
1. The economic development of a region depends on its resource base, but sometimes even resource-rich regions remain backward.
2. It was realised that regional imbalances in economic development were getting accentuated.
3. To stop the growth of regional and social disparities, the Planning Commission introduced the 'target area' and 'target group' approaches.
4. Programmes like Command Area Development Programme, Drought Prone Areas Development Programme and Desert Development Programme are examples; in the 8th Five Year Plan, special area programmes developed infrastructure in hill areas, north-eastern states, tribal areas and backward areas.

Teacher's Note:
a) The meaning carries 1 mark and the need carries 4 marks.
b) Naming target area programmes as examples earns marks.

OR

(b) Explain the meaning of 'regional planning'. Assess the outcomes of 'Integrated Tribal Development Project' in Bharmaur region. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Meaning: Planning to reduce regional imbalance in development is called regional planning.
Outcomes of the Integrated Tribal Development Project in Bharmaur:
1. Development of infrastructure such as schools, healthcare facilities and potable water.
2. Improved facilities of roads, communication and electricity.
3. A tremendous increase in literacy rate, especially female literacy.
4. Improvement in sex ratio, decline in child marriage and gender inequality, and increased cultivation of pulses and other cash crops.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bharmaur is a tribal area in Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh, home of the Gaddi tribe.
b) Cover both social outcomes (literacy, sex ratio) and economic outcomes (infrastructure, cash crops).

28. (a) "The third phase of population growth is referred to as the period of population explosion in India." Evaluate the statement with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The decades 1951 - 1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India.
2. It was caused by a rapid fall in the mortality rate while the fertility rate remained high.
3. The average annual growth rate was as high as 2.2 percent.
4. Developmental activities introduced through centralised planning improved the economy and the living conditions of people, leading to high natural increase and a higher growth rate.
5. International migration of Tibetans, Bangladeshis and Nepalis also added to the high growth rate.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always mention the time period 1951 - 1981 for this phase.
b) Key reason: falling death rate with a high birth rate.

OR

(b) "The second phase of population growth is referred to as the period of steady growth." Evaluate the statement with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The decades 1921 - 1951 are referred to as the period of steady population growth.
2. An overall improvement in health and sanitation throughout the country brought down the mortality rate.
3. Better transport and communication systems improved the distribution systems, for example of food.
4. The crude birth rate remained high, leading to a higher growth rate than the previous phase.
5. This growth is impressive against the backdrop of the Great Depression of the 1920s and World War II.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the time period 1921 - 1951 and why it is called "steady" growth.
b) Compare with the first phase (stagnant) and the third phase (explosion) for a better evaluation.

SECTION E

29. On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : [5 Marks]
A. A major sea-port
B. A major airport
C. An inland waterway
D. A major area of nomadic herding
E. A major area of commercial livestock rearing
F. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming
G. A major area of mixed farming

[Figure: Outline political map of the World with seven features marked: A - a point at the southern tip of Africa; B - a point on the northern coast of Australia; C - a point on the narrow isthmus of Central America; D - a hatched area in western Asia (Arabian Peninsula); E - a dotted area in south-eastern South America; F - a shaded area in south-eastern Australia; G - an area in eastern North America.]

Answer:
A. Cape Town
B. Darwin
C. Panama Canal
D. Arabian Peninsula
E. Argentina
F. Downs (Australia)
G. Eastern part of North America

Teacher's Note:
a) Only five correct identifications are needed; each carries one mark.
b) Write names neatly on the lines drawn near the marked features.
c) Downs in Australia are temperate grasslands used for extensive commercial grain farming.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 29)

29. Answer any five. [5 Marks]
29.1 Name the major seaport of South Africa.
29.2 Name the major airport of Australia.
29.3 Name the inland waterway that connects Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean.
29.4 Name the Asian peninsula where nomadic herding is practiced.
29.5 Name the major area of commercial livestock rearing of South America.
29.6 Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of Australia.
29.7 Name an area of mixed farming of Africa.

Answer:
29.1 Cape Town / Durban
29.2 Darwin / Wellington / Perth / Sydney
29.3 Panama Canal
29.4 Arabian Peninsula
29.5 Argentina / Uruguay / Brazil / Venezuela / Guyana
29.6 Downs (Australia)
29.7 Temperate latitudes (South Africa)

Teacher's Note:
a) Any five correct answers earn full marks.
b) Wellington is in New Zealand; prefer Darwin, Perth or Sydney for Australia.

30. On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols. [5 Marks]
30.1 The state with the lowest population density (2011).
30.2 The state leading in the production of sugarcane.
30.3 A major sea port in Gujarat.
30.4 A copper mining centre in Jharkhand.
30.5 A manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh.
30.6 An Iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra.
30.7 An international airport in Karnataka.

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

Answer:
30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Uttar Pradesh
30.3 Kandla
30.4 Hazaribagh / Singhbhum
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Ratnagiri / Chandrapur
30.7 Bengaluru

Teacher's Note:
a) Shade states and mark centres with dots or triangles, and write the name beside each symbol.
b) For 30.4 either Hazaribagh or Singhbhum is accepted, and for 30.6 either Ratnagiri or Chandrapur.
c) Kandla is also called Deendayal Port.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 30)

30. Answer any five. [5 Marks]
30.1 Name the state with the lowest population density (2011).
30.2 Name the leading state of sugarcane production.
30.3 Name the place where major sea port is located in Gujarat.
30.4 Name the copper mining centre located in Jharkhand.
30.5 Name the manganese mining centre located in Madhya Pradesh.
30.6 Name the Iron-ore mining centre located in Maharashtra.
30.7 Name the place where international airport is located in Karnataka.

Answer:
30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Uttar Pradesh
30.3 Kandla
30.4 Hazaribagh / Singhbhum
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Ratnagiri / Chandrapur
30.7 Bengaluru

Teacher's Note:
a) Any five correct names earn full marks.
b) Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density in 2011 (17 persons per sq km).

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