CBSE Class 12 Geography Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 64-1-1

SECTION A

1. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : All manufacturing industries are associated with raw materials.
Reason (R) : Resources are essential for human survival.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Every manufacturing industry needs raw materials, so the Assertion is true.
b) The Reason is a general truth about resources, but it does not explain why industries depend on raw materials.

2. Which of the following statements are correct related to mining ? Choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. In ancient times minerals were used to make tools and weapons.
ii. All developed countries are extracting more minerals for their development.
iii. The actual development of mining began with the industrial revolution.
iv. There are many stages in the discovery of minerals.
(A) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
(B) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
(C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.
(D) Only i, ii and iii are correct.

Answer: (C) Only i, iii and iv are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Statement ii is wrong because many developed countries have reduced mining due to high costs.
b) Words like "all" in a statement are often a clue that it is incorrect.

3. Identify the main characteristics of quaternary activity from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) It is associated with extraction of minerals for development.
(B) It is confined to increase the value of raw materials into finished products.
(C) It is concerned with research and development.
(D) It is linked with serving all the people of society.

Answer: (C) It is concerned with research and development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quaternary activities are knowledge-based: research, development, information and data services.
b) Option (A) is primary and option (B) is secondary activity, so do not confuse them.

4. Arrange the following airports of Asia from west to east as per their locations and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. Beijing
ii. Tokyo
iii. Aden
iv. Mumbai
(A) iv, iii, ii and i
(B) iv, iii, i and ii
(C) iii, iv, ii and i
(D) iii, iv, i and ii

Answer: (D) iii, iv, i and ii

Teacher's Note:
a) From west to east the order is Aden (Yemen), Mumbai (India), Beijing (China) and Tokyo (Japan).
b) Picture a world map and move from the Arabian Sea towards the Pacific Ocean.

5. The exported items by a port is first brought from different countries. This port is known as __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Comprehensive Port
(B) Outports
(C) Entrepot Ports
(D) Packet Station

Answer: (C) Entrepot Ports

Teacher's Note:
a) Entrepot ports are collection centres where goods from many countries are brought for re-export.
b) Examples are Singapore for Asia and Rotterdam for Europe.

6. Arrange the following oil refineries of India from south to north direction as per their locations and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. Mumbai
ii. Kochchi
iii. Kayali
iv. Mangaluru
(A) ii, iv, iii and i
(B) ii, iv, i and iii
(C) iv, ii, i and iii
(D) iv, ii, iii and i

Answer: (B) ii, iv, i and iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Along the west coast from south to north: Kochchi (Kerala), Mangaluru (Karnataka), Mumbai (Maharashtra), Koyali (Gujarat).
b) Koyali is near Vadodara in Gujarat, so it is the northernmost of the four.

7. Identify the district of first phase of construction of Rajasthan canal. [1 Mark]
(A) Jaisalmer
(B) Barmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Ganganagar

Answer: (D) Ganganagar

Teacher's Note:
a) Stage I of the Indira Gandhi Canal command area lies in Ganganagar, Hanumangarh and northern Bikaner districts.
b) Stage II covers Jaisalmer and Barmer, so do not mix up the two stages.

8. Identify the main objective of Gas Authority of India Limited (GAIL) from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) To transport and store natural gas at its depot.
(B) To process and allocate natural gas to different states.
(C) To transport, process and market natural gas.
(D) To sale, stored natural gas for greater profit.

Answer: (C) To transport, process and market natural gas.

Teacher's Note:
a) GAIL was set up in 1984 as a public sector undertaking for natural gas.
b) Remember the three key words: transport, process and market.

9. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : Water transport plays an important role in the international trade of India.
Reason (R) : The east coast of India has more ports than its west coast.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(D) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (C) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.

Teacher's Note:
a) Most of India's foreign trade by volume moves through sea ports, so the Assertion is true.
b) The west coast has more major ports than the east coast, so the Reason is false.

10. Read the following facts about 'Swachh Bharat Mission' carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
i. It is a part of urban renewable mission.
ii. It is launched by Government of India.
iii. It is associated with improving greenery in urban areas.
iv. It is aimed to improve quality of life in urban slums.
(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct.
(B) Only ii, iii and iv are correct.
(C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.
(D) Only i, iii and iv are correct.

Answer: (C) Only i, ii and iv are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Swachh Bharat Mission aims at cleanliness and sanitation, which improves life in urban slums.
b) Improving greenery is not its main aim, so statement iii is left out.

11. Identify the unit to measure sound from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) Particles per hundred
(B) Decibel
(C) Particles per thousand
(D) Nanometer

Answer: (B) Decibel

Teacher's Note:
a) The level of noise is measured in decibels (dB).
b) Noise above safe decibel levels causes noise pollution and hearing problems.

12. Choose the correctly matched pair of areas and their characteristics from the following : [1 Mark]
(Areas) - (Characteristics)
(A) Jhabua District - Bhil Tribe
(B) Daurala Meerut - Gaddi Tribe
(C) Bharmaur Tehsil - Dilapidated Houses
(D) Dharavi Mumbai - Groundwater Pollution

Answer: (A) Jhabua District - Bhil Tribe

Teacher's Note:
a) Jhabua district in Madhya Pradesh is mainly inhabited by the Bhil tribe.
b) Gaddi tribe lives in Bharmaur, and groundwater pollution is linked with Daurala in Meerut.

13. "Some wastelands are rendered unfit for agriculture by human activities." Choose the correct option related to the statement : [1 Mark]
i. Shifting cultivation area
ii. Coastal plains
iii. Degraded pastures
iv. Bhabar areas
(A) Only ii
(B) Both ii and iv
(C) Only iii
(D) Both i and iii

Answer: (D) Both i and iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Abandoned shifting cultivation areas and degraded pastures are wastelands created by human action.
b) Bhabar areas and coastal features are natural, so they are not human-made wastelands.

14. Choose the correct option to fill the blank :
By 2050, the world population is estimated to live in urban areas is ______. [1 Mark]
(A) One fourth
(B) Half
(C) Two third
(D) Three fourth

Answer: (C) Two third

Teacher's Note:
a) By 2050, about two-thirds of the world's people are expected to live in urban areas.
b) At present a little more than half of the world's population is urban, so do not choose "Half".

Read the following table & passage and answer Question Nos. 15 to 17 :

International Comparison of Human Development
Human Development Categories
Level of Human Development | Score in Development Index
Very High | above 0.800
High | between 0.700 up to 0.799
Medium | between 0.550 up to 0.699
Low | below 0.549
The priority of countries with high level of human development is providing education and healthcare. They are investing more in social sector. Altogether, a higher investment in people and good governance has set this group of countries apart from others.
Countries with medium levels of human development have emerged in the period after the Second World War. Many of these countries have been rapidly improving their human development score by adopting more people-oriented policies and reducing social discrimination.

15. The most important factor applicable with high human development countries is _____ [1 Mark]
(A) maximum investment in social sector.
(B) maximum investment in service sector.
(C) maximum investment in industrial development.
(D) maximum investment in agricultural development.

Answer: (A) maximum investment in social sector.

Teacher's Note:
a) The passage says these countries invest more in the social sector like education and healthcare.
b) In source-based MCQs, pick the option whose words match the passage.

16. Greater improvement among the medium level of human development countries is marked by _____. [1 Mark]
(A) Development related policies
(B) Environment related policies
(C) Economy oriented policies
(D) Society oriented policies

Answer: (D) Society oriented policies

Teacher's Note:
a) The passage links the improvement to people-oriented policies and less social discrimination.
b) People-oriented means society-oriented, so option (D) fits best.

17. Which one of the following score of human development index shows the range for Medium category ? [1 Mark]
(A) 0.049
(B) 0.099
(C) 0.149
(D) 0.199

Answer: (C) 0.149

Teacher's Note:
a) The Medium category lies between 0.550 and 0.699.
b) Range = highest value minus lowest value = 0.699 - 0.550 = 0.149.

SECTION B

18. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow :

Case for Free Trade
The act of opening up economies for trading is known as free trade or trade liberalization. This is done by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs. Trade liberalization allows goods and services from everywhere to compete with domestic products and services.
Globalisation along with free trade can adversely affect the economies of developing countries by not giving equal playing field by imposing conditions which are unfavourable. With the development of transport and communication systems goods and services can travel faster and farther than ever before. But free trade should not only let rich countries enter the markets, but allow the developed countries to keep their own markets protected from foreign products.
Countries also need to be cautious about dumped goods; as along with free trade dumped goods of cheaper prices can harm the domestic producers.

(18.1) Explain the meaning of 'trade liberalisation'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Trade liberalisation means opening up economies for trading by bringing down trade barriers like tariffs.

Teacher's Note:
a) The key words are "opening up economies" and "bringing down trade barriers like tariffs".
b) Trade liberalisation is another name for free trade.

(18.2) How have 'globalisation' and 'free trade' affected the economies of developing countries ? [1 Mark]

Answer: They have adversely affected the economies of developing countries, because developed countries do not give them an equal playing field and impose conditions which are unfavourable to them.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the phrase "not giving equal playing field" from the passage.
b) Mention that the effect is adverse (negative), not positive.

(18.3) What should be done by the developing countries to protect from negative impact of 'free trade' ? Mention any two steps. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. They should keep their own markets protected from foreign products.
2. They should be cautious about dumped goods of cheaper prices, as these can harm domestic producers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each step carries half a mark, so write two separate steps.
b) Dumping means selling goods in another country at a price lower than their cost.

19. Study the map of 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway' and answer the questions that follow :

[Figure: Map of Australia (latitudes 10 to 40 degrees S, longitudes 110 to 150 degrees E) with the Indian Ocean, Timor Sea, Coral Sea and Tasman Sea marked. A dashed railway line runs east-west across the southern part of the continent from the west coast to the east coast, passing Kalgoorlie, a station marked 'A' (east of Kalgoorlie), Port Augusta, Port Pirie, Broken Hill, Petterborough, a station marked 'B' (east of Broken Hill) and Parkes; a branch line runs to Albury and Melbourne.]

(19.1) In which part of the continent this railway line is located ? [1 Mark]

Answer: The railway line is located in the southern part of the continent.

Teacher's Note:
a) The line runs east-west across the southern part of Australia.
b) Read the latitudes on the map: the line lies close to 30 degrees S.

(19.2) Identify the stations of this railway marked as 'A' and 'B'. [1 Mark]

Answer:
A - Forrest
B - Roto

Teacher's Note:
a) Each station carries half a mark, so name both.
b) Forrest lies on the Nullarbor Plain between Kalgoorlie and Port Augusta.

(19.3) Write the names of stations located at the easternmost and westernmost end of this railway. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Easternmost end - Sydney
2. Westernmost end - Perth

Teacher's Note:
a) The railway links Perth on the west coast with Sydney on the east coast.
b) Do not reverse east and west; Perth is on the Indian Ocean side.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 19)

19. Describe any three characteristics of the 'Australian Trans-Continental Railway'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It runs east-west across the southern part of the continent.
2. It runs from Perth on the west coast to Sydney on the east coast.
3. It passes through Kalgoorlie, Port Augusta and Broken Hill.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention both terminal stations, Perth and Sydney.
b) Naming the important stations on the route earns an easy mark.

SECTION C

20. (a) "Nature and human are intricately inter-wined." Analyse the statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Nature and humans are inseparable elements, so they should be seen holistically.
2. Both physical and human phenomena are described in metaphors using symbols from human anatomy, such as face of the earth, eye of the storm, mouth of the river and snout of the glacier.
3. Similarly, regions, villages and towns are described as 'organisms', and networks of roads, railways and waterways are called 'arteries of circulation'.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give at least two examples of metaphors, as examiners look for them.
b) Use the keyword "holistic" to show that nature and humans cannot be studied separately.

OR

(b) "Human beings utilize the opportunities provided by nature." Analyse the statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Humans create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment and move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom.
2. Human activity creates a cultural landscape, and the imprints of human activities are seen everywhere.
3. Examples are health resorts on highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the ocean surface and satellites in space.

Teacher's Note:
a) This statement explains the idea of possibilism.
b) Mention "cultural landscape" and give examples of human imprints for full marks.

21. Differentiate between rural and urban marketing centres with examples. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rural marketing centres serve the most rudimentary type of trading, while urban marketing centres provide more specialised urban services.
2. Personal and professional services are not well developed in rural marketing centres, while they are well developed in urban centres.
3. Rural areas mostly have weekly bazaars and mandis which act as both wholesale and retail markets, while urban centres have weekly bazaars as well as organised markets offering manufactured goods and specialised goods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write each difference as a pair (rural vs urban) in the same sentence.
b) Examples like weekly bazaars, mandis and specialised markets carry marks.

22. Why should non-conventional sources of energy be used in India for sustainable development ? Explain with examples. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Sustainable development needs economic growth together with care for the environment, and traditional ways of using resources create huge waste and pollution.
2. Non-conventional sources like solar power, wind, wave and geothermal energy are inexhaustible, so they protect resources for future generations.
3. Non-conventional energy is more cost-effective than conventional sources, especially petroleum, because India's cost of importing petroleum is high.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name at least two examples of non-conventional energy, such as solar and wind.
b) Link your points to "future generations", which is the core idea of sustainable development.

23. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow : [3 Marks]
India - Trends of Urbanisation 1961-2011
Year | Number of Towns/UAs | Urban Population (in Thousands) | % of Total Population | Decennial Growth (%)
1961 | 2,365 | 78,936.6 | 17.97 | 26.41
1971 | 2,590 | 1,09,114 | 19.91 | 38.23
1981 | 3,378 | 1,59,463 | 23.34 | 46.14
1991 | 4,689 | 2,17,611 | 25.71 | 36.47
2001 | 5,161 | 2,85,355 | 27.78 | 31.13
2011 | 6,171 | 3,77,000 | 31.16 | 31.08

(23.1) In which census year, the decennial growth of urban population is the highest. [1 Mark]

Answer: 1981 (decennial growth of 46.14%).

Teacher's Note:
a) Read only the last column (Decennial Growth) to find the highest value.
b) Do not confuse decennial growth with the percentage of total population.

(23.2) Explain the increasing trend of urban population in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: The urban population of India has increased regularly from 1961 to 2011. Its share in the total population rose from 17.97% in 1961 to 31.16% in 2011.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote the starting and ending figures from the table to support the trend.
b) Use the word "regular" or "continuous" to describe the trend.

(23.3) Analyse the continuous increasing trend of number of towns in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: The number of towns increased regularly from 2,365 in 1961 to 6,171 in 2011. The most rapid growth in towns was recorded between 1981 and 1991.

Teacher's Note:
a) Compare the change between each census to find the decade of fastest growth (1981-1991: 3,378 to 4,689).
b) Support your analysis with figures from the table.

SECTION D

24. Define the terms immigration and emigration. Analyse demographic transitions theory in the world. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Immigration: Migrants who move into a new place are called immigrants, and this movement is immigration.
Emigration: Migrants who move out of a place are called emigrants, and this movement is emigration.
Demographic transition theory:
1. The theory tells us that the population of a region changes from high births and high deaths to low births and low deaths as society moves from a rural, agrarian and illiterate state to an urban, industrial and literate one.
2. The first stage has high fertility and high mortality, and population grows slowly because of epidemics and variable food supply.
3. In the second stage fertility is high in the beginning but declines with time, and mortality falls due to better sanitation and health; in the last stage both fertility and mortality decline a lot and the population is stable or grows slowly.

Teacher's Note:
a) The two definitions carry 1 mark each; remember "in" for immigration and "out" for emigration.
b) Explain the three stages clearly with birth rate, death rate and population growth in each.
c) The theory can also be used to describe and predict the future population of any area.

25. (a) "The cost of transport plays an important role in location of industries." Justify the statement with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Speedy and efficient transport is essential to carry raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market.
2. Lower transportation cost leads to greater concentration of industries in an area.
3. Western Europe and eastern North America have highly developed transport systems, which have always attracted industries to these areas.
4. Modern industry is inseparably tied to transportation systems.
5. Improvements in transportation have led to integrated economic development and regional specialisation of manufacturing.

Teacher's Note:
a) The examples of Western Europe and eastern North America are important value points.
b) Mention both raw materials and finished goods when explaining transport needs.

OR

(b) 'Dairy farming is practised mainly near urban and industrial centres.' Justify the statement with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dairy is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing of milch animals.
2. Urban and industrial centres provide a neighbourhood market for fresh milk and dairy products.
3. Transportation, refrigeration, pasteurisation and other preservation facilities are easily available near urban areas.
4. Dairy farming is highly capital intensive, as animal sheds, fodder storage, feeding and milching machines add to its cost.
5. Cattle breeding, health care and veterinary services, which dairy needs, are more available in urban centres, and dairy is also highly labour intensive.

Teacher's Note:
a) The main reason is the nearby market for perishable fresh milk; write it clearly.
b) Words like refrigeration, pasteurisation and capital intensive are key value points.

26. (a) Explain the meaning of 'target area planning'. Analyse the need of 'target area planning' for development. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Meaning: Target area planning is the approach to reduce regional imbalance by focusing on the resource base of economically backward regions.
Need of target area planning:
1. Economic development of a region depends on its resource base, but sometimes even resource-rich regions remain backward.
2. It was realised that regional imbalances in economic development were getting accentuated.
3. To stop the growth of regional and social disparities, the Planning Commission introduced the 'target area' and 'target group' approaches.
4. Examples of target area planning are the Command Area Development Programme, Drought Prone Areas Development Programme and Desert Development Programme; in the 8th Five Year Plan special area programmes were also made for hill areas, north-eastern states, tribal areas and backward areas.

Teacher's Note:
a) The meaning carries 1 mark and the four points carry 4 marks.
b) Naming examples of target area programmes strengthens your answer.

OR

(b) Explain the meaning of 'regional planning'. Assess the outcomes of 'Integrated Tribal Development Project' in Bharmaur region. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Meaning: Planning to reduce regional imbalance in development is called regional planning.
Outcomes in Bharmaur region:
1. Development of infrastructure like schools, healthcare facilities and potable water, along with better roads, communication and electricity.
2. A tremendous increase in literacy rate, especially female literacy.
3. Improvement in sex ratio, decline in child marriage and decline in gender inequality.
4. Increase in the cultivation of pulses and other cash crops in the region.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bharmaur is in Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh and is home to the Gaddi tribe.
b) Cover both social outcomes (literacy, sex ratio) and economic outcomes (cash crops).

27. (a) "Indian Railways have facilitated the movement of both freight and passengers and contributed to the growth of economy." Support the statement with suitable arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Indian railway network is one of the longest in the world, and it remains the main means of transport for the masses as well as for goods.
2. Conversion of metre and narrow gauge to broad gauge, and replacement of steam engines by diesel and electric engines, has increased speed and haulage capacity.
3. Metro rail has revolutionised urban transport, as it helps people move quickly and improves their working efficiency.
4. Since the British era, areas around towns, raw material producing areas, plantation and commercial crop areas, hill stations and cantonment towns have been well connected by railways.
5. After independence, railway routes were extended to other areas; the Konkan Railway along the west coast is a major development that directly links Mumbai and Mangaluru.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention both freight and passenger roles, as the statement asks for both.
b) Konkan Railway and gauge conversion are important examples examiners look for.

OR

(b) "Indian ports have continuously been growing for successful international trade." Support the statement with suitable arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Indian ports have been growing continuously since independence.
2. They handle large volumes of domestic as well as overseas trade.
3. Most of the ports are equipped with modern infrastructure.
4. Earlier, development and modernisation of ports was the responsibility of government agencies, but now private entrepreneurs have been invited to modernise ports and bring them at par with international ports.
5. The capacity of Indian ports increased more than forty times in 2016 compared to 1951.

Teacher's Note:
a) The fact that capacity grew more than forty times since 1951 is a strong supporting point.
b) Mention private participation as a reason for modernisation.

28. (a) Evaluate the 'National Youth Policy of India' for overall development of youths and adolescents. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The National Youth Policy was launched in February 2014.
2. It proposes a holistic 'vision' for the youth of India.
3. It aims to empower the youth to achieve their full potential and, through them, help India find its rightful place in the community of nations.
4. The government has adopted policies to give proper education to adolescents so that their talents are channelised and properly used.
5. The National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, 2015, provides an umbrella framework for all skilling activities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember the year 2014 for the National Youth Policy and 2015 for the Skill Development Policy.
b) Use the keywords "holistic vision" and "empower the youth".

OR

(b) Suggest the measure for overall development of youths and adolescents in India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Provide proper education to adolescent groups so that their talents are better channelised.
2. Implement skill development programmes effectively.
3. Encourage entrepreneurship among the youth.
4. Eradicate social evils like drug abuse, alcoholism, juvenile delinquency and crime.
5. Overcome challenges like low age at marriage, female illiteracy, school dropouts, low intake of nutrients, high maternal mortality among adolescent mothers and high rate of HIV and AIDS infection.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write five separate, practical measures, as each carries 1 mark.
b) Include both educational measures and measures against social problems.

SECTION E

29. On the given political outline Map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : [5 Marks]
A. A major sea-port
B. A major airport
C. An inland waterway
D. A major area of nomadic herding
E. A major area of commercial livestock rearing
F. A major area of extensive commercial grain farming
G. A major area of mixed farming

[Figure: Outline political map of the World. A is a point at the southern tip of Africa; B is a point on the northern coast of Australia; C is marked across the narrow isthmus of Central America; D is a hatched area over the Arabian Peninsula; E is a dotted area in southern South America; F is a shaded area in south-eastern Australia; G is a shaded area in the eastern part of North America.]

Answer:
A. Cape Town
B. Darwin
C. Panama Canal
D. Arabian Peninsula
E. Argentina
F. Downs (Australia)
G. Eastern part of North America

Teacher's Note:
a) Only five features need to be identified; write the names neatly on the lines near the letters.
b) Downs of Australia are known for extensive commercial grain (wheat) farming.
c) Argentina's Pampas is a major area of commercial livestock rearing in South America.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 29)

29. Answer any five. [5 Marks]
29.1 Name the major seaport of South Africa.
29.2 Name the major airport of Australia.
29.3 Name the inland waterway that connects Atlantic Ocean and Pacific Ocean.
29.4 Name the Asian peninsula where nomadic herding is practiced.
29.5 Name the major area of commercial livestock rearing of South America.
29.6 Name the area of extensive commercial grain farming of Australia.
29.7 Name an area of mixed farming of Africa.

Answer:
29.1 Cape Town (or Durban)
29.2 Darwin (or Wellington, Perth, Sydney)
29.3 Panama Canal
29.4 Arabian Peninsula
29.5 Argentina (or Uruguay, Brazil, Venezuela, Guyana)
29.6 Downs (Australia)
29.7 Temperate latitudes of South Africa

Teacher's Note:
a) Attempt only five of the seven parts; each carries 1 mark.
b) The Panama Canal links the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans through Central America.

30. On the given political outline map of India, locate and label any five of the following seven geographical features with appropriate symbols : [5 Marks]
30.1 The state with the lowest population density (2011).
30.2 The state leading in the production of sugarcane.
30.3 A major sea port in Gujarat.
30.4 A copper mining centre in Jharkhand.
30.5 A manganese mining centre in Madhya Pradesh.
30.6 An Iron-ore mining centre in Maharashtra.
30.7 An international airport in Karnataka.

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

Answer:
30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Uttar Pradesh
30.3 Kandla
30.4 Hazaribagh (or Singhbhum)
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Ratnagiri (or Chandrapur)
30.7 Bengaluru

Teacher's Note:
a) Use proper symbols: shading for states, a dot or triangle for mining centres and a port or airport symbol for Kandla and Bengaluru.
b) Always write the name of the place next to the symbol; a symbol without a label may lose marks.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 30)

30. Answer any five. [5 Marks]
30.1 Name the state with the lowest population density (2011).
30.2 Name the leading state of sugarcane production.
30.3 Name the place where major sea port is located in Gujarat.
30.4 Name the copper mining centre located in Jharkhand.
30.5 Name the manganese mining centre located in Madhya Pradesh.
30.6 Name the Iron-ore mining centre located in Maharashtra.
30.7 Name the place where international airport is located in Karnataka.

Answer:
30.1 Arunachal Pradesh
30.2 Uttar Pradesh
30.3 Kandla
30.4 Hazaribagh (or Singhbhum)
30.5 Balaghat
30.6 Ratnagiri (or Chandrapur)
30.7 Bengaluru

Teacher's Note:
a) Attempt only five parts; each carries 1 mark.
b) Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest population density in India in 2011 (17 persons per sq km).

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