Previous Year Question Papers for Class 12 Home Science
Access comprehensive previous year question papers for Class 12 Home Science using the CBSE Class 12 Home Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 69. Designed to align with the 2026-27 CBSE academic guidelines, these solved papers help students assess their exam readiness and understand official marking schemes.
Practice Class 12 Home Science Exam Papers
Access the complete question paper PDF for Class 12 Home Science below. Regular practice with these targeted exam papers builds familiarity with standard question patterns and helps secure higher marks in final evaluations.
SECTION A
(Multiple Choice Questions)
1. Which of the following option is most suitable for a career in the field of clinical nutrition ? [1 Mark]
(A) Quality control manager
(B) Specialist in HACCP
(C) Diet consultant
(D) Sensory evaluator
Answer: (C) Diet consultant
Teacher's Note:
a) Clinical nutrition careers focus on individual patient diet planning.
b) Remember HACCP and sensory evaluation are related to food safety and quality control, not clinical nutrition.
2. Select the traditional handicraft of Odisha. [1 Mark]
(A) Channapatna dolls
(B) Shola craft
(C) Bamboo craft
(D) Warli painting
Answer: (B) Shola craft
Teacher's Note:
a) Shola craft uses the pith of the shola plant, famous in Odisha and West Bengal.
b) Do not confuse with Channapatna dolls (Karnataka) or Warli painting (Maharashtra).
3. Identify the Danger Zone temperature range at which bacteria grow on food stuffs. [1 Mark]
(A) 5 - 60°C
(B) 5 - 60°F
(C) 15 - 100°C
(D) 15 - 100°F
Answer: (A) 5 - 60°C
Teacher's Note:
a) The Danger Zone is the temperature range where bacteria multiply fastest.
b) Always remember this range is in Celsius, not Fahrenheit.
4. Where was the Sustainable Access in Rural India (SARI) project started ? [1 Mark]
(A) Assam
(B) Gujarat
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Haryana
Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu
Teacher's Note:
a) SARI is an ICT-based rural development initiative.
b) Link this with development communication examples using technology.
5. Attempt ANY ONE from (a) and (b) given below:
(a) Annapurna scheme is under which nutrition programme operating in India ? [1 Mark]
(A) Nutrient Deficiency Control Programmes
(B) Food Supplementation Programmes
(C) ICDS
(D) Food Security Programmes
Answer: (D) Food Security Programmes
Teacher's Note:
a) Annapurna scheme provides free food grains to destitute elderly persons.
b) It falls under schemes ensuring food security, not direct supplementation.
OR
(b) Which nutrient deficiency is targeted by National Prophylaxis Programme for Prevention of Blindness ? [1 Mark]
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Iron
(C) Iodine
(D) Protein
Answer: (A) Vitamin A
Teacher's Note:
a) Vitamin A deficiency causes night blindness and xerophthalmia.
b) This programme distributes Vitamin A supplements to children.
6. In the interest of consumers, 'Consumer Voice' magazine is a publication of which country ? [1 Mark]
(A) Australia
(B) India
(C) United States of America
(D) Nepal
Answer: (B) India
Teacher's Note:
a) 'Consumer Voice' is published by an Indian consumer organisation.
b) Remember it promotes consumer awareness and rights in India.
7. Section 48 of which of the following Act states that creches should be maintained if more than thirty women are employed in an industry or factory ? [1 Mark]
(A) The Plantations Labour Act
(B) The Maternity Benefit Act
(C) The Factories Act
(D) The Mines Act
Answer: (C) The Factories Act
Teacher's Note:
a) The Factories Act, 1948, Section 48 mandates creche facilities.
b) Do not confuse this with the Maternity Benefit Act, which deals with maternity leave.
8. Choose the correct pair of food hazard with its example : [1 Mark]
(A) Visible biological hazard : Bacteria
(B) Invisible microbiological hazard : Worms
(C) Chemical hazard : Bone fragments
(D) Physical hazard : Hair
Answer: (D) Physical hazard : Hair
Teacher's Note:
a) Physical hazards include hair, glass, stones and bone fragments.
b) Bacteria are invisible microbiological hazards, not visible ones.
9. All India Institutes of Medical Sciences provide which level of health care services in India ? [1 Mark]
(A) Primary
(B) Tertiary
(C) Secondary
(D) Intermediary
Answer: (B) Tertiary
Teacher's Note:
a) AIIMS provides specialised and super-specialised tertiary care.
b) Primary care is at sub-centres and PHCs, secondary at district hospitals.
10. Which method of washing is used in a front loading washing machine for clothes ? [1 Mark]
(A) Tumbling
(B) Agitation
(C) Spinning
(D) Pulsation
Answer: (A) Tumbling
Teacher's Note:
a) Front loading machines use tumbling action, which is gentle on clothes.
b) Top loading machines use agitation or pulsation methods.
11. Match the organisation of food safety and quality given in List-I with its description in List-II. [1 Mark]
List-I (Organisation): i. CAC, ii. ISO, iii. WTO, iv. BIS
List-II (Description): 1. Worldwide non-governmental federation, 2. Publishes 'Food Code' document, 3. Voluntary Product Certification of India, 4. Established in 1995 for administering trade agreements in the world
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) i - 4, ii - 3, iii - 2, iv - 1
(B) i - 3, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 2
(C) i - 2, ii - 1, iii - 4, iv - 3
(D) i - 3, ii - 2, iii - 4, iv - 1
Answer: (C) i - 2, ii - 1, iii - 4, iv - 3
Teacher's Note:
a) CAC (Codex Alimentarius Commission) publishes the Food Code.
b) ISO is a worldwide non-governmental body; WTO was set up in 1995; BIS gives voluntary certification in India.
12. Match the Method of Development Communication given in List-I with its example in List-II. [1 Mark]
List-I (Method of Development Communication): i. Campaign, ii. Community radio, iii. Information and Communication Technology, iv. Print media
List-II (Example): 1. Tele-centre, 2. Hindustan Times - Project Village Chhatera, 3. Jago Grahak Jago, 4. Banasthali Vidyapith
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) i - 4, ii - 3, iii - 2, iv - 1
(B) i - 3, ii - 1, iii - 4, iv - 2
(C) i - 2, ii - 3, iii - 1, iv - 4
(D) i - 3, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 2
Answer: (D) i - 3, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 2
Teacher's Note:
a) 'Jago Grahak Jago' is a well-known consumer awareness campaign.
b) Banasthali Vidyapith is linked with community radio initiatives.
13. Identify the desirable qualities in a caretaker working in an Anganwadi. [1 Mark]
(i) Interest in children and their development
(ii) Unwilling to answer children's queries
(iii) Inability to understand individual differences
(iv) Enthusiastic and energetic
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) (i) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (ii) and (iv)
Answer: (A) (i) and (iv)
Teacher's Note:
a) A good caretaker must be interested in children, enthusiastic and energetic.
b) Unwillingness to answer queries and inability to understand differences are undesirable traits.
14. Attempt ANY ONE from (a) and (b) given below:
(a) Which processes are used in minimally processed foods to retain the quality of fresh foods ? [1 Mark]
(i) Shelling
(ii) Storage at low refrigeration temperature
(iii) Hydrogenation
(iv) Baking at high temperature
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) (i) and (iii)
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (B) (i) and (ii)
Teacher's Note:
a) Minimal processing includes shelling and low temperature storage to retain freshness.
b) Hydrogenation and high temperature baking are more intensive processing methods.
OR
(b) Which factors have increased the demand of readymade foods in India ? [1 Mark]
(i) Deficit in agriculture
(ii) To decrease the nutritive value of diet
(iii) Catering to the needs of working women
(iv) Changes in lifestyle
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iv)
Answer: (C) (iii) and (iv)
Teacher's Note:
a) Working women's needs and changing lifestyles drive readymade food demand.
b) Agricultural deficit and decreasing nutritive value are not reasons for this demand.
SECTION B
(Case Study-Based Questions)
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions no. 15 to 18.
Many families in our country are unable to meet even the basic needs of their members and / or access as well as utilise the various services provided by other structures of the society due to various reasons, one of them being lack of resources, especially financial. Further, many children, youth and elderly are separated from their families and are left to cope on their own. By themselves, they find it difficult to meet their own needs.
15. In the context of institutes/programmes for vulnerable groups, choose the correct pair : [1 Mark]
(A) CARA : Organising rallies
(B) Promotion of Adventure : Child Rights Convention
(C) Observation Home : A kind of home for Children
(D) Promotion of National Integration : Family-based care
Answer: (C) Observation Home : A kind of home for Children
Teacher's Note:
a) Observation Homes are set up under the Juvenile Justice Act for children.
b) CARA deals with adoption, not rallies.
16. Match the initiatives for children, youth and elderly given in List-I with their related year in List-II : [1 Mark]
List-I (Initiative): i. SOS Children's Villages, ii. National Youth Policy, iii. National Policy for Older Persons, iv. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act
List-II (Year): 1. 2000, 2015, 2. 1999, 3. 2003, 2014, 4. 1964
Choose the correct option from the following :
(A) i - 4, ii - 3, iii - 2, iv - 1
(B) i - 3, ii - 4, iii - 1, iv - 2
(C) i - 2, ii - 1, iii - 4, iv - 3
(D) i - 3, ii - 1, iii - 2, iv - 4
Answer: (A) i - 4, ii - 3, iii - 2, iv - 1
Teacher's Note:
a) SOS Children's Villages started in 1964; National Youth Policy in 2003 and 2014.
b) National Policy for Older Persons was in 1999; Juvenile Justice Act was amended in 2000 and 2015.
17. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : Within the broad category 'Youth', there are some groups who are especially vulnerable.
Reason (R) : Rural and tribal youth are vulnerable groups.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Teacher's Note:
a) Rural and tribal youth face special vulnerabilities like poverty and lack of access to opportunities.
b) The reason directly explains why some youth groups are especially vulnerable.
18. Given below are two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : It is necessary to provide for the economic and health needs of the elderly to create a conducive social milieu.
Reason (R) : In India, Senior Citizens constitute persons in the age group of 50 years and above.
Select the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
Teacher's Note:
a) In India, Senior Citizens are those aged 60 years and above, not 50.
b) The assertion about needs of elderly remains correct despite the wrong reason.
SECTION C
(Short Answer Questions)
19. (a) 'Poshan Abhiyaan monitors and reviews the implementation of strategies to address the nutritional problems'. Justify this statement by giving any two short term interventions. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) covers all vulnerable children aged 0-6 years along with pregnant and lactating mothers.
2. Control of micronutrient deficiencies, such as iron, vitamin A, folic acid and iodine, is done through supplementation and free tablet distribution among vulnerable groups.
Teacher's Note:
a) Fortification of essential foods is another valid short term intervention.
b) Focus on interventions that give quick, visible results, unlike long term structural changes.
OR
(b) A doctor has diagnosed a fall in haemoglobin levels of an adolescent girl. Which nutritional deficiency disorder does it indicate ? List any two other symptoms which may be seen in her in this disorder. [2 Marks]
Answer: This indicates Iron Deficiency Anemia (IDA). Two other symptoms are: 1. Shortness of breath or breathlessness. 2. Fatigue and lethargy along with general pallor.
Teacher's Note:
a) Falling haemoglobin is the key clue pointing to iron deficiency anemia.
b) Paleness of conjunctiva, tongue or nail beds is another accepted symptom.
20. Few children of a village have become victims of a natural calamity and are without home. Besides these, which other four types of vulnerable children need care and protection ? [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Abandoned children.
2. Street children.
3. Children with special needs (mentally or physically challenged).
4. Child labourers.
Teacher's Note:
a) Other valid answers include orphans, trafficked children and runaway children.
b) Focus on categories defined under the Juvenile Justice Act for full marks.
21. What is meant by food fortification ? Give its two examples. [2 Marks]
Answer: Food fortification is the industrial process of adding essential nutrients that are lacking in food stuffs or condiments, to ensure minimum dietary requirements are met. Examples: 1. Iodised salt. 2. Vitamin A and D added to milk.
Teacher's Note:
a) Folic acid added to flour and iron added to wheat/rice are other valid examples.
b) Remember fortification adds nutrients that are naturally missing or insufficient.
22. By using different types of lines in various combinations on fabrics, name four basic groups of shapes which can be formed, their names. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Natural shapes.
2. Stylised shapes.
3. Geometric shapes.
4. Abstract shapes.
Teacher's Note:
a) These four groups are basic categories used in fabric and garment design.
b) Remember that combinations of lines create the visual effect of these shapes.
23. How is ironing different from hot pressing of clothes ? Give any two differences. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Ironing smoothens wrinkles created during use or washing, while hot pressing puts creases in sleeves, trousers and pleated garments using heat and pressure.
2. Ironing is done on light clothes with a back-and-forth motion, while hot pressing is done on both light and heavy clothes with an up-and-down pressing motion.
Teacher's Note:
a) Remember pressing uses a stationary downward pressure, unlike ironing's sliding motion.
b) Hot pressing is commonly used for tailored garments needing sharp creases.
24. A student is curious to learn about the major developments in food processing and technology that occurred before the 20th century. In this context, name two researchers who made a significant contribution in those times. Also name the process developed by each one of them. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Nicolas Appert developed the process of canning.
2. Louis Pasteur developed the process of pasteurization.
Teacher's Note:
a) Remember to pair each researcher correctly with their invented process.
b) Canning preserves food in sealed containers, while pasteurization kills harmful microbes using heat.
25. (a) Differentiate between underweight and wasting. [2 Marks]
Answer: A person is said to be underweight when his/her body weight is less than adequate for his/her age. Wasting is when weight is not adequate relative to height, that is, low weight for height.
Teacher's Note:
a) Underweight is age-related, while wasting is height-related.
b) Both are indicators of Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM).
OR
(b) Write the full form of PEM and describe it briefly. [2 Marks]
Answer: PEM stands for Protein Energy Malnutrition. It is caused by inadequate intake of macronutrients (energy and protein) due to poverty, infections or chronic illness. Its types are Marasmus (deficiency of food and energy) and Kwashiorkor (deficiency of protein), with symptoms like underweight, wasting and stunting.
Teacher's Note:
a) Children are at greatest risk, but PEM can also occur in the elderly and in certain diseases.
b) PEM is assessed using anthropometric measurements like weight and height.
26. (a) Sumera lived in a remote village and was never sent to school. Now her parents want to admit her in a residential school. Suggest the name of the scheme by the Government of India meant for such girls. Explain any two other features of this scheme. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. The scheme is Kasturba Gandhi Balika Vidyalaya (KGBV).
2. It provides free school education to dropout girls from rural and disadvantaged sections of society.
3. It enrols girls from class VI (upper primary) up to class XII (senior secondary) and helps in implementing the Right to Education Act.
Teacher's Note:
a) KGBV works under Samagra Shiksha (earlier Sarva Shiksha Abhiyaan).
b) It aims to enhance literacy and bridge the gender gap in education.
OR
(b) Jacob wants to set up a suitable workplace for his employees in his own manufacturing company. Advise him to use ergonomics in designing workplaces by giving the definition of ergonomics and its two benefits. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Ergonomics is the study of humans at work, applying human biological sciences with engineering to achieve optimum mutual adjustment between the worker and the work, measured in terms of efficiency and well-being.
2. It reduces the risk of injury and accidents at the workplace.
3. It increases productivity and efficiency of workers.
Teacher's Note:
a) The word 'ergonomics' comes from Greek words 'ergon' (work) and 'nomics' (natural laws).
b) Other benefits include reduced absenteeism and improved worker morale.
27. Provide six reasons how a pre-school environment is beneficial for young children's development. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. It follows a child-centred, play-way approach that makes learning enjoyable.
2. Children enjoy the company of peers and learn socialisation skills.
3. It makes children independent, enabling them to do tasks like eating on their own.
4. It is especially beneficial for children with special needs who require additional support.
5. It enhances curiosity, creativity and exploration of new environments and materials.
6. It prepares children for formal schooling and develops communication skills.
Teacher's Note:
a) Mention holistic development and emotional management as additional points if space allows.
b) Give exactly six clear points since the question specifically asks for six reasons.
28. (a) Why is it important for DCJ professionals to be well versed in computer skills ? [1 Mark]
(b) In which two areas can a Development Journalist work ? [1 Mark]
(c) Name the umbrella term that includes computer hardware and software, digital broadcast, etc. [1 Mark]
Answer:
(a) DCJ professionals need computer skills to write and present technical reports, operate video/radio production software, design graphics and increase overall work efficiency.
(b) A Development Journalist can work in Traditional Media (print/TV/radio) and Digital Media (online news/blogs/social media/podcasts).
(c) The umbrella term is Information and Communication Technologies (ICT).
Teacher's Note:
a) ICT covers all technology used for communication, storage and broadcast of information.
b) Development journalists can also work in research, teaching or with NGOs and government agencies.
29. (a) Enlist six features of Hospital laundry. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. It takes care of hygiene, cleanliness and disinfection/sterilization of linen.
2. Most articles are cotton, with only blankets being woollen.
3. Articles are dyed in colours specific to the hospital and department, using dyes with excellent wash-fastness.
4. Stubborn stains may not always be noticed or removed.
5. Finishing processes like starching and whitening are usually not included.
6. High-capacity washers and hydroextractors are used to handle the large volume of work.
Teacher's Note:
a) Some hospitals use disposables in infection-prone areas, destroyed later by burning.
b) Ironing and pressing in hospital laundry may not always be done to perfection.
OR
(b) Mention six work operations which are performed by an automatic washing machine. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Filling up water.
2. Controlling water level.
3. Regulating water temperature.
4. Washing.
5. Rinsing.
6. Water extraction.
Teacher's Note:
a) These operations occur in sequence automatically in modern washing machines.
b) Remember that water extraction is usually done through spinning at the end of the cycle.
SECTION D
(Long Answer Questions)
30. (a) Which type of diet should be given to a person who has dentures ? Give any two examples of this diet. [2 Marks]
(b) Describe any two ways of feeding a patient. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. A person with dentures should be given a Mechanical Soft Diet. Examples include mashed or pureed fruits and vegetables, and well-cooked dal, rice or khichri.
2. Oral feeding (feeding by mouth) is the best and most preferred way as it is nutritionally adequate.
3. Tube feeding is introduced through the nose or stomach and is preferred when the gastrointestinal tract is functional but the patient cannot eat normally.
Teacher's Note:
a) Intravenous feeding, given through a vein, is another accepted way for unconscious patients.
b) Mechanical soft diet requires foods that need minimal chewing, suitable for denture wearers.
31. Your grandmother has purchased apples from a street vendor, who cheated her by weighing less.
(a) By which four ways can a fruit and vegetable vendor deceive his customers using defective weights and measures ? [2 Marks]
(b) As an alert consumer, what are her two responsibilities in this context ? [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Using weights that are hollow from below or tampered with.
2. Using stones instead of standard weights.
3. Sticking a magnet to the bottom of the weighing pan.
4. Using an electronic weighing machine where the pointer is not centred or is defective.
5. As a responsibility, she should purchase goods weighed only on verified scale weights.
6. She should be vigilant, watch the weighing process carefully and report defaulting vendors to authorities.
Teacher's Note:
a) Vendors may also place additional rings on one side of a manual balance to cheat customers.
b) Consumers should be aware of the National Consumer Helpline for reporting such issues.
32. (a) (i) "Food safety challenges have changed globally as well as in India, and Food Quality and Food Safety have gained tremendous importance". In this context, highlight two significant reasons of importance of Food Quality and Safety. [2 Marks]
(ii) Identify two common food-borne pathogens that can spread infection in healthy individuals. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. Changing lifestyles, diverse eating habits and a large population increase the risk of food contamination, making safety measures critical.
2. Rising demand for processed and packaged foods requires strict quality and safety controls to prevent food-borne illnesses.
3. Common food-borne pathogens include Salmonella and Escherichia coli (E. coli).
Teacher's Note:
a) Other pathogens like Staphylococcus aureus and Norovirus are also acceptable answers.
b) Link food safety importance to India's participation in international trade through WTO standards.
OR
(b) (i) What is the full name of the comprehensive law that consolidated various old food laws in India ? When was it enacted ? [2 Marks]
(ii) A food manufacturing company is establishing a Food Safety Management System. Describe two systems the company can use to ensure food safety and quality. [2 Marks]
Answer:
1. The comprehensive law is the Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA), enacted in 2006.
2. Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) ensure products are safe by minimising or eliminating contamination and false labelling.
3. Hazard Analysis Critical Control Points (HACCP) is a preventive approach that identifies critical control points in the production process to prevent, eliminate or reduce food safety hazards.
Teacher's Note:
a) Good Handling Practices (GHP) is another valid system covering farm-to-consumer safety.
b) Remember FSSA year 2006 and the systems GMP, GHP and HACCP for full marks.
33. (a) A fashion design team has been tasked with creating a new apparel collection inspired by the Golden Mean. Describe any three ways how they would integrate the principles of proportion into their design process, with a focus on Golden Mean. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Garment proportion: they can use golden mean ratios like 3:5:8, so in a skirt-blouse set, the blouse represents 3 parts and skirt 5 parts, combining to 8.
2. Colour proportion: different colour proportions based on the golden mean can be created between a shirt and pant or saree and blouse.
3. Texture proportion: heavy or bulky textures should be avoided for thin, short people, and clinging textures avoided for stout figures, to maintain proportion.
Teacher's Note:
a) Proportion of shape and form, such as sizing prints according to the wearer, is another valid way.
b) The Golden Mean ratio creates visually pleasing proportion in garment design.
(b) They have been asked to use colour value 0 and 10 from a Grey Scale. What do these equivalent values represent ? [1 Mark]
Answer: On the Grey Scale, value 0 represents black and value 10 represents white.
Teacher's Note:
a) The Grey Scale ranges from black (0) to white (10) through shades of grey.
b) This scale is used to measure lightness and darkness of colour values.
34. (a) Kartik's family has reserved a 3-night stay at a resort for their vacation.
As the Front Office Manager, list down the actions to be taken during each stage of 'Guest cycle' to ensure good hospitality services for Kartik's family. Which two staff members/personnel would assist the Front Office Manager in this work ? [5 Marks]
Answer:
1. Pre-arrival stage: quoting room rates, checking room availability and reserving the room for the family.
2. Arrival stage: registering the guests on check-in, welcoming them, allocating rooms and handing over keys.
3. Occupancy stage: providing various services as per requirements, ensuring guest security and satisfaction throughout the stay.
4. Departure stage: check-out from the resort, clearance of the bill, handing over the room key and taking feedback from the family.
5. Staff members who would assist include the Front Office Cashier and the Receptionist (Front Office Agent).
Teacher's Note:
a) The Bell Captain and Bellboy also assist with luggage handling during arrival and departure.
b) Remember the four stages of the guest cycle in correct sequence: pre-arrival, arrival, occupancy, departure.
OR
(b) 'Fresh Cake and Cafe', a new bakery and coffee shop is opened in your city. Its Food and Beverage Department has the responsibility for the sale of food and beverages.
Name any two service departments related to it. Describe four functions/roles of any one of these service departments. [5 Marks]
Answer:
1. Two related service departments are the Kitchen and the Restaurant/Coffee shop.
2. The Restaurant/Coffee shop is a commercial facility that provides food and beverages to customers, equipped with dining tables, crockery and cutlery suited to the establishment's standards.
3. Restaurant personnel coordinate closely with the kitchen to ensure timely supply of food orders to guests.
4. Staff maintain a standard of cleanliness, hygiene and courteous service to guests.
5. The Restaurant Manager is responsible for overall functioning, while the Head Waiter leads a team of waiters who serve the food.
Teacher's Note:
a) Kitchen Stewarding, which handles cleanliness and issue of crockery, is another valid service department.
b) Focus on describing roles of staff hierarchy for full marks in this part.
35. Blazer jackets, hot pants, polo shirts and baggy pants are displayed in a fashion store for sale.
(a) Classify and differentiate them as per fashion terms used in the fashion industry. [2 Marks]
Answer: Blazer jackets and polo shirts are Classics/Styles, which are timeless and remain accepted for a long time due to simplicity of design. Hot pants and baggy pants are Fads, which are temporary, short-lived fashions that last only a single season and lack lasting design strength.
Teacher's Note:
a) Classics remain in demand across seasons, unlike fads that fade quickly.
b) Remember examples: blazers and polo shirts are classics; hot pants and baggy pants are fads.
(b) Which three career opportunities will be available to fashion design professionals in this fashion store ? Mention any one role for each of them. [3 Marks]
Answer:
1. Visual Merchandise Designer: designs window and in-store displays to attract customers.
2. Fashion Designer: creates designs for clothing and works with manufacturers or manages own fashion labels.
3. Interior Designer: creates the settings and layout of the fashion store, combining beauty and functionality.
Teacher's Note:
a) Visual merchandisers also style mannequins and arrange store merchandise.
b) Fashion designers may also work as fashion stylists or in fashion forecasting.
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The CBSE Class 12 Home Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 69 is available for download on StudiesToday.com. It includes complete set with all sections so that Class 12 students can practice with the exact same paper that came in the CBSE exams.
Yes, the solutions for CBSE Class 12 Home Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 69 are prepared by subject matter experts as per official marking scheme. Class 12 students will understand the structure of answers and 'step-marks' methodology Home Science.
Solving previous year papers like CBSE Class 12 Home Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 69 is important to understand repeat themes and question difficulty levels of Home Science. It helps Class 12 students to test their time management skills too.
Yes, where applicable, CBSE Class 12 Home Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 69 is available in both English and Hindi mediums. All students from Class 12 can access Home Science study material in their preferred language.
No, all previous year question papers on StudiesToday, including CBSE Class 12 Home Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 69, are provided free of charge in mobile-friendly PDF.