Previous Year Question Papers for Class 12 Psychology
Explore authentic exam materials through the CBSE Class 12 Psychology Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 63. Tailored for Class 12 learners, utilizing these Psychology previous year papers ensures thorough preparation and strengthens time management skills before final CBSE evaluations.
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SECTION A
1. Madhu is a student who excels in remembering facts and figures but struggles when it comes to solving complex problems that require critical thinking and creativity. According to Arthur Jensen, which level of abilities does Madhu possess ? [1 Mark]
(A) Level II, associative learning
(B) Level I, cognitive competence
(C) Level I, associative learning
(D) Level II, observational learning
Answer: (C) Level I, associative learning
Teacher's Note:
a) Jensen's Level I (associative learning) means output is similar to input, like rote memory of facts.
b) Level II (cognitive competence) involves higher-order skills like reasoning and problem solving, which Madhu lacks.
2. Match the following : [1 Mark]
Rearing Practices | Correlation
1. Identical twins reared in different environment | I. 0.50
2. Fraternal twins reared together | II. 0.60
3. Brothers and sisters reared together | III. 0.72
4. Siblings reared apart | IV. 0.25
(A) 1-I, 2-II, 3-III, 4-IV
(B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
(C) 1-IV, 2-I, 3-III, 4-II
(D) 1-II, 2-IV, 3-I, 4-III
Answer: (B) 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
Teacher's Note:
a) Identical twins reared apart still show a high correlation (0.72), showing the role of heredity.
b) Siblings reared apart show the lowest correlation (0.25), showing the role of environment.
3. A researcher is conducting a survey to assess the personality traits of participants. One of the items in the survey asks, "I always help others when they are in need." Which of following biases is most likely to affect the response to this item ? [1 Mark]
(A) Non-response bias
(B) Acquiescence
(C) Random responding
(D) Social desirability
Answer: (D) Social desirability
Teacher's Note:
a) Social desirability is the tendency to answer items in a socially approved way.
b) Helping others is a socially desirable trait, so people may say "yes" even if it is not true for them.
4. Which of the following best describes the nature of creativity tests where there are no specified answers to questions or problems, allowing for freedom to use one's imagination and express it in original ways ? [1 Mark]
(A) Divergent
(B) Convergent
(C) Analytical
(D) Structured
Answer: (A) Divergent
Teacher's Note:
a) Creativity tests are open-ended and call for divergent thinking, with many possible answers.
b) Intelligence tests usually need convergent thinking, with one correct answer.
5. Which of the following is not a major criticism of Psychodynamic theories ? [1 Mark]
(A) They are largely based on case studies and lack a rigorous scientific basis.
(B) They use small and atypical individuals as samples for advancing generalisations.
(C) The concepts are well defined and easily submitted to scientific testing.
(D) They face criticism for using non-representative samples.
Answer: (C) The concepts are well defined and easily submitted to scientific testing.
Teacher's Note:
a) A major criticism is the opposite: psychodynamic concepts are not properly defined and are hard to test scientifically.
b) Read "not" carefully in such questions; three options are real criticisms and one is not.
6. In the following question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option. [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : Psychological tests are widely used for clinical diagnosis, guidance, personnel selection, placement and training.
Reason (R) : Objective tests provide a standardized and reliable measure of an individual's psychological attributes.
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Teacher's Note:
a) Tests are trusted for diagnosis and selection because they are standardised and reliable.
b) First check if each statement is true, then check if R explains why A happens.
7. A study finds that individuals who are regularly exposed to high stress levels have a higher incidence of infections. This observation can be explained by : [1 Mark]
(A) Enhanced production of antibodies during stress.
(B) Increased white cell count due to stress.
(C) Impaired immune response due to stress.
(D) Reduced need for sleep due to stress.
Answer: (C) Impaired immune response due to stress.
Teacher's Note:
a) Stress weakens the immune system, so the body fights infections less well.
b) This link between mind and immunity is studied in psychoneuroimmunology.
8. A person dislikes a type of food, expresses negative opinion about it, and avoids it. Which components of the A-B-C model of attitudes are illustrated in this example ? [1 Mark]
(A) Affective and Cognitive
(B) Affective and Behavioural
(C) Cognitive and Behavioural
(D) Affective, Behavioural and Cognitive
Answer: (D) Affective, Behavioural and Cognitive
Teacher's Note:
a) Dislike is the affective part, the negative opinion is the cognitive part, and avoiding it is the behavioural part.
b) Match each action in the example to one letter of A-B-C before choosing.
9. Which method of message transmission is likely to be most effective for creating a positive attitude towards Oral Rehydration Salts (ORS) for young children ? [1 Mark]
(A) Mass media advertisements
(B) Pamphlets and brochures
(C) Community social workers and doctors talking to people directly
(D) Radio announcements
Answer: (C) Community social workers and doctors talking to people directly
Teacher's Note:
a) Face-to-face messages from credible sources such as doctors are more effective in changing attitudes.
b) Source credibility and direct contact are the key words for attitude change questions.
10. A peaceful audience at a sports event suddenly turns into a frenzied mob following a controversial decision by the referee. Which factors are likely responsible for this transformation ? [1 Mark]
(A) The audience's initial passive nature
(B) The presence of clear and enforced rules
(C) The polarisation of attention and shared emotions among the audience
(D) The diverse opinions and behaviours within the crowd
Answer: (C) The polarisation of attention and shared emotions among the audience
Teacher's Note:
a) A mob forms when a crowd has a common focus and shared emotions.
b) Mob members show homogeneity of thought and behaviour, not diverse opinions.
11. According to Sheldon's typology, which of the following combinations correctly matches the body build with the associated temperament ? [1 Mark]
(A) Endomorphs - Thin, long, fragile, brainy, artistic, introvert
(B) Mesomorphs - Strong musculature, strong body build, rectangular, energetic, courageous
(C) Ectomorphs - Fat, soft, round, relaxed, sociable
(D) Endomorphs - Strong musculature, rectangular, energetic, courageous
Answer: (B) Mesomorphs - Strong musculature, strong body build, rectangular, energetic, courageous
Teacher's Note:
a) Endomorphs are fat, soft and round; ectomorphs are thin, long and fragile.
b) Options (A) and (C) swap the descriptions of endomorphs and ectomorphs, a common trap.
12. A company is forming a new committee to plan a major event. To ensure effective collaboration, they want the committee to function as a primary group. Which of the following strategies would best support this goal ? [1 Mark]
(A) Assigning clear roles and tasks to each member
(B) Encouraging frequent, informal interactions among members
(C) Setting strict rules and guidelines for all meetings
(D) Limiting communication to official emails and reports
Answer: (B) Encouraging frequent, informal interactions among members
Teacher's Note:
a) Primary groups have face-to-face interaction, close physical proximity and warm emotional bonds.
b) Formal rules and official communication are features of secondary groups.
13. Ravi constantly believes he is a failure because he once performed poorly on a test. Which cognitive problem is he exhibiting according to the Cognitive Model ? [1 Mark]
(A) Accurate self-assessment
(B) Overgeneralisation
(C) Rational thinking
(D) Logical reasoning
Answer: (B) Overgeneralisation
Teacher's Note:
a) Overgeneralisation means drawing a general conclusion from a single incident.
b) One poor test result leading to "I am a failure" is a typical example.
14. Which of the following statements best describes how societal norms influence the perception of abnormal behaviour ? [1 Mark]
(A) Societal norms are universally consistent and do not change over time.
(B) Behaviours, thoughts and emotions that align with societal norms are always considered abnormal.
(C) Societal norms are derived from society's culture, including its history, values and institutions and these norms can change over time.
(D) Aggressive behaviour is universally accepted as normal behaviour across all cultures.
Answer: (C) Societal norms are derived from society's culture, including its history, values and institutions and these norms can change over time.
Teacher's Note:
a) Behaviour that goes against social norms is often seen as abnormal, but norms differ across cultures and times.
b) Words like "universally" and "always" usually signal a wrong option.
SECTION B
15. A teacher notices that Neeraj, one of her class 5 students, learns new languages very easily, loves new subjects, and is very sensitive to changes in the classroom. Comment on the intellectual abilities of Neeraj. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Neeraj shows signs of giftedness. Gifted children show early intellectual superiority, such as preference for novelty, sensitivity to environmental changes and early language skills.
2. Giftedness is not only brilliant academic performance; each gifted student has different strengths, personality and characteristics.
Teacher's Note:
a) Link each of Neeraj's behaviours to a sign of giftedness: new languages (language skills), new subjects (novelty), sensitivity (environmental changes).
b) The marking scheme also accepts other relevant points on giftedness or any other valid theory of intelligence.
16. (a) Discuss the difference between a simple and a complex attitude system using the example of attitude towards health and well-being versus attitude towards a particular person. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. A simple attitude system contains only one or a few attitudes, for example, the attitude towards a particular person.
2. A complex attitude system is made of many "member" attitudes. For example, attitude towards health and well-being includes one's concept of physical and mental health, views about happiness and well-being, and beliefs about how to achieve health and happiness.
Teacher's Note:
a) The difference carries 1½ marks and the example carries ½ mark.
b) Use the key phrase "member attitudes" for a complex attitude system.
OR
(b) Assess and write the impact of family and school environment on attitude formation. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Family: In the early years of life, parents and other family members play a significant role in shaping a child's attitudes.
2. School: Later, the school environment becomes an important background for attitude formation. In both settings, attitudes are learnt by association, through rewards and punishments, and through modelling.
Teacher's Note:
a) Give one point for family and one for school to earn 1 + 1 marks.
b) Mention the learning processes: association, rewards and punishments, and modelling.
17. Identify and explain two strategies to reduce social loafing within a group. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Making the efforts of each person identifiable, so that no member can hide behind the group.
2. Making people feel that their individual contribution is important, so each member puts in full effort.
Teacher's Note:
a) Other accepted strategies: increasing pressure to work hard, increasing the importance of the task, and strengthening group cohesiveness.
b) Social loafing means reduced individual effort when working in a group; define it briefly if space allows.
18. How can assertiveness impact an individual's response to stress ? [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Assertiveness helps a person communicate feelings, needs, wants and thoughts clearly and confidently, including the ability to say no to a request.
2. An assertive person feels confident, has high self-esteem and a solid sense of identity, which helps in coping with stress.
Teacher's Note:
a) Assertiveness is a life skill for meeting life's challenges; any two scheme points earn full marks.
b) Do not confuse assertiveness with aggression; it is expressing oneself openly but not hurting others.
19. Evaluate the role of common motives and goals in forming and maintaining a cohesive group, with an example. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. When people have common motives and goals, they get together and form a group, and working towards the shared goal keeps them together.
2. Example: Students who want to organise their school's annual function come together as a group and work jointly until the event is completed.
Teacher's Note:
a) One mark is for the role of common goals and one mark is for a relevant example.
b) Any relevant example of people joining together for a shared goal is accepted.
SECTION C
20. You are working with a client who handles high stress well and remains healthy. How would you evaluate and support their ability to manage stress effectively ? [3 Marks]
Answer:
The client shows a stress-resistant personality, or hardiness, as described by Kobasa. It has three Cs:
1. Commitment: commitment to work, family, hobbies and social life.
2. Control: a sense of purpose and direction in life.
3. Challenge: seeing changes in life as normal and positive rather than as a threat.
Teacher's Note:
a) Remember the 3 Cs of hardiness: Control, Commitment and Challenge.
b) As per the marking scheme, evaluation using any other valid model or theory of managing stress is also given marks.
21. Explain how the Age of Reason and Enlightenment influenced the treatment and perception of psychological disorders in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. During the Age of Reason and Enlightenment, the scientific method replaced faith and dogma as the way to understand abnormal behaviour.
2. This led to the Reform Movement and increased compassion for people who suffered from psychological disorders.
3. Reforms of asylums were started in Europe and America.
Teacher's Note:
a) Key words: scientific method, compassion, Reform Movement, reform of asylums.
b) A later trend was deinstitutionalisation, with a focus on community care; this is also an accepted point.
22. (a) Analyze the relationship between intelligence and creativity, based on Terman's research findings. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. According to Terman, persons with high IQ were not necessarily creative, and creative ideas could come from persons who did not have a very high IQ.
2. Both high and low levels of creativity can be found in highly intelligent children and also in children of average intelligence.
3. The same person can be both creative and intelligent, but intelligence by itself does not ensure creativity.
Teacher's Note:
a) The relationship is positive, but high intelligence does not guarantee high creativity.
b) Any three of the scheme's points earn full marks.
OR
(b) Evaluate how Gardner's view of intelligence as an independent and interactive type challenges the traditional notions of a singular, unified intelligence. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Howard Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences says intelligence is not a single entity; distinct types of intelligences exist.
2. These intelligences are independent of each other. A person high on one type need not be high or low on other types.
3. The different types of intelligences interact and work together to find a solution to a problem. Gardner described eight types: linguistic, logical-mathematical, spatial, musical, bodily-kinaesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalistic.
Teacher's Note:
a) The words "independent" and "interact" in the question must both be explained.
b) The scheme also accepts one point from above plus an explanation of any two types of intelligence (1 + 2 marks).
23. Ashok, who suffers from obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), is considering alternative therapies to complement his current treatment. Recommend and justify which approach might be most beneficial for Ashok. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Recommended approach: Kundalini Yoga.
2. Justification: Kundalini Yoga, as taught in the West, has been found to be effective in the treatment of mental disorders.
3. It is an alternative therapy, so Ashok can practise it along with his current treatment to support his recovery.
Teacher's Note:
a) Naming the approach carries 1½ marks and justifying it carries 1½ marks.
b) The scheme also accepts mindfulness-based meditation, cognitive-behaviour therapy or Sudarshan Kriya Yoga, if properly justified.
SECTION D
24. (a) Compare and contrast technological and integral approaches to intelligence. Also discuss the cultural factors that may influence these perspectives. [4 Marks]
Answer:
1. Technological intelligence: Technologically advanced societies adopt child-rearing practices that foster skills of generalisation and abstraction, speed, minimal moves and mental manipulation.
2. Integral intelligence: In the Indian tradition, intelligence is integral. It stresses connectivity with the social and world environment and takes a holistic view, paying equal attention to cognitive and non-cognitive processes and their integration. Its four facets are cognitive, social, emotional and entrepreneurial competence.
3. Cultural factors: The cultural environment provides a context for intelligence to develop. Vygotsky argued that culture provides the social context in which people live, grow and understand the world.
4. For example, less technologically developed societies value social and emotional skills in relating to people, while technologically advanced societies see personal achievement based on reasoning and judgment as intelligence.
Teacher's Note:
a) Two marks are for the comparison and two marks are for cultural factors.
b) Use the contrast: technological intelligence focuses on individual cognitive skills, integral intelligence on connectivity and wholeness.
OR
(b) Manoj and Sunil are two managers in a company. State four reasons how Manoj's higher emotional intelligence contributes to his popularity with colleagues as compared to Sunil, who lacks these qualities. [4 Marks]
Answer:
1. Manoj can monitor his own and others' emotions, so he understands how his colleagues feel.
2. He can discriminate among different emotions and respond to each suitably.
3. He understands the powerful influence of the nature and intensity of his emotions, so he does not act on impulse.
4. He uses this emotional information to guide his thinking and actions, which makes him pleasant to work with. Sunil lacks these qualities, so he is less popular.
Teacher's Note:
a) Each characteristic of an emotionally intelligent person carries 1 mark.
b) The scheme also accepts other relevant characteristics of emotionally intelligent persons.
25. Describe four methods through which attitudes are formed. [4 Marks]
Answer:
1. Association: Attitudes are learnt by linking an object with positive or negative qualities, for example liking a subject because of a liked teacher.
2. Being rewarded or punished: An attitude that is praised or rewarded is likely to be developed, while one that is punished is likely to be dropped.
3. Through modelling: We learn attitudes by observing others being rewarded or punished for showing a particular attitude.
4. Through group or cultural norms: We learn attitudes through the norms of our group or culture, which are unwritten rules of expected behaviour.
Teacher's Note:
a) Learning through exposure to information is another accepted method.
b) As per the scheme's note, factors influencing attitude formation (family and school, reference groups, personal experiences, media) are also accepted, since the textbook does not use the term "methods".
26. You are a psychologist assessing the personality and emotional state of a new client using projective techniques. You decide to use the Sentence Completion Test and Draw-a-Person Test. Describe how you would use these tests and explain what kind of information you might gain from each test. [4 Marks]
Answer:
1. Sentence Completion Test - use: The client is given a number of incomplete sentences. The starting part is presented and the client completes it, for example "My father ...".
2. Sentence Completion Test - information: The type of ending reflects the client's attitudes, motivation and conflicts, and gives chances to reveal unconscious motivations.
3. Draw-a-Person Test - use: The client is asked to draw a person, then a person of the opposite sex, and finally to make a story about the person as if he or she is a character in a novel or play.
4. Draw-a-Person Test - information: Features of the drawing are interpreted. For example, omission of facial features suggests evading highly conflict-ridden relationships, and graphic emphasis on the neck suggests lack of control over impulses.
Teacher's Note:
a) Each test carries 2 marks: describe how it is used and what it reveals.
b) Give at least one example sentence stem and one example of interpretation of a drawing.
27. Meera has an intense irrational fear of spiders and experiences sudden episodes of intense terror with breathlessness and dizziness. Identify the two types of anxiety disorders she might be suffering from and suggest one coping strategy for each. [4 Marks]
Answer:
1. Specific phobia: Her intense irrational fear of spiders is a specific phobia.
2. Coping strategy: Systematic desensitisation, in which she is gradually exposed to spiders while staying relaxed, can reduce the fear.
3. Panic disorder: Her sudden episodes of intense terror with breathlessness and dizziness are panic attacks.
4. Coping strategy: Relaxation procedures such as deep breathing can help her stay calm and manage the attacks.
Teacher's Note:
a) Each identification carries ½ mark and each coping strategy carries 1½ marks.
b) As per the scheme's note, any coping strategy, stress management technique or treatment that is explained is accepted.
SECTION E
28. (a) How does Freud explain the stability and potential changes in personality over a person's lifetime ? Provide an overview of each stage and discuss the impact of encountering problems at any stage on personality development. [6 Marks]
Answer:
Freud held that the core of personality forms in the early years through five stages of psychosexual development. Problems at any stage lead to fixation, which arrests development and shapes adult personality.
1. Oral stage: In the first year, pleasure comes from the mouth, through sucking and feeding.
2. Anal stage: Around ages two to three, the focus is on toilet training, and the child learns to respond to society's demands.
3. Phallic stage: Around ages four to five, the child focuses on the genitals, and the Oedipus complex is resolved by identifying with the same-sex parent.
4. Latency stage: From about seven years to puberty, sexual urges are dormant and the child focuses on learning and skills.
5. Genital stage: At adolescence, the person reaches psychosexual maturity and learns to deal with the opposite sex in a mature way.
If a child faces problems at a stage, development gets fixated there and may later show as immature behaviour, or the person may regress to an earlier stage under stress.
Teacher's Note:
a) One mark is for Freud's viewpoint and five marks are for explaining all five stages.
b) Write the stages in order: Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency, Genital.
c) Use the key terms fixation and regression when discussing problems at a stage.
OR
(b) How do ecological and cultural environments influence personality development ? Provide concrete examples from hunting-gathering and agricultural societies to illustrate your answer. [6 Marks]
Answer:
1. The cultural approach tries to understand personality in relation to the features of the ecological and cultural environment. People develop personality qualities as they try to adapt to the ecological and cultural features of their group's life.
2. The economic maintenance system, climate, terrain of the habitat and availability of food shape personality. Rituals, ceremonies, religious practices, arts, games and value priorities are the ways through which personality gets shaped in a culture.
3. Hunting-gathering society (the Birhor of Jharkhand): The Birhor live a nomadic life, moving between forests to hunt and gather. Children are given a lot of freedom to explore and learn hunting skills early.
4. Their socialisation develops independence, autonomy and willingness to take risks, fostering self-reliance and achievement-oriented behaviour needed for their way of life.
5. Agricultural societies: Children are socialised to be obedient to elders, nurturing towards younger siblings and responsible for their duties.
6. These traits suit the structured, community-focused nature of farm work. So obedience, nurturance and responsibility are stressed, unlike the independence and risk-taking valued in hunting-gathering societies.
Teacher's Note:
a) Marks are divided as 2 for the introduction, 2 for the hunting-gathering example and 2 for the agricultural example.
b) Contrast the two: independence and risk-taking versus obedience, nurturance and responsibility.
29. (a) Discuss the role of core schemas, negative automatic thoughts, cognitive distortions and irrational beliefs in cognitive therapies. [6 Marks]
Answer:
1. Irrational beliefs (Albert Ellis's Rational Emotive Therapy): Irrational beliefs distort reality and cause psychological distress. Through antecedent-belief-consequence (ABC) analysis and non-directive questioning, RET challenges these beliefs and replaces them with rational ones.
2. Core schemas (Aaron Beck's cognitive therapy): Core schemas are dysfunctional beliefs formed from childhood experiences, for example "I am not good enough" formed after repeated criticism.
3. Negative automatic thoughts: In critical incidents, core schemas trigger negative automatic thoughts, which are irrational thoughts such as "I will surely fail".
4. Cognitive distortions: These thoughts are marked by cognitive distortions, which are dysfunctional ways of thinking that lead to anxiety and depression.
5. Role in therapy: The therapist uses gentle, non-threatening questioning (disputation) to challenge these thoughts and beliefs.
6. This leads to cognitive restructuring, in which dysfunctional beliefs are replaced by healthier ones, reducing psychological distress.
Teacher's Note:
a) Link irrational beliefs to Ellis (RET) and core schemas, automatic thoughts and distortions to Beck.
b) Give an example for core schema and for negative automatic thought, as the scheme asks for examples.
c) The scheme also accepts an answer covering RET, Beck's therapy and CBT (2 + 2 + 2 marks).
OR
(b) Discuss six key ethical standards that professional psychotherapists must adhere to. Explain how each standard contributes to the effectiveness of psychotherapy and ensures the well-being of clients. [6 Marks]
Answer:
1. Informed consent: The client agrees to therapy after knowing what it involves, which builds trust and cooperation.
2. Confidentiality: What the client shares is kept private, so the client can talk openly.
3. Alleviating personal distress and suffering should be the goal of all attempts of the therapist, which keeps therapy focused on the client's welfare.
4. Integrity of the practitioner-client relationship is important, as a professional and honest relationship is the base of effective therapy.
5. Respect for human rights and dignity protects the client from harm or exploitation.
6. Professional competence and skills are essential, so that the client receives correct and effective help.
Teacher's Note:
a) Name all six standards and add one line on how each helps the client.
b) Informed consent and confidentiality are the two most commonly asked standards; never miss them.
SECTION F
(Case Study - 1)
Read the case study given below and answer the questions (Q. 30 and 31) that follow :
Social stress can be broadly defined as a situation which threatens one's relationships, esteem, or sense of belonging within a dyad group, or larger social context. Social stress, can emerge in a number of situations.
Social stress can stem from difficult social interactions, for example, a conflictual or tumultuous marital or family relationship. Social stress can also emerge in the context of evaluated performance situations, where others could be judgmental or critical, or in contexts in which one feels rejected, ostracized, or ignored. Social stress can also be more broadly construed, representing perceptions of one's lower role or standing within a group or community. Social stress can lead to a range of observable and measurable responses related to health outcomes.
30. What impact can social stress have on an individual ? [1 Mark]
Answer: Social stress can lead to a range of observable and measurable responses related to health outcomes.
Teacher's Note:
a) The answer is in the last line of the case study.
b) Any other relevant impact of social stress is also accepted.
31. State two causes of social stress in day-to-day life. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Difficult social interactions, for example a conflictual or tumultuous marital or family relationship.
2. Evaluated performance situations, where others could be judgmental or critical.
Teacher's Note:
a) Feeling rejected, ostracised or ignored is another accepted cause.
b) Q. 30 and 31 are assessed on overall performance, and other relevant answers are also accepted.
(Case Study - 2)
Read the case study given below and answer the questions (Q. 32 and 33) that follow :
At any one time, a diverse set of individual, family, community and structural factors may combine to protect or undermine mental health. Although most people are resilient, people who are exposed to adverse circumstances - including poverty, violence, disability and inequality - are at higher risk of developing a mental health condition. Protective and risk factors include individual, psychological and biological factors, such as emotional skills as well as genetics. Many of the risks and protective factors are influenced through changes in brain structure and/or function.
People with mental disorders also require social support, including support in developing and maintaining personal, family and social relationships. People with mental disorders may also need support for educational programmes, employment, housing and participation in other meaningful activities.
32. According to the above paragraph, what type of people are more likely to have a psychological disorder ? [1 Mark]
Answer: People who are exposed to adverse circumstances, including poverty, violence, disability and inequality, are more likely to have a psychological disorder.
Teacher's Note:
a) Name at least two of the adverse circumstances given in the passage.
b) Any relevant answer based on the passage is accepted.
33. State two steps which are helpful in addressing the concerns of mentally-ill people. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Providing social support, including support in developing and maintaining personal, family and social relationships.
2. Providing support for educational programmes, employment, housing and participation in other meaningful activities.
Teacher's Note:
a) Both steps are given in the second paragraph of the case study.
b) Q. 32 and 33 are assessed on overall performance, and other relevant answers are also accepted.
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