Download CBSE Class 12 Home Science Question Papers
Access comprehensive previous year question papers for Class 12 Home Science using the CBSE Class 12 Home Science Question Paper 2026 Solved Code 69. Designed to align with the 2026-27 CBSE academic guidelines, these solved papers help students assess their exam readiness and understand official marking schemes.
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SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
1. What was the main aim in setting up of SOS Children's Villages ? [1 Mark]
(A) To provide preschool education to the children below 6 years.
(B) To provide family-based, long-term care to orphaned and abandoned children.
(C) To provide care and protection only to children with special needs.
(D) To set-up the guidelines for the adoption of children of prisoners.
Answer: (B) To provide family-based, long-term care to orphaned and abandoned children.
Teacher's Note:
a) Remember SOS villages focus on a "family" model, not just institutional care.
b) Do not confuse this with ICDS which is about preschool education.
2. What type of food hazard will occur if food is contaminated with Rotavirus ? [1 Mark]
(A) Physical hazard
(B) Visible biological hazard
(C) Invisible microbiological hazard
(D) Chemical hazard
Answer: (C) Invisible microbiological hazard
Teacher's Note:
a) Viruses, bacteria and moulds are microbiological hazards that cannot be seen.
b) Physical hazards are things like glass or hair, not microbes.
3. Which of the following dress is a suitable example of Accented Neutral Colour Harmony ? [1 Mark]
(A) White frock with red belt
(B) Pink frock with red belt
(C) Yellow frock with red belt
(D) Red frock with red belt
Answer: (A) White frock with red belt
Teacher's Note:
a) Accented neutral harmony uses a neutral colour (white/black/grey) with one bright accent colour.
b) Pink and red or red and red are related colours, not neutral combinations.
4. Under which scheme of the Government of India were Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalayas initiated ? [1 Mark]
(A) Integrated Child Development Services
(B) Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India
(C) Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao
(D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (Now Samagra Shiksha)
Answer: (D) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (Now Samagra Shiksha)
Teacher's Note:
a) KGBVs were started for girls from disadvantaged sections under this education scheme.
b) Do not confuse this with BBBP, which is a separate girl-child scheme.
5. In which of the following Government programme youth clubs use financial assistance and organise activities like mountaineering, trekking, canoeing, coastal sailing, etc. ? [1 Mark]
(A) Scouts and Guides
(B) Promotion of national integration
(C) Promotion of adventure
(D) National Service Scheme
Answer: (C) Promotion of adventure
Teacher's Note:
a) All the listed activities are adventure sports, hence the key word "adventure".
b) NSS focuses on social service, not adventure activities.
6. Which French term means 'the art of dress-making' ? [1 Mark]
(A) Prêt-à-porter
(B) Couture
(C) Couturière
(D) Couturier
Answer: (B) Couture
Teacher's Note:
a) Couture refers to the art/craft itself, while Couturier/Couturière refer to the persons who practise it.
b) Prêt-à-porter means ready-to-wear, the opposite of made-to-order couture.
7. Why are eggs and dairy products considered high-risk foods ? [1 Mark]
(A) They are animal-based foods.
(B) They are high in protein, which bacteria prefer.
(C) They can be pasteurised.
(D) They require very little cooking time.
Answer: (B) They are high in protein, which bacteria prefer.
Teacher's Note:
a) High protein and moisture content make these foods a good medium for bacterial growth.
b) Being animal-based alone (A) is not the reason for the "high-risk" label; it is the nutrient composition.
8. According to the National Youth Policy 2014, which of the following age-groups is defined as 'Youth' in India ? [1 Mark]
(A) 18 - 38 years
(B) 18 - 25 years
(C) 16 - 30 years
(D) 15 - 29 years
Answer: (D) 15 - 29 years
Teacher's Note:
a) Memorise this exact range as it is frequently asked directly.
b) Do not confuse it with the UN definition of youth (15-24 years).
9. Where is the consumer organisation CERC located ? [1 Mark]
(A) China
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Delhi
(D) Australia
Answer: (B) Ahmedabad
Teacher's Note:
a) CERC stands for Consumer Education and Research Centre, based in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
b) Remember key consumer organisations along with their headquarters/locations.
10. Which is the best method of water extraction from clothes in a washing machine ? [1 Mark]
(A) Spinning
(B) Bottom drain
(C) Combination of bottom drain and spin
(D) Tumbling
Answer: (C) Combination of bottom drain and spin
Teacher's Note:
a) Using both methods together removes water more efficiently than either method alone.
b) Tumbling is a drying/agitation action, not a water-extraction method.
11. 'Human Factors Engineering' is also known as ____________. [1 Mark]
(A) Anthropometry
(B) Biomechanics
(C) Ergonomics
(D) Entrepreneurship
Answer: (C) Ergonomics
Teacher's Note:
a) Ergonomics studies the fit between people and their working environment/equipment.
b) Anthropometry is only one tool used within ergonomics, not a synonym for it.
12. Match List-I with List-II : [1 Mark]
List-I (Guest Cycle Stage)
i. Arrival
ii. Pre-arrival
iii. Departure
iv. Occupancy
List-II (Activity)
1. Check-out
2. Coordination of guest services
3. Check-in
4. Quoting rates for the guests
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) i - 3, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 2
(B) i - 4, ii - 3, iii - 2, iv - 1
(C) i - 2, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 3
(D) i - 2, ii - 1, iii - 4, iv - 3
Answer: (A) i - 3, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 2
Teacher's Note:
a) Remember the guest cycle order: Pre-arrival, Arrival, Occupancy, Departure.
b) Link each stage to its main front-office activity to avoid confusion.
13. Given below are two statements, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : One of the chief objectives of Early Childhood Care and Education (ECCE) is to ensure the holistic development of children to enable them to realise their full potential.
Reason (R) : ECCE educators must realise the importance of each child's individual strengths and cultural context to design appropriate and inclusive activities.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Teacher's Note:
a) Check whether the Reason logically explains why the Assertion is true.
b) Here, understanding each child's context is exactly why holistic development is possible.
14. Given below are two statements, labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : Standardisation marks ensure quality and purity of a product.
Reason (R) : The fineness and purity of only gold jewellery is indicated by Hallmark.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Teacher's Note:
a) Hallmark certifies gold, but also silver and platinum jewellery, so restricting it to "only gold" makes (R) false.
b) Always check each part of an Assertion-Reason statement separately before combining them.
SECTION B
(Very Short and Short Answer Questions)
15. (a) A child of which age is called a toddler and how was this term derived ? [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. A child between 2 to 3 years of age is called a toddler.
2. The term is derived from the child's "toddling" or jumpy, unsteady walk while learning to walk independently.
Teacher's Note:
a) The exact age range "2 to 3 years" must be mentioned for full marks.
b) Link the term directly to the wobbly walking pattern of this stage.
OR
(b) Which institutional setting provides substitute care for young children ? Mention any one facility provided by it. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. A Day Care Centre (Crèche) provides substitute care for young children.
2. It provides facilities such as safety and supervision with a secure environment for the children.
Teacher's Note:
a) Any one valid facility such as feeding support, toilet training or a learning environment is acceptable.
b) Clearly name the setting first before describing the facility.
16. (a) Parineeta has completed her internship for her Postgraduate Diploma in Dietetics and is now searching for jobs in hospitals as a dietitian. Suggest two other career options she may consider. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. She can work as a dietitian with health clubs, gymnasiums, wellness centres or slimming clinics.
2. She can also work in catering services for schools, hostels or industrial canteens, or take up teaching and research.
Teacher's Note:
a) Any two distinct career options apart from hospital dietetics score full marks.
b) Avoid repeating "hospital dietitian" since it is already given in the question.
OR
(b) Sonali is an integral part of the medical team in a district hospital. She assesses the nutritional status of patients admitted there and keeps records. Which two methods would she be using to assess the patients' nutritional status ? [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Clinical assessment - obtaining detailed information on health, diet, personal and medication history.
2. Anthropometric measurements - such as height, weight, and head and chest circumference.
Teacher's Note:
a) Biochemical assessment (blood/urine tests) is also an acceptable second method.
b) Name the method first, then briefly explain what it involves.
17. (a) What is Public Health Nutrition ? How is this field different from Clinical Nutrition and Dietetics ? [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Public Health Nutrition is a field concerned with promoting good health by preventing nutrition-related problems in the population through government policies and large-scale, organised programmes.
2. Unlike Clinical Nutrition and Dietetics, which deals with individual patients with an established disease, Public Health Nutrition focuses on the community, especially vulnerable groups, and requires group action.
Teacher's Note:
a) The key contrast word is "population/community" versus "individual patient".
b) Mention that it is multidisciplinary in nature for extra clarity.
OR
(b) Which term is used to refer to micronutrient deficiency ? Name any two important micronutrients whose deficiency is a public health concern. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. The term used is "Hidden Hunger".
2. Iron and Iodine are two important micronutrients whose deficiency is a public health concern in India.
Teacher's Note:
a) Vitamin A and Zinc are also acceptable as the second micronutrient.
b) "Hidden Hunger" must be written exactly as this specific term.
18. Sarabjot is concerned about the elderly people living in his colony. In the annual meeting with the residents of the colony, what two reasons would he give to convince them that the elderly are a vulnerable group ? [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Deteriorating health and decreased physiological reserves make the elderly prone to illness and disabilities such as low vision or loss of mobility.
2. Loneliness, isolation and a sense of being a burden on others often lead to depression, anxiety and financial dependence on family members.
Teacher's Note:
a) Any two of the listed causes (health decline, isolation, financial dependence) are acceptable.
b) Link each reason to a specific consequence for full marks.
19. Daniel, an ECCE-trained teacher, is teaching counting to Grade I students using creative techniques such as rhyme, singing and dancing. Identify two other skills that he could use in his classroom. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. He needs knowledge about the needs and capabilities of young children to plan age-appropriate activities.
2. He should have the capacity to understand individual differences among children and adapt his teaching accordingly.
Teacher's Note:
a) Other valid skills include classroom management, observation skills or flexibility.
b) Focus on skills different from the creative techniques already mentioned in the question.
20. Mention two aspects that affect the care and maintenance of fabrics. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Keeping the material free of physical damage and repairing any damage that occurs during use.
2. Retaining or refreshing its appearance by removing stains and dirt while preserving its texture and visual characteristics.
Teacher's Note:
a) These two broad aspects cover both durability and appearance of fabric.
b) Give short, distinct points rather than overlapping ideas.
21. Present one similarity and one difference between Print media and Information and Communication Technologies as methods of Development Communication. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Similarity: Both are mediums of mass communication used to spread awareness and reach large numbers of people for development communication.
2. Difference: Print media is generally inexpensive and useful mainly for literate people, while ICT is expensive but useful for both literate and illiterate people and gives instant, wider reach.
Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly label which point is the similarity and which is the difference.
b) Any other correct similarity/difference from the syllabus is also acceptable.
22. Yasmeen wants to get zari polishing on her old lehanga from a laundry. From which suitable laundry should she get it done ? How is this laundry different from a household laundry ? [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. She should get it done from a commercial laundry or dry-cleaning shop, as they handle special articles and finishes.
2. A commercial laundry deals with a much larger quantity of clothes and keeps proper records, unlike a household laundry.
3. Commercial laundries use large equipment such as hydro-extractors and have separate sections for sorting, drying and ironing, and require trained personnel, unlike household laundry which uses simple equipment and is done by family members.
Teacher's Note:
a) Name the correct laundry type first, then give the differences.
b) Mention scale, records, equipment or personnel as key difference points.
23. (a) Briefly describe any three consumer rights as laid down under the Consumer Protection Act. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Right to Safety: protects consumers against goods, production processes and services that are hazardous to health or life.
2. Right to be Informed: ensures consumers get correct information about the quality, quantity, purity, standard and price of goods and services, protecting them from unfair trade practices.
3. Right to Choose: gives buyers access to a variety of products at competitive prices so they can choose freely according to their needs.
Teacher's Note:
a) Any three of the six consumer rights (Safety, Information, Choice, Hearing, Redressal, Education) are acceptable.
b) Give a one-line explanation for each right, not just the name.
OR
(b) After being trained in the area of consumer education and protection, in which three areas can an individual develop a career ? [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Working in government organisations like the Bureau of Indian Standards or the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection.
2. Working in voluntary consumer organisations or the consumer division of corporate houses.
3. Working with market research organisations or as content developers/journalists for consumer affairs.
Teacher's Note:
a) Career options can also include working with the National Consumer Helpline or consumer testing laboratories.
b) Name three clearly different sectors rather than variations of the same job.
24. (a) On the completion of 11 years of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme, local leaders in the community are organising a public meeting to raise awareness about its best practices and objectives. Highlight any three key objectives of this scheme that may have contributed to changing mindsets of people. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. To improve the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) and Child Sex Ratio (CSR) in the country.
2. To eliminate gender-biased sex selection and prevent female foeticide.
3. To ensure gender equality, women empowerment and quality education of the girl child, thereby breaking gender stereotypes.
Teacher's Note:
a) Objectives related to safety, survival, education and MHM awareness are also acceptable.
b) Link each objective to how it changes people's attitude towards girls.
OR
(b) Traditional handloom weaver, Champa Devi is in distress due to low source of income as their weaving craft is vanishing slowly. Encourage her by informing any three efforts/initiatives by the Government of India to revive their occupation. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. The Government promotes design innovations and better packaging techniques to make traditional handloom products more marketable.
2. It provides financial assistance/subsidies and sets up training facilities to preserve and refine traditional skills.
3. It promotes direct sales through fairs, exhibitions and e-commerce platforms, along with marketing, branding and export promotion support.
Teacher's Note:
a) Protection of Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) and awards/recognition are also valid points.
b) Frame the answer in an encouraging tone since the question asks you to motivate Champa Devi.
25. The media club of your school is preparing a Public Service Announcement on 'Swachh Bharat Abhiyan'. As a team member, which three key features of Public Service Announcement will you follow while creating this message ? [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Keep the message brief, generally 10 to 60 seconds long, and broadcast it repeatedly between programmes.
2. Present it in simple language with a catchy slogan or jingle so that it is memorable and cost effective.
3. Focus on providing information or suggestions for action that increase public awareness for the common good.
Teacher's Note:
a) Any three features from brevity, simple language, catchy slogans or repeated broadcast are acceptable.
b) Relate each feature briefly to why it makes the message effective.
SECTION C
(Long Answer Questions)
26. The Housekeeping department in a hotel is primarily responsible for providing a healthy environment by ensuring cleanliness and hygiene.
(a) Which two personnel are responsible for cleaning various surfaces and materials in the hotel ?
(b) Name any two cleansing agents used by them.
(c) Which two eco-friendly practices would be adopted by the Housekeeping staff for environmental conservation ? [4 Marks]
Answer:
(a) The Room Attendant and the Public Area Supervisor are responsible for cleaning various surfaces and materials in the hotel.
(b) Soaps and detergents, and disinfectants/sanitizers are commonly used cleansing agents.
(c) Housekeeping staff can use 100% organic and chemical-free linen with a chemical-free laundry cycle, and install rainwater harvesting systems along with waste segregation and recycling to conserve the environment.
Teacher's Note:
a) Other valid personnel include the Executive Housekeeper or Housemen.
b) Eco-friendly practices should clearly show conservation of water, energy or reduction of waste.
27. (a) An NGO working in a resettlement area wants to combat public nutrition problem by providing a healthy snack to children living there.
(i) Anticipate which strategy will it use to meet the nutritional needs of these children.
(ii) Provide any two advantages and any one disadvantage of using this strategy. [4 Marks]
Answer:
(i) The NGO will use a diet or food-based strategy to meet the children's nutritional needs.
(ii) Advantages: 1. It is a preventive strategy that uses food to overcome and prevent multiple micronutrient deficiencies simultaneously. 2. It is safe, cost-effective, sustainable and can be adapted to different cultural and dietary traditions.
Disadvantage: It does not necessarily create awareness in the population about the importance of nutrition, so it may not lead to long-term dietary or behavioural change.
Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly separate advantages and the disadvantage in your answer.
b) "Diet/food-based strategy" is the exact key term expected for the strategy.
OR
(b) Some of the states in India, like Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu, continue to face the problem of 'Iodine Deficiency Disorders (IDD)' due to inadequate dietary intake of iodine by the people.
(i) Recognise the hormone whose secretion decreases due to iodine deficiency.
(ii) Mention any three symptoms seen in individuals suffering from IDD. [4 Marks]
Answer:
(i) Thyroxine (thyroid hormone) secretion decreases due to iodine deficiency.
(ii) 1. Enlarged thyroid gland (goitre) or swelling in the neck area. 2. In children, cretinism, dwarfism or stunted physical and mental growth. 3. During pregnancy, mental retardation, congenital abnormalities in the foetus, or even stillbirth/abortion.
Teacher's Note:
a) Hypothyroidism and impaired mental function are also acceptable symptoms.
b) Remember goitre as the most classic and commonly tested symptom of IDD.
28. In the fashion industry, fashion professionals conceptualise unique designs to meet consumer demands.
(a) Discuss any two roles of a fashion merchandiser.
(b) Outline any two ways of market segmentation. [4 Marks]
Answer:
(a) 1. In manufacturing, the merchandiser applies knowledge of fabric and garment construction to convert a designer's vision into a producible reality within a target price. 2. In promoting, the merchandiser promotes the designer's products to potential buyers and stores through fashion shows and visual merchandising.
(b) 1. Demographic segmentation divides the market based on population, age, sex, occupation, education and income. 2. Geographic segmentation divides the market based on the climate of different cities, states and regions.
Teacher's Note:
a) Buying and selling are other valid roles of a fashion merchandiser.
b) Psychographic and behavioural segmentation are also acceptable market segmentation types.
29. (a) Define phytochemicals.
(b) List any three skills that a professional clinical nutritionist/dietitian must possess. [4 Marks]
Answer:
(a) Phytochemicals are non-nutrient constituents present in foods that have physiological or biological activity influencing health; they are also called bioactive compounds.
(b) 1. Ability to assess nutritional status and physiological changes in disease conditions. 2. Skill in planning and modifying diets according to patient needs. 3. Good diet counselling and communication skills to guide patients effectively.
Teacher's Note:
a) Technical, administrative and research skills are also acceptable as the third point.
b) The definition of phytochemicals must mention "non-nutrient" and "bioactive compounds" as key terms.
30. (a) Frozen peas and canned fruits are preserved foods. Elaborate any other three ways by which processed foods can be classified on the basis of extent and type of processing.
(b) Give any two examples of non-perishable foods. [4 Marks]
Answer:
(a) 1. Minimally processed foods, such as shelled peas or cut vegetables, undergo processes like cleaning, trimming or refrigeration to retain freshness. 2. Manufactured foods, such as pickles and jams, lose the original characteristics of raw material and use salt, sugar or preservatives. 3. Formulated foods, such as bread and biscuits, are made by mixing and processing several ingredients to give shelf-stable products.
(b) Rice and wheat are examples of non-perishable foods.
Teacher's Note:
a) Food derivatives, functional foods and medical foods are other valid categories.
b) Pulses, sugar and whole spices are also acceptable as non-perishable food examples.
31. (a) HACCP ensures food safety by identifying hazards. Give its full form.
(b) Describe four levels of food standards. [5 Marks]
Answer:
1. HACCP stands for Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points.
2. Company Standards: prepared by a company for its own use, usually copying national standards.
3. National Standards: issued by a national standards body, such as the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
4. Regional Standards: prepared by regional groups of countries with similar geography or climate through their own standardisation bodies.
5. International Standards: published by bodies such as the International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO) and the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC).
Teacher's Note:
a) Always give the exact full form of HACCP as the first step, worth 1 mark separately.
b) Present the four levels in order from company to international standards for clarity.
32. (a) A textile designer uses Munsell colour wheel while designing fabrics. Predict any two aspects of colour which she/he might use in designing and also elaborate the classification of colours. [5 Marks]
Answer:
1. Two aspects of colour are Hue (the name of the colour) and Value (its lightness or darkness, seen as tint or shade).
2. Primary colours cannot be made by mixing any other colours; examples are red, yellow and blue.
3. Secondary colours are made by mixing two primary colours, such as blue and yellow making green, blue and red making purple, and red and yellow making orange.
4. Tertiary colours are made by mixing one primary colour with an adjacent secondary colour on the colour wheel, such as red and orange making red-orange, or yellow and green making yellow-green.
5. Together, these three groups form the complete twelve-colour Munsell/colour wheel used by textile designers.
Teacher's Note:
a) Chroma/Intensity can also be given as the second aspect of colour instead of Value.
b) A labelled colour wheel diagram earns extra credit if drawn correctly.
OR
(b) Principles of design are the rules that govern how design elements are combined in the most appropriate way. Name any four principles of design used to produce an appealing dress and briefly describe any three of them. [5 Marks]
Answer:
1. Four principles of design are Proportion, Balance, Emphasis and Rhythm (Harmony/Unity is a fifth valid option).
2. Proportion is the relation of one part of a garment to another, generally based on the Golden Mean, so that divisions blend without being too obvious.
3. Balance is the equal distribution of visual weight from the centre of the garment; it can be formal/symmetrical, where both sides are identical and give stability, or informal/asymmetrical, where both sides differ and add interest.
4. Emphasis is the focal point of the garment that attracts the viewer's eye, created through contrasting colours, unusual shapes, lines or accessories to highlight positive features.
Teacher's Note:
a) Name exactly four principles first, then describe only three in detail as asked.
b) Give at least one practical example (e.g. golden mean ratio, symmetrical yoke) for each principle described.
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FAQs
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