CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 75

SECTION A

(All Questions are compulsory.)

1. Which one of the following is a post-competition responsibility of the technical committee? [1 Mark]
(A) Requisition to purchase equipment
(B) Arrangement of equipment and stationery
(C) Arrangement of officials
(D) Maintenance of the field

Answer: (D) Maintenance of the field

Teacher's Note:
a) Post-competition duties come after the event is over, unlike pre-competition duties like requisitioning equipment.
b) Remember that arrangement of officials and equipment happen before or during the event.

2. Which of the following is an objective of Intramural tournaments? [1 Mark]
(A) To achieve high performance at the highest level of the tournament.
(B) To develop the feeling of integration with other institutions.
(C) To provide opportunities for choosing a career in sports.
(D) To promote health and recreation at the institution.

Answer: (D) To promote health and recreation at the institution.

Teacher's Note:
a) Intramural means "within the walls", so it focuses on health and recreation within one institution.
b) Extramural tournaments, not intramural, aim at integration with other institutions.

3. Which of the following deformity is NOT related to lower extremities? [1 Mark]
(A) Knock-Knee
(B) Scoliosis
(C) Bow-legs
(D) Flat-foot

Answer: (B) Scoliosis

Teacher's Note:
a) Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine, so it is a postural deformity of the trunk, not the legs.
b) Knock-knee, bow-legs and flat-foot are all leg deformities.

4. Brisk walking, running, bicycling and jumping are related to which activities? [1 Mark]
(A) Speed activities
(B) Strength activities
(C) Endurance activities
(D) Co-ordinative activities

Answer: (C) Endurance activities

Teacher's Note:
a) These are aerobic activities that build cardio-respiratory endurance over time.
b) Note that sudden, short bursts belong to speed activities, while sustained ones belong to endurance.

5. As per prescribed syllabus, Suryabhedan Pranayam is recommended for _________. [1 Mark]
(A) Obesity
(B) Hypertension
(C) Asthma
(D) Back pain

Answer: (A) Obesity

Teacher's Note:
a) Suryabhedan Pranayam increases body heat and metabolism, hence recommended for obesity.
b) Each pranayama in the syllabus is linked to a specific lifestyle disease; learn them as pairs.

6. Identify the asana: [1 Mark]
(A) Chakrasana
(B) Dhanurasana
(C) Halasana
(D) Ushtrasana

[Figure: A person lying face down on the ground, bending both knees, reaching back with the hands to hold the ankles, and lifting the chest and thighs upward so that the body forms a bow-like curve.]

Answer: (B) Dhanurasana

Teacher's Note:
a) The word "Dhanur" means bow, and the pose resembles an archer's bow.
b) Holding the ankles while arching the body is the key identifying feature of this asana.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 6)

Which one of the following is the correct pose of Paschimottanasana? [1 Mark]
(A) Forward bending in a standing position.
(B) Forward bending in the sitting position.
(C) Head raised in the prone position.
(D) Head raised in the supine position.

Answer: (B) Forward bending in the sitting position.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Paschima" refers to the back of the body, which gets stretched while sitting and bending forward.
b) Do not confuse this asana with standing forward bends.

7. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully:
Assertion (A) : The International Paralympic Committee (IPC), has developed a classification process which can contribute "to sporting excellence for all athletes and sports in the Paralympic Movement, and provide equitable competition.
Reason (R) : The classification process serves two roles. The first is to determine who is eligible and the second is to grouping the sports people for the purpose of competitions.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? [1 Mark]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) The classification process directly explains how the IPC achieves equitable competition, so R explains A.
b) Read both statements as a cause-and-effect pair before choosing the option.

8. _________ are the colours, that represent the four regional confederation in the Deaflympic logo. [1 Mark]
(A) Red, blue, black and yellow
(B) Blue, yellow, black and red
(C) Red, blue, yellow and green
(D) Blue, black, red and yellow

Answer: (C) Red, blue, yellow and green

Teacher's Note:
a) These four colours in the Deaflympic logo represent the four regional confederations of deaf sports.
b) Do not confuse this with the Olympic rings' five colours.

9. What type of lever has the load resistance between the fulcrum and the force? [1 Mark]
(A) First class lever
(B) Second class lever
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Third class lever

Answer: (B) Second class lever

Teacher's Note:
a) In a second class lever, the load sits between the fulcrum and the effort, like a wheelbarrow.
b) Remember the order: first class - fulcrum in middle; second class - load in middle; third class - force in middle.

10. The scientific name of Vitamin 'C' is _________. [1 Mark]
(A) Betadine acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Acetonic acid
(D) Hydrochloric acid

Answer: (B) Ascorbic acid

Teacher's Note:
a) Ascorbic acid is water-soluble and important for immunity and wound healing.
b) Learn scientific names of common vitamins as they are frequently asked.

11. Given below are two statements, one of which is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully:
Assertion (A) : The risk of cancer can be reduced by eating more colourful vegetables, fruits and other plant-foods that have certain phytochemicals in them.
Reason (R) : Non-nutritive components of diet are part of balance diet.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? [1 Mark]
(A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Both statements are factually correct, but R is a general statement about diet, not a direct explanation of cancer risk reduction.
b) Check whether R logically causes A before marking option (A).

12. In which test, score is recorded to the nearest centimetre between the initial and final score? [1 Mark]
(A) Partial curl-up
(B) Back stretch test
(C) Sit and reach test
(D) Chair sit and reach test

Answer: (C) Sit and reach test

Teacher's Note:
a) The sit and reach test measures flexibility of the lower back and hamstrings in centimetres.
b) Do not confuse this with the back stretch test, which uses inches for overlap/gap.

13. Given below are types of fractures in List - I with their features in List - II:
List - I (Types of Fractures): (a) Transverse (b) Oblique (c) Green stick (d) Comminuted
List - II (Features): i. Bone breaks diagonally ii. Bone is crushed into number of pieces iii. Straight break right across a bone. iv. Soft bone, in which bone bends
Match the items of List - I with List - II and choose the correct option from the following: [1 Mark]
(A) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-ii, (d)-i
(B) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-iv, (d)-ii
(C) (a)-i, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-iv
(D) (a)-ii, (b)-iii, (c)-iv, (d)-i

Answer: (B) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-iv, (d)-ii

Teacher's Note:
a) Transverse means straight across; oblique means diagonal; green stick bends like young wood; comminuted shatters into pieces.
b) Link each fracture name's meaning to its feature to avoid confusion.

14. "The golf ball remains at rest until it is struck by a golf club." This statement indicates - [1 Mark]
(A) Law of Inertia
(B) Law of Acceleration
(C) Law of Gravity
(D) Law of Reaction

Answer: (A) Law of Inertia

Teacher's Note:
a) A body at rest stays at rest until an external force acts on it, which is Newton's first law (Law of Inertia).
b) Look for keywords like "remains at rest" or "continues moving" to identify this law.

15. Given below are traits of the big five theories of personality in List - I with their characteristics in List - II:
List - I (Traits of Big 5): (a) Openness (b) Extroversion (c) Neuroticism (d) Agreeableness
List - II (Characteristics): i. Active, optimistic and social ii. Insecure, nervous and anxious iii. Creative, focused on tackling new challenges and curious iv. Friendly, helpful and trustworthy
Match the items of List - I with List - II and choose the correct option from the following: [1 Mark]
(A) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-iv, (d)-ii
(B) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-ii, (d)-iv
(C) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(D) (a)-iv, (b)-i, (c)-ii, (d)-iii

Answer: (B) (a)-iii, (b)-i, (c)-ii, (d)-iv

Teacher's Note:
a) Openness is linked to curiosity and creativity; extroversion to being social; neuroticism to anxiety; agreeableness to being trustworthy.
b) Remember the mnemonic OCEAN for the Big Five traits.

16. The concept of _________, generally refers to a person's evaluation of, or attitude towards, him or herself. [1 Mark]
(A) Mental-imagery
(B) Self-esteem
(C) Self-talk
(D) Goal-setting

Answer: (B) Self-esteem

Teacher's Note:
a) Self-esteem is about self-worth and how a person values themselves.
b) Self-talk and mental imagery are techniques, not evaluations of self-worth.

17. The Swedish word speed play is also known as _________. [1 Mark]
(A) Fartlek training
(B) Interval method
(C) Continuous method
(D) Pace method

Answer: (A) Fartlek training

Teacher's Note:
a) "Fartlek" is a Swedish word meaning "speed play", involving varying pace over natural terrain.
b) Do not confuse Fartlek with the structured Interval Method which has fixed work-rest ratios.

18. In which type of exercises movement can NOT be seen directly? [1 Mark]
(A) Iso-tonic
(B) Iso-kinetic
(C) Iso-metric
(D) Plyometric

Answer: (C) Iso-metric

Teacher's Note:
a) Isometric exercises involve muscle tension without a visible change in muscle length or joint angle.
b) Isotonic and plyometric exercises always show visible joint movement.

SECTION - B

(Attempt any 5 questions.)

19. Suggest any two corrective measures for each, bow legs and round shoulders. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Bow legs: Walk on the inner edge of the feet and practise Garudasana regularly.
2. Round shoulders: Practise T-stretch/wall stretch exercises and yoga asanas like Chakrasana or Dhanurasana.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always give measures separately for each deformity as asked.
b) Mention specific asana names as they carry keyword marks.

20. Enlist four benefits of participation in physical activities for children with special needs. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Physical benefit: Improves motor skills, strength and cardiovascular health.
2. Psychological benefit: Builds confidence and reduces stress and anxiety.
3. Social benefit: Enhances teamwork, communication skills and promotes inclusion.
4. Emotional benefit: Elevates mood and develops resilience.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover different categories (physical, psychological, social, emotional) for full marks.
b) One-word or short phrase benefits are enough since this is a 2-mark listing question.

21. Enumerate any two myths related to food items with their respective facts. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Myth: The fewer the carbohydrates, the healthier you are. Fact: Choosing healthy carbohydrates like whole grains, in larger quantity, is important for good health.
2. Myth: Oils/margarine have fewer calories than ghee/butter. Fact: Both have almost the same calories; some margarines are unhealthier due to trans-fats.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always pair the myth with its correct fact to score both marks.
b) Avoid writing only the myth without the corresponding fact.

22. Mention the fitness index score formula and its norms for the Harvard Step Test. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Formula: Fitness Index Score = (Duration of exercise in seconds \(\times\) 100) \(\div\) (5.5 \(\times\) pulse count between 1 and 1.5 minutes after exercise).
2. Norms: Up to 49 - Poor; 50 to 80 - Average; 81 or above - Good.

Teacher's Note:
a) Learn the exact formula, as marks are given for correct substitution terms.
b) Remember the three norm categories in the correct numerical order.

23. Mention any two strategies for enhancing adherence to exercise. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Set realistic and achievable goals for the exercise programme.
2. Create a fixed daily routine and choose enjoyable activities to stay motivated.

Teacher's Note:
a) Any two strategies from the syllabus list like tracking progress or finding a workout partner are also acceptable.
b) Explain briefly why each strategy helps in sticking to exercise.

24. When wrestlers fall on the mat, why they spread their arms, knees and legs? Justify your answer. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Spreading the limbs widens the base of support and lowers the centre of gravity, which increases stability and balance.
2. This reduces the chances of injury and helps the wrestler resist being turned or pinned by the opponent.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link the answer to the principle "wider base of support, greater the stability".
b) Also mention lower centre of gravity as it is the key scientific reason.

SECTION - C

(Attempt any 5 questions.)

25. "The organisation of its community sports reflects the progress of any country." In the context of this statement, outline 'Run for a specific cause' and 'Run for unity'. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Run for a specific cause: This event spreads awareness about social issues like cleanliness or a green environment, or raises funds for causes like cancer, AIDS or gender inequality.
2. Run for unity: This run aims to foster peace, integrity and brotherhood among people of the community, state, nation or different religions.
3. Both events develop a sense of togetherness among people, cutting across social and economic barriers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give the purpose of each run clearly and separately.
b) Use examples like "cancer awareness run" to make the answer specific.

26. Describe the physical and psychological benefits of women's participation in sports. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Physical benefit: Reduces the risk of lifestyle diseases like diabetes, obesity and high blood pressure, and tones muscles.
2. Physical benefit: Improves cardiovascular system, bone density and reproductive health.
3. Psychological benefit: Reduces stress and anxiety, improves self-esteem and promotes better cognitive function and focus.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give at least one physical and one psychological benefit as the question asks for both.
b) Avoid repeating similar points; pick varied benefits from each category.

27. Define flexibility. Explain the methods to improve flexibility for a gymnast. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Flexibility is the range of motion around a joint, or the ability to perform a movement with greater amplitude or range.
2. Static stretching: Stretching a muscle slowly and holding the position for some time without bouncing.
3. PNF technique: Involves alternate stretching and contracting of the muscle with a partner's assistance to increase range of motion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always begin with the definition before explaining methods.
b) Explain any two methods in a little detail rather than just naming many methods.

28. Mention any three importance of diet during competition. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Maintains water balance and controls body temperature, since even slight dehydration causes fatigue and weakens performance.
2. During short breaks in play, carbohydrate-rich foods like bananas, juices or dilute carbohydrate drinks help sustain energy.
3. For events longer than 60 minutes, carbohydrate-electrolyte beverages help maintain blood sugar and delay fatigue.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on hydration, carbohydrate intake and fatigue delay as the three main themes.
b) Avoid mentioning carbonated or caffeinated drinks as beneficial, since these are not recommended.

29. Describe the following: [3 Marks]
(a) Residual Volume (b) Stroke Volume

Answer:
1. Residual Volume: The volume of air that remains in the lungs after the most forceful expiration. Regular exercise increases this volume, helping gas exchange remain within normal limits.
2. Stroke Volume: The volume of blood pumped out by the heart in one beat (contraction). It increases during exercise as more oxygen is required by the muscles, and endurance training can raise it by 20 to 50 percent.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give the definition first, then mention the effect of exercise/training for each term.
b) Do not confuse stroke volume with cardiac output, which is stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

30. Compare and contrast the hostile and instrumental aggression. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Primary goal: Hostile aggression aims to harm or injure the opponent, while instrumental aggression aims to win or gain an advantage.
2. Emotion: Hostile aggression is accompanied by anger, while instrumental aggression occurs without anger.
3. Explanation after the act: A hostile aggressor usually self-justifies instead of apologising, while an instrumental aggressor is more likely to offer an apology.

Teacher's Note:
a) Present the comparison point by point rather than as two separate paragraphs.
b) The "intent to harm" is common to both types, so mention it is the goal, not intent, that differs.

SECTION - D

(Internal choices available)

31. Aarti prepared a fixture of 11 teams to conduct Kho-Kho tournament in her locality as shown below: [4 Marks]

[Figure: A knockout tournament bracket for 11 teams, numbered 1 to 11. Five teams are given byes, marked B1 to B5, placed next to teams 2, 6, 7, 10 and 11 in the draw. The bracket shows first round matches progressing through subsequent rounds up to a single final match at the top of the diagram.]

Based on the above given fixture, answer the following questions:

(i) What is the number of Non-bye teams in this tournament?
(A) 06
(B) 07
(C) 08
(D) 09

Answer: (A) 06

Teacher's Note:
a) Non-bye teams = total teams - number of byes = 11 - 5 = 6.
b) Number of byes is found by subtracting the total teams from the next higher power of 2.

(ii) If the above fixture had been of 48 teams, then the number of byes would have been _________.

Answer: 16

Teacher's Note:
a) The next higher power of 2 above 48 is 64, so byes = 64 - 48 = 16.
b) Always find the nearest power of 2 greater than or equal to the number of teams first.

(iii) 7th match will be played between team number _______ and _______.

Answer: Team number 10 and 11

Teacher's Note:
a) Trace the bracket lines carefully to identify which two teams meet in a given match number.
b) Byes are given to top-seeded or specific teams and do not play in the first round.

OR

Write the formula to calculate byes in lower half.

Answer: Byes in lower half = \( \dfrac{NB+1}{2} \), where NB is the total number of byes.

Teacher's Note:
a) The upper half always gets one bye more than or equal to the lower half.
b) Remember this formula along with the formula for the upper half, \( \dfrac{NB}{2} \) or similar variant as taught.

(iv) The provision in which good teams are placed in different half or pool, based on their ranking or previous performance not by allotment of draw, so that they do not play with other teams in the first round is known as _________.
(A) Bye
(B) British method
(C) Seeding
(D) American method

Answer: (C) Seeding

Teacher's Note:
a) Seeding ensures strong teams do not eliminate each other in early rounds.
b) Do not confuse seeding with byes, which are given based on the mathematical fixture structure.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 31)

Tarun's physical education teacher gave him the responsibility of organizing a Kabaddi competition in school. Tarun along with his classmates formed several committees and prepared a knockout fixture of 17 teams for the Kabaddi tournament. He faced many challenges in organizing the match, but finally, he was successful. [4 Marks]

Answer the following questions based on the above case and your prior knowledge:

(i) How many matches will be played in this tournament?

Answer: 16 matches

Teacher's Note:
a) In a knockout tournament, the total matches are always one less than the total number of teams.
b) Here, 17 - 1 = 16.

(ii) _________ saves cost and time and makes each match intensive because of fear of elimination.
(A) Knockout tournament
(B) League tournament
(C) Round robin tournament
(D) Combination tournament

Answer: (A) Knockout tournament

Teacher's Note:
a) A single loss eliminates the team, so players give their best in every match.
b) League tournaments generally take more time and cost due to more matches.

(iii) Two team players got injured during the match, which committee will manage it?
(A) Logistics committee
(B) Technical committee
(C) Finance committee
(D) Marketing committee

Answer: (A) Logistics committee

Teacher's Note:
a) The logistics committee is responsible for first aid and emergency medical arrangements.
b) The technical committee mainly handles rules, officiating and match conduct, not injuries.

(iv) Which formula was used to allot byes to the above teams in the lower half?

Answer: Byes in lower half = \( \dfrac{NB+1}{2} \)

Teacher's Note:
a) NB refers to the total number of byes calculated for the whole draw.
b) The upper half formula uses the same total but without adding 1.

OR

Which formula was used to allot byes to the above teams in the upper half?

Answer: Byes in upper half = \( \dfrac{NB-1}{2} \)

Teacher's Note:
a) Upper half byes are one less than the lower half when total byes are odd.
b) Always verify that upper half byes + lower half byes = total byes (NB).

32. During the Physical Education class, Vivek's physical education teacher provided information about sports for children with special needs. He explained, how they are catered for the Paralympics, Deaflympics and Special Olympics. Additionally, he advised them to motivate such children to participate in physical activities to improve their performance. [4 Marks]

Answer the following questions based on the above case and your prior knowledge:

(i) To participate in Special Olympic, minimum age should be ________ years old.
(A) 7
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9

Answer: (C) 8

Teacher's Note:
a) Age eligibility criteria differ across Paralympics, Deaflympics and Special Olympics, so learn them separately.
b) Special Olympics caters specifically to individuals with intellectual disabilities.

(ii) The first Deaflympics was held in the year _________.

Answer: 1924

Teacher's Note:
a) The first Deaflympics was held in Paris in 1924, making it one of the oldest multi-sport events for persons with disabilities.
b) Do not confuse this date with the founding year of the Paralympics.

(iii) Who was the founder of the Paralympics?

Answer: Dr. Ludwig Guttmann

Teacher's Note:
a) Dr. Guttmann started the movement through the Stoke Mandeville Games for injured war veterans.
b) This laid the foundation for what later became the Paralympic Games.

(iv) Write any two strategies to make physical activities accessible for special children.

Answer:
1. Provide proper instructions and adapted equipment suited to the child's ability.
2. Use modified rules and graded activities so that children can participate safely and confidently.

Teacher's Note:
a) Any two strategies like proper space, social strategies or involving people with disability in decision making are also acceptable.
b) Emphasise adaptation and safety as the core idea behind all strategies.

33. Diya went to sports training centre for the first time. Her coach informed her that participation in sports not only promotes physical growth but also has social and psychological benefits. He highlighted numerous physical benefits for muscles, heart and respiratory systems. He advised her to continue daily practice to improve her health related and skill related fitness. [4 Marks]

Answer the following questions based on the above case and your prior knowledge:

(i) Which is not a long-term effect of exercises on the muscular system?
(A) Hypertrophy of muscle
(B) Increase in glycogen stored
(C) Ligament and tendon strengthen
(D) Accumulation of lactate

Answer: (D) Accumulation of lactate

Teacher's Note:
a) Lactate accumulation is a short-term, immediate effect of intense exercise, not a long-term training adaptation.
b) Hypertrophy, glycogen storage and stronger ligaments/tendons are all long-term training adaptations.

(ii) What is cardiac output?

Answer: Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped out by the heart in one minute, calculated as stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write the formula "Cardiac Output = Stroke Volume \(\times\) Heart Rate" for full marks.
b) Do not confuse cardiac output with stroke volume, which is per single heartbeat.

(iii) Choose the correct statement related to tidal volume:
(A) Amount of air inhaled and exhaled in one breath.
(B) Amount of air inhaled in one breath
(C) Amount of blood pumped out by heart in one stroke.
(D) Amount of air exhaled in one breath

Answer: (A) Amount of air inhaled and exhaled in one breath.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tidal volume refers to normal, relaxed breathing, covering both inhalation and exhalation.
b) Option (C) actually describes stroke volume, not tidal volume.

(iv) Lactic acid tolerance relates to _________.
(A) Strength
(B) Speed
(C) Flexibility
(D) Endurance

Answer: (D) Endurance

Teacher's Note:
a) Lactic acid tolerance is a component of speed endurance, allowing the body to work despite lactate build-up.
b) This ability is developed mainly through anaerobic endurance training.

SECTION - E

(Attempt any 3 questions.)

34. Describe the procedure and benefits of Mandukasana and Makrasana to control hypertension. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mandukasana procedure: Sit in Vajrasana, make fists with both thumbs inside, place the fists on the belly near the navel, bend forward while exhaling, hold the posture for a few seconds, then return while inhaling and repeat 3-4 times.
2. Mandukasana benefits: It improves flexibility of the knee and ankle joints, tones the shoulder and abdominal muscles, and is beneficial for diabetes, digestive disorders and constipation.
3. Makarasana procedure: Lie on the stomach, place the right palm over the left palm on the ground, rest the forehead on the palms, stretch the legs apart with toes pointing outward, relax the whole body while breathing normally, and hold for a few minutes.
4. Makarasana benefits: It gives deep relaxation to the shoulders and spine, reduces waist pain, and helps in conditions like slipped disc and arthritis.
5. Regular practice of both asanas relaxes the nervous system and helps control blood pressure through calm, controlled breathing.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write procedure and benefits separately and clearly for each asana.
b) Mention at least two benefits for each asana for full marks distribution.

35. What do you mean by Equilibrium? Explain how Equilibrium increases with the influence of various factors by giving suitable examples from sports. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Equilibrium is a state of balance in which opposite forces cancel each other out, so that a body remains at rest or moves with constant velocity.
1. Lower centre of gravity increases stability: For example, a wrestler adopts a half-sitting posture and a shot putter bends the knees to remain stable.
2. Centred centre of gravity increases stability: If the centre of gravity moves outside the base of support, balance is lost, as seen when a gymnast on a balance beam raises an arm to recentre the body.
3. Wider base of support increases stability: Standing with feet apart, or using both hands and feet, creates a larger base and more stability.
4. Greater body weight increases stability: A heavier competitor is harder to move, which is why sports like wrestling, judo and boxing use weight categories.
5. More friction on the surface increases stability: For example, a wrestling mat with less friction causes wrestlers to slip more easily, reducing stability.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always start with the definition of equilibrium before listing factors.
b) Support each factor with a clear sporting example, since examples carry marks.

36. What do you understand by circuit training? How a coach will plan circuit training sessions with 6 stations to develop fitness of his new trainees? Explain. [5 Marks]

Answer:
Circuit training, introduced by R.E. Morgan and G.T. Adamson of Leeds University in 1951, is a training method in which several different exercises are performed one after another, with or without apparatus, in a given dosage.
While planning a 6-station circuit for new trainees, a coach should consider their fitness level and cover different fitness components like strength, endurance, agility and flexibility. A sample plan is:
1. Station 1: Push-ups (upper body strength).
2. Station 2: Jump squats (leg strength and power).
3. Station 3: Rope skipping (cardiovascular endurance).
4. Station 4: Shuttle run (agility).
5. Station 5: Sit-ups (core strength).
6. Station 6: Medicine ball throw (overall power).

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure the 6 stations cover a variety of fitness components, not just one type of exercise.
b) Mention the founders and year of circuit training for the definition part.

37. Write in detail the procedure and scoring of 'Flamingo Balance Test' and 'Plate Taping Test' recommended for the age group 5 - 8 years by SAI Khelo India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Flamingo Balance Test procedure: The subject stands on a beam, balancing with the instructor's help if needed, and the stopwatch starts once the instructor lets go. The watch is paused each time the subject loses balance (falls off the beam or lets go of the held foot) and resumed until 60 seconds of balancing time is completed.
2. Flamingo Balance Test scoring: The total number of falls or losses of balance in 60 seconds is recorded; if there are more than 15 falls in the first 30 seconds, the test is terminated.
3. Plate Tapping Test procedure: Two discs are placed 60 cm apart on a table with a rectangle placed equidistant between them; the non-preferred hand rests on the rectangle while the preferred hand taps back and forth between the discs as quickly as possible.
4. Plate Tapping Test continuation: This tapping action is repeated for 25 full cycles, that is, 50 taps in total.
5. Plate Tapping Test scoring: The total time taken to complete the 25 cycles is recorded as the score.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give both the procedure and the scoring method clearly for each test, as marks are divided between them.
b) Remember the specific numbers - 60 seconds, 15 falls, 60 cm, and 25 cycles - since these carry keyword marks.

Please click the link below to download pdf file of CBSE Class 12 Physical Education Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 75