CBSE Class 12 Legal Studies Sample Paper 2026 27 with Solutions PDF Download

SECTION A

1. Ramaswamy, an environmental researcher, is called by the court during a PIL on Delhi's air pollution to provide expert input. He is not a party to the case. What role is he performing? [1 Mark]
(A) Advocate General
(B) Amicus Curiae
(C) Public Prosecutor
(D) Attorney General

Answer: (B) Amicus Curiae

Teacher's Note:
a) Amicus curiae literally means "friend of the court" and assists with expert or legal opinion without being a party.
b) Do not confuse this with the Advocate General, who is the chief legal advisor of a State Government.

2. Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options that follow.
Assertion (A): Mediation may be used to resolve disputes where the parties wish to preserve their relationship.
Reason (R): In mediation, the neutral third person facilitates the discussion but does not decide the outcome of the dispute. [1 Mark]
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Teacher's Note:
a) The mediator only facilitates dialogue and never imposes a winner or loser.
b) This non-adversarial nature helps parties preserve their relationship, which is why R correctly explains A.

3. Two brothers, Aman and Balwinder, have filed a civil suit regarding ownership of a property. During the proceedings, the court finds that the dispute may be resolved through mediation. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the use of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) in such a situation? [1 Mark]
(A) The court cannot refer the dispute to ADR if an earlier attempt at settlement has failed.
(B) The court may refer the dispute to an appropriate ADR mechanism when there appears to be a possibility of settlement.
(C) The court must decide the dispute itself once the civil suit has been instituted.
(D) The court may refer the dispute to ADR only when both parties jointly request such a reference.

Answer: (B) The court may refer the dispute to an appropriate ADR mechanism when there appears to be a possibility of settlement.

Teacher's Note:
a) Section 89 of the CPC allows courts to refer suitable disputes to ADR even without a joint request.
b) The key trigger is the court's own assessment of a possibility of settlement.

4. A citizen discovers that a central government minister has allegedly misused public funds allocated for a development project. Which of the following statements correctly describes the authority that should handle her/his complaint? [1 Mark]
(A) The complaint should be investigated by the Lokpal, as it is empowered to inquire into allegations of corruption against the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, MPs, and other central government officials.
(B) The complaint should be investigated by the Supreme Court, since it has the ultimate authority over all ministers.
(C) The complaint can be investigated by any state-level Lokayukta, as it deals with public servants.
(D) The complaint should wait until a formal police report is filed, as Lokpal cannot act independently.

Answer: (A) The complaint should be investigated by the Lokpal, as it is empowered to inquire into allegations of corruption against the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, MPs, and other central government officials.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Lokpal is the anti-corruption ombudsman for central government functionaries.
b) State-level Lokayuktas deal with state government officials, not central ministers.

5. Country Xenia is not a member of the Rome Statute. Its military commander is alleged to have committed war crimes in neighbouring country, Yuria, which is a signatory to the Rome Statute. Victims and human rights organisations approach the International Criminal Court (ICC) seeking prosecution of the military commander.
From the statements given below, identify the one that correctly explains the ICC's jurisdiction in this situation? [1 Mark]
(A) The ICC may exercise jurisdiction because the alleged crimes were committed in the territory of Yuria, a State Party to the Rome Statute.
(B) The ICC cannot exercise jurisdiction because the alleged offender is a national of Xenia, which is not a member of the Rome Statute.
(C) The ICC may exercise jurisdiction only if both Xenia and Yuria are members of the Rome Statute.
(D) The ICC may exercise jurisdiction only if Xenia voluntarily accepts the jurisdiction of the ICC.

Answer: (A) The ICC may exercise jurisdiction because the alleged crimes were committed in the territory of Yuria, a State Party to the Rome Statute.

Teacher's Note:
a) ICC jurisdiction can be based either on the territory where the crime occurred or on the nationality of the accused.
b) Since Yuria is a State Party, territorial jurisdiction applies even though Xenia itself is not a member.

6. Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options that follow.
Assertion (A): International law regulates relations between sovereign states.
Reason (R): International law is a set of rules binding on all states and can be enforced. [1 Mark]
(A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (C) A is true, but R is false

Teacher's Note:
a) International law does regulate inter-state relations, so A is correct.
b) Its rules rest largely on reciprocity and self-interest rather than a centralised enforcement mechanism, so R is false.

7. Country X and Country Y share a river where both countries have consistently followed a practice of restricting fishing during breeding season. The practice has been generally observed by States in the region and is accepted as a legal obligation. Recently, Country X allowed private companies to fish during the restricted period, arguing that the practice is outdated and no longer reflects its current economic needs. Country Y protests and wants the customary rule enforced.
Which of the following statements best reflects the legal position under international law? [1 Mark]
(A) Country X is expected to follow the customary international law rule as long as the rule remains recognised as legally binding.
(B) Country X can ignore the rule because customary international law is not legally binding.
(C) Country Y cannot demand compliance because customary international law applies only when States have expressly agreed to it.
(D) Both countries can choose whether to follow the customary rule according to their convenience.

Answer: (A) Country X is expected to follow the customary international law rule as long as the rule remains recognised as legally binding.

Teacher's Note:
a) Customary international law arises from consistent state practice accepted as legally binding (opinio juris).
b) A state cannot unilaterally opt out of a settled customary rule merely because it becomes inconvenient.

8. Rita has completed her LL.B. from a recognised university and wishes to represent clients before courts in India. Which of the following correctly describes the requirements she must fulfil to practise as an advocate? [1 Mark]
(A) She must register herself with the Bar Council of India.
(B) She must enrol with a State Bar Council and fulfil the prescribed requirements for obtaining a Certificate of Practice.
(C) She must enrol with a State Bar Council and obtain prior approval from a senior advocate before appearing in court.
(D) She must complete a period of legal practice under a senior advocate before she can enrol with a State Bar Council.

Answer: (B) She must enrol with a State Bar Council and fulfil the prescribed requirements for obtaining a Certificate of Practice.

Teacher's Note:
a) Enrolment happens with the State Bar Council, not directly with the Bar Council of India.
b) There is no requirement of prior approval from a senior advocate to appear in court.

9. In relation to legal education, the Bar Council of India is responsible for: [1 Mark]
(A) Framing the syllabus for every law course independently
(B) Inspecting and recognising law colleges and universities
(C) Conducting joint entrance examinations for admission to law courses
(D) Granting scholarships to students pursuing legal education

Answer: (B) Inspecting and recognising law colleges and universities

Teacher's Note:
a) The BCI sets minimum standards and recognises institutions rather than conducting entrance exams.
b) Scholarships and independent syllabus-framing are not BCI functions.

10. In 1916, the Calcutta High Court held that women were not entitled to be enrolled as Vakils or Pleaders. A similar view was taken by the Patna High Court in 1922 in the case concerning Ms. Hazra. In 1921, however, Cornelia Sorabji was enrolled as a Vakil of the Allahabad High Court. The position regarding women's entry into the legal profession was subsequently settled through: [1 Mark]
(A) The 1916 decision of the Calcutta High Court
(B) The 1921 enrolment of Cornelia Sorabji by the Allahabad High Court
(C) The enactment of the Legal Practitioners' (Women) Act in 1923
(D) The 1922 decision of the Patna High Court in Ms. Hazra's case

Answer: (C) The enactment of the Legal Practitioners' (Women) Act in 1923

Teacher's Note:
a) The 1923 Act finally settled the conflicting judicial views by legislatively permitting women to practise law.
b) Judicial decisions before 1923 were inconsistent and did not settle the issue conclusively.

11. Rohit owes Rs. 50,000 to Aman, and Aman owes Rs. 50,000 to Karan. With the mutual consent of all three parties, it is agreed that Rohit will directly pay Rs. 50,000 to Karan, and Aman is discharged from his liability. This situation is an example of: [1 Mark]
(A) Rescission
(B) Alteration
(C) Novation
(D) Remission

Answer: (C) Novation

Teacher's Note:
a) Novation substitutes a new contract for an existing one with the consent of all parties.
b) Do not confuse it with remission, which means accepting a lesser fulfilment of the same obligation.

12. X raised a hockey stick as if to hit Y. Y was frightened but was not actually hit. Y now wants to claim compensation for the harm caused. Can Y claim compensation from X? [1 Mark]
(A) No, because Y did not suffer any physical injury.
(B) Yes, because causing fear of imminent harm is actionable as a tort.
(C) Yes, because assault is a criminal offence.
(D) Yes, but only if X actually hits Y.

Answer: (B) Yes, because causing fear of imminent harm is actionable as a tort.

Teacher's Note:
a) Assault is complete once reasonable apprehension of imminent harm is created, physical contact is not needed.
b) Actual contact would instead amount to battery.

13. Match Column A (Type of transfer) with Column B (Scenario) and state the correct option.
Column A | Column B
P Sale | (i) Ramesh transfers his residential property through a registered document to his daughter without receiving any money. The transfer is voluntary out of his love and affection.
Q Lease | (ii) Meera transfers ownership of her agricultural land to Rohan, while Rohan transfers ownership of his residential plot to Meera. Neither party pays any money to the other.
R Gift | (iii) Suresh transfers ownership of his shop to Kavita for an agreed price of Rs. 8,00,000.
S Exchange | (iv) Arjun gives his commercial premises to Vikram for five years. Vikram is entitled to possess and use the premises during this period and is required to pay Rs. 25,000 every month. [1 Mark]
(A) P (i); Q (ii); R (iii); S (iv)
(B) P (iii); Q (iv); R (i); S (ii)
(C) P (iii); Q (ii); R (i); S (iv)
(D) P (ii); Q (i); R (iv); S (iii)

Answer: (B) P (iii); Q (iv); R (i); S (ii)

Teacher's Note:
a) Sale involves price, lease involves possession with periodic rent, gift is voluntary without consideration, and exchange involves mutual transfer of ownership.
b) Match each definition to its keyword: "price" for sale, "monthly payment for use" for lease, "love and affection" for gift, "mutual transfer" for exchange.

14. The Central Government receives information that an industrial chemical is causing serious soil pollution in several States. The Government decides to prescribe standards for handling the chemical and issue directions to the industries concerned.
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 supports such action primarily through: [1 Mark]
(A) The wide powers vested in the Central Government to take measures for protecting and improving the environment
(B) The exclusive authority of State Governments to regulate industrial pollution
(C) The power of industries to determine their own environmental standards
(D) The requirement that environmental standards be framed only through international agreements

Answer: (A) The wide powers vested in the Central Government to take measures for protecting and improving the environment

Teacher's Note:
a) Section 3 of the Act gives the Central Government wide powers to prescribe standards and issue directions.
b) The Act is a Central legislation and does not give exclusive authority to States.

15. Arjun and Neha want to start a consulting business. They expect high profits but are also aware that their business may face financial risks in the first few years. Arjun wants a structure where their personal assets remain protected even if the business suffers losses. Neha, however, prefers a structure with minimum compliance and low registration costs. Which business structure best suits their situation? [1 Mark]
(A) Partnership, because it offers low compliance and simple procedures, even though partners have unlimited liability.
(B) Limited Liability Partnership, because it protects partners' personal assets while also offering operational flexibility.
(C) Partnership, because it limits the liability of partners and is easier to register.
(D) LLP, because it is the least regulated business structure and partners have no legal responsibilities.

Answer: (B) Limited Liability Partnership, because it protects partners' personal assets while also offering operational flexibility.

Teacher's Note:
a) LLP combines limited liability of a company with the operational flexibility of a partnership.
b) Ordinary partnership always carries unlimited personal liability, which does not meet Arjun's requirement.

16. Given below are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options that follow.
Assertion (A): Temporary sand art created on a beach is protected under copyright law.
Reason (R): Copyright protects works only if the work is recorded in a fixed tangible medium, and temporary sand art is short lived, so it lacks fixation. [1 Mark]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true, R is false
(D) A is false, R is true

Answer: (D) A is false, R is true

Teacher's Note:
a) Copyright requires fixation in a tangible medium of expression.
b) Since sand art is impermanent and unrecorded, it fails the fixation requirement and is not protected.

17. Given below are two statements marked as Statement I and Statement II. Choose the correct answer from the options that follow.
Statement I: Fundamental Rights are legally enforceable rights guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
Statement II: Human Rights are universal and inalienable rights that become enforceable when they are incorporated into domestic laws. [1 Mark]
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(C) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fundamental Rights are directly enforceable through courts under Article 32/226.
b) Human Rights are moral/universal claims that become legally enforceable only once domestic law recognises them.

18. George, a foreign traveller, arrived in Mumbai carrying 34 kg of undeclared gold hidden on his body. A new RBI notification restricting the bringing of gold into India had been officially published two days before his arrival. When customs officers inspected him, they seized the gold and charged him under the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act. George argued that he was unaware of the new rule when he left Zurich. Which legal principle justifies rejecting George's defense of lack of knowledge of the law? [1 Mark]
(A) Ignorantia Juris Non Excusat
(B) Mens Rea
(C) Qui Facit Per Alium Facit Per Se
(D) Volenti Non Fit Injuria

Answer: (A) Ignorantia Juris Non Excusat

Teacher's Note:
a) This maxim means ignorance of the law is no excuse, once a law is duly published.
b) It applies regardless of where the person was when the law came into force.

19. A group of people organize peaceful marches to protest against a new industrial project in the hilly region. They carry placards and chant slogans criticising a foreign country involved in the project. The police stop the march midway, as the head of that foreign country is currently visiting India. On what grounds, if any, is the police justified in restricting the peaceful march? [1 Mark]
(A) Public order
(B) Security of the State
(C) There is no ground to stop the peaceful march
(D) Friendly relations with foreign States

Answer: (D) Friendly relations with foreign States

Teacher's Note:
a) Article 19(2) permits reasonable restrictions on free speech to maintain friendly relations with foreign States.
b) The restriction here is specifically linked to criticism of a visiting foreign head of state, not general public order.

20. An Indian citizen is denied access to clean drinking water and basic healthcare by the local authorities. A foreign tourist visiting India is denied emergency healthcare solely on the ground of her nationality.
The constitutional protection available to the two persons is best described as: [1 Mark]
(A) Both persons can approach an Indian court for enforcement of their right to life, as Article 21 protects every person.
(B) The Indian citizen can enforce Fundamental Rights, whereas the foreign tourist can claim only Human Rights because she is not an Indian citizen.
(C) Neither person can approach an Indian court, as access to healthcare is not expressly mentioned as a Fundamental Right.
(D) The Indian citizen can enforce Fundamental Rights, whereas the foreign tourist can approach an Indian court only if a separate law specifically grants her the same protection.

Answer: (A) Both persons can approach an Indian court for enforcement of their right to life, as Article 21 protects every person.

Teacher's Note:
a) Article 21 uses the word "person", so it extends to citizens and foreigners alike.
b) Right to health and clean water have been read into the right to life through judicial interpretation.

SECTION B

21A. The current Chief Justice of India is retiring soon.
The Supreme Court has the following judges:
Judge Name | Age (Years) | Date of Appointment to SC | Date of Oath Taken
Justice Mehra | 62 | 10.01.2018 | 12.01.2018
Justice Kapoor | 62 | 10.01.2018 | 10.01.2018
Justice Verma | 61 | 05.01.2015 | 10.01.2015
Based on convention, who is likely to be appointed as the next Chief Justice of India? Explain your answer briefly. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Justice Verma is likely to be appointed as the next Chief Justice of India.
2. By convention, seniority for this purpose is determined by the date of appointment to the Supreme Court, not by age, and Justice Verma has the earliest appointment date (05.01.2015).

Teacher's Note:
a) Do not confuse date of appointment with date of taking oath; only appointment date decides seniority.
b) Age is irrelevant to this convention, even though it is listed in the table.

OR

21B. A journalist publishes a report exposing corruption in a State government department. In response, the State issues an order shutting down the newspaper, claiming it undermines governance. The journalist approaches the court, claiming the order violates fundamental rights.
Explain how the principle of judicial review can be invoked in this case and the remedy the court may provide. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Judicial review allows courts to examine whether a State action is constitutional; here, the journalist can challenge the shutdown order as violating the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a).
2. The court may strike down or quash the unconstitutional order as invalid and restore publication, thereby protecting the journalist's rights.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judicial review is the power of courts to test executive/legislative action against the Constitution.
b) "Quashing" the order is the key remedy word examiners look for.

22. Give any two differences between an 'advocate-on-record' and a 'senior advocate'. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. An Advocate-on-Record is entitled to file and act in cases directly in the Supreme Court, whereas a Senior Advocate cannot file cases directly and must work through an Advocate-on-Record.
2. An Advocate-on-Record is designated after passing a special qualifying examination, whereas a Senior Advocate is designated by the Court on the basis of merit, experience and reputation, without any examination.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember "AOR files, Senior Advocate argues through AOR" as a quick distinction.
b) A Senior Advocate is a status designation, not a separate qualifying registration.

23A. How did the Legal Services Authorities (Amendment) Act, 2002 modify the original Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 with respect to the establishment and functioning of Lok Adalats? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It introduced Permanent Lok Adalats for pre-litigation conciliation of disputes relating to public utility services, as continuous bodies unlike the earlier ad-hoc Lok Adalats.
2. It empowered Lok Adalats to decide such disputes on merits and pass binding awards, having the status of a civil court decree, where the parties fail to reach a settlement.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Permanent" and "public utility services" are the key terms examiners check for.
b) Remember that the award of a Permanent Lok Adalat is final and binding like a court decree.

OR

23B. Under the NALSA Regulations, 2010, how are advocates empanelled to provide free legal services, and what is expected of them in discharge of their duty? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Advocates enrolled with a State Bar Council and having the prescribed minimum experience apply to the State or District Legal Services Authority, and are screened and shortlisted before their names are placed on an approved panel.
2. Empanelled advocates are expected to provide free, competent and honest legal assistance to eligible persons and must not accept any fee or payment in cash or kind for such service.

Teacher's Note:
a) "No fee in cash or kind" is a value point frequently tested.
b) Empanelment is maintained by the State/District Legal Services Authority, not the Bar Council.

24. The principle of 'innocent until proven guilty' is not considered absolute in Indian criminal law. State two situations where the burden of proof is reversed. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Where a statute expressly provides for reverse onus, such as in dowry death cases, the accused is presumed guilty once the prescribed facts are proved.
2. Where an accused files an appeal against a conviction by a lower court, the presumption shifts from innocence to guilt until the conviction is set aside.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Dowry death" is the classic statutory example examiners expect.
b) On appeal, the burden shifts onto the convicted person to prove the conviction was wrong.

25. A tech entrepreneurial startup requires a large amount of capital for its expansion. The directors plan to raise funds from the public. Identify the most suitable legal form of organisation to raise funds. Mention any two key characteristics of this form. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. A Public Limited Company is the most suitable form, as it can issue shares to the public to raise large amounts of capital.
2. It has limited liability, meaning shareholders are liable only to the extent of their shareholding, and it is a separate legal entity distinct from its owners.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Raising funds from the public" is the trigger phrase pointing to a public company.
b) Private companies cannot invite the public to subscribe to shares, so this option is ruled out.

26. A woman belonging to a minority community, files a complaint before the National Commission for Minorities alleging that she has been denied access to a government welfare scheme for all citizens. The incident occurred more than a year ago, and a similar matter is already pending before a competent court. As a member of the Commission, examine whether her complaint can be admitted. State two grounds for your answer. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The complaint cannot be admitted because the matter is already sub judice before a competent court.
2. The complaint also cannot be admitted because it relates to events that occurred more than one year ago.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sub judice and the one-year time limit are the two standard procedural bars for the Commission.
b) Note that the scheme in question is for "all citizens", so it also does not strictly relate to minority-specific rights.

27. Piya owns a shop in the market. She attempts to transfer the shop to Arun through a written agreement. However, part of the shop legally belongs to Riya's brother. Riya is not authorised to transfer that part of the property. The property is subject to a legal dispute with another person.
Identify the problems in this transfer that make it invalid according to the essentials of a valid transfer of property. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Piya is not entitled to transfer the entire shop, since part of it legally belongs to her brother and she is not authorised to transfer that portion.
2. The property is subject to a legal dispute, so it is not free from encumbrances, which is an essential condition for a valid transfer of property.

Teacher's Note:
a) A valid transfer requires the transferor to be competent and entitled to the property being transferred.
b) A property under litigation is treated as encumbered and cannot be validly transferred until the dispute is resolved.

28A. 'Even a person accused of a crime is entitled to fundamental rights.' Explain any two safeguards provided to an accused under the Indian Constitution. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Protection against ex post facto laws - a person cannot be convicted for an act that was not an offence when committed, nor given a penalty greater than that prescribed at that time.
2. Protection against double jeopardy - a person cannot be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.

Teacher's Note:
a) These safeguards come from Article 20 of the Constitution.
b) Protection against self-incrimination is another valid point that could be used instead of either point above.

OR

28B. State any two functions of the Preamble of the Indian Constitution. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Preamble affirms the aims, objectives and guiding principles on which the Constitution is based.
2. It is used by courts to interpret vague or ambiguous provisions of the Constitution.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Preamble is not enforceable by itself but aids interpretation of other provisions.
b) Remember the phrase "key to open the mind of the makers" as a way to recall its interpretative function.

SECTION C

29A. A law firm with offices in India and the United States plans to promote its services through a digital campaign. The proposed campaign includes the name, contact details, qualifications and areas of practice of its lawyers. In addition, the firm proposes to send personal communications to potential clients and approach them directly to offer its services. Before proceeding, the partners seek advice on whether the proposed activities can be undertaken in both countries.
(a) Would the proposed activities be treated in the same manner in India and the United States? Give reasons for your answer.
(b) Why are advertising and solicitation by lawyers subject to professional restrictions? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. No, the two jurisdictions treat the activities differently. In India, sharing limited professional information such as name, contact details, qualification and areas of practice is permitted under Bar Council rules, but direct solicitation and personal approaches to prospective clients are restricted.
2. In the United States, lawyer advertising is generally permitted, subject to rules against misleading communication and restrictions on improper solicitation.
3. Advertising and solicitation are restricted to maintain the dignity and credibility of the legal profession and to prevent misleading publicity or improper inducement of clients.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Solicitation" (directly approaching clients) is treated more strictly than mere information-sharing in India.
b) Link the restriction to the idea of law as a noble profession, not a trade.

OR

29B. Advocate Sachin is representing a client in a civil suit. During the proceedings, the client asks Advocate Sachin not to place a particular document on record, stating that it may weaken the case. The client insists that the advocate's primary responsibility is to secure a favourable outcome. Advocate Sachin agrees, does not disclose the document, and seeks repeated adjournments citing procedural reasons.
(A) Can Advocate Sachin defend his conduct by claiming that he acted in the best interest of his client? Give reason.
(B) State one ethically correct option available to Advocate Sachin in this situation.
(C) Identify the authority empowered to initiate disciplinary proceedings against Advocate Sachin. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. No, Advocate Sachin cannot justify suppressing a material document merely on the ground of client interest, because an advocate owes a higher duty to the court and the administration of justice and must act honestly.
2. He should have declined the client's improper instruction and either placed the document on record or withdrawn from the case in accordance with professional ethics.
3. The State Bar Council is the authority empowered to initiate disciplinary proceedings against him for professional misconduct.

Teacher's Note:
a) An advocate is first an officer of the court, and client instructions cannot override this duty.
b) Withdrawal from the case is always an ethical alternative to unethical compliance.

30. Leena, a tribal woman, lost her home and farmland after severe floods hit her village. She migrated to a nearby town with her two children. Leena also suffers from a permanent physical disability that restricts her movement. While participating in a peaceful demonstration against the lack of rehabilitation measures, she was detained by the police.
(A) Identify four categories under which Leena is eligible to receive free legal aid.
(B) Name the statutory Act that was enacted to give effect to Article 39A, and state its objectives. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Leena qualifies for free legal aid as: a woman; a member of a Scheduled Tribe; a person with disability; and a victim of disaster/displacement.
2. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted to give effect to Article 39A.
3. Its objectives are to provide free legal aid to those who cannot afford it, to ensure access to justice for marginalised groups, and to establish legal services authorities at the national, state and district levels.

Teacher's Note:
a) Map each fact in the case (tribal, disabled, flood victim, woman) directly to an eligibility category.
b) "Article 39A" and "Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987" must always be linked together in answers.

31A. "Legal aid is a sine qua non for ensuring meaningful access to justice in India." Explain this statement with reference to constitutional principles. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Article 14 (Right to Equality) is made meaningful through legal aid, as poor litigants are not placed at a disadvantage before the law for want of representation.
2. Article 15 (Prohibition of Discrimination) is supported by legal aid, which enables marginalised groups such as Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, women and minorities to access courts effectively.
3. Article 39A, a Directive Principle, requires the State to provide free legal aid so justice is not denied due to economic or social disability, and this is operationalised through the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always connect legal aid to the trio of Articles 14, 15 and 39A.
b) "Sine qua non" means an essential condition, so stress that access to justice is incomplete without legal aid.

OR

31B. "International law addresses the provision for free legal services from the perspective of human rights." Justify the statement with reference to International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) and Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR). [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. India has ratified the ICCPR, which came into force in 1976 and obliges States to ensure free legal assistance so access to justice is not denied for lack of means.
2. Article 8 of the UDHR guarantees everyone an effective remedy before competent national tribunals for acts violating their fundamental rights.
3. Together, these instruments treat free legal aid as a human right, creating right-centric, norm-creating obligations on the international community, including India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name both instruments explicitly, ICCPR and UDHR, for full marks.
b) Emphasise that these are treated as human rights obligations, not merely domestic policy choices.

32. I. Read the following situations and answer the questions that follow:
(A) Rohan sends an email to Meera stating that he is willing to sell his laptop to her for Rs. 40,000. Identify the type of proposal made by Rohan.
(B) Rohan sends an email to all students of his college stating that he will pay Rs. 5,100 to anyone who finds and returns his lost laptop. Identify the type of proposal made by Rohan.
II. State two points of difference between the two types of proposals identified above. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The email to Meera is a specific offer, made to a definite, identified person.
2. The email to all students is a general (public) offer, made to the world at large.
3. A specific offer can be accepted only by the person to whom it is made, while a general offer can be accepted by any person who fulfils its conditions with knowledge of the offer; also, a specific offer creates a contract with the identified offeree, while a general offer results in a contract only when someone performs the stated condition.

Teacher's Note:
a) "To a specific person" versus "to the world at large" is the key distinguishing phrase for examiners.
b) The famous case of a reward offer for a lost item is a standard illustration of a general offer.

33A. Riya, a biotechnology student, creates a new type of eco-friendly biodegradable plastic that decomposes within a week. She wants to protect her creation so that no one else can make, sell, or use it without her permission.
I. Under which Act can Riya register her creation to protect her Intellectual Property Rights?
II. Name two basic requirements that her invention must fulfill to be eligible for patent registration. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Riya can register her invention under the Patents Act, 1970.
2. Novelty - the invention must be new and not already known to the public anywhere in the world.
3. Industrial applicability - the invention must be capable of being made or used in some kind of industry.

Teacher's Note:
a) A patent, not a copyright or trademark, protects a functional invention like a new material.
b) Non-obviousness is an additional requirement worth mentioning if space permits.

OR

33B. Neha leases her commercial office space to Kabir for a period of 18 months at a monthly rent of Rs. 15,000. As per the lease agreement, Kabir must return the premises at the end of the lease term in the same condition in which it was handed over to him. Due to a temporary work assignment in another city, Kabir allows his friend Rohan to occupy the premises in return for a monthly payment of Rs. 18,000. Rohan makes structural changes to the office that reduces its market value.
I. Is Kabir legally authorised to allow Rohan to occupy the premises? Give reasons.
II. Identify the duty of the lessee that has been violated in the above case.
III. State one remedy available to Neha against Kabir. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. No, Kabir is not authorised to let Rohan occupy the premises, because a lessee cannot sub-let or transfer possession to another person without the lessor's consent, unless the lease expressly permits it.
2. The duty violated is the lessee's duty to return the property in the same condition as it was received, since Rohan's structural changes amount to committing waste and reduce the property's value.
3. Neha can sue Kabir for compensation or damages for the loss or depreciation caused to the property.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sub-letting without the lessor's consent is a common trap in property law questions.
b) "Waste" is the key term for damage caused to leased property by the lessee or their assignee.

34. See the images given below and answer the questions:
Image A
Image B
(A) Identify the theory of punishment shown in Image A and Image B.
(B) Explain the objective behind each theory of punishment. [3 Marks]

[Figure: Image A shows a person's hands gripping the bars of a prison cell, representing imprisonment. Image B shows a group of people, dressed alike, sitting together on the floor of a hall, appearing to attend a counselling or reform session.]

Answer:
1. Image A shows Incapacitation, and Image B shows Rehabilitation.
2. Incapacitation aims to segregate the offender from society, usually through imprisonment, so that they cannot commit further offences.
3. Rehabilitation aims to reform the offender and help them become a law-abiding member of society by making them realise their conduct was wrong.

Teacher's Note:
a) Incapacitation focuses on physical separation from society, while rehabilitation focuses on reform of character.
b) Do not confuse incapacitation with deterrence, which aims to create fear rather than merely segregate.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q.34)

Explain any three objectives of criminal laws in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Deterrence - criminal law creates a fear of punishment to discourage individuals from committing offences.
2. Retribution - it ensures a wrongdoer is punished proportionately to the harm caused, reflecting society's moral condemnation of the act.
3. Rehabilitation - it focuses on reforming offenders so that they can reintegrate into society as law-abiding citizens through corrective measures.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give one line of explanation for each objective, do not just list the terms.
b) Incapacitation and prevention are other acceptable objectives if more points are needed.

35A. I. Read the following situations and answer the questions that follow:
(A) Gulli, a 19-year-old, is stopped by the police near a railway station late at night. The police ask him questions and temporarily keep him at the police station for questioning, without formally charging him with any offense. Identify the nature of police action taken against Gulli.
(B) Timpi is caught stealing a diamond ring from a shop. The women police immediately take her to the police station, inform her of the charges, and record her statement. Identify the nature of police action taken against Timpi.
II. State two rights of a person who is arrested. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The action against Gulli is Detention, since he is only questioned and temporarily kept without being formally charged.
2. The action against Timpi is Arrest, since she is taken into custody, informed of the charges and her statement is recorded.
3. An arrested person has the right to be informed of the grounds of arrest immediately, and the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Formally charged" is the key phrase separating arrest from mere detention.
b) Also remember the right to be produced before a magistrate within 24 hours as another valid right.

OR

35B. I. Read the following situations and identify the constitutional provisions involved in each case.
(A) A state-aided college refuses admission to a student belonging to a linguistic minority on the ground that the institution gives preference to students speaking the majority language of the State.
(B) The State Government grants financial aid to private schools but rejects the application of a school run by a linguistic minority solely because it is a minority institution.
II. Analyse whether the actions of the College and the State are constitutionally valid. Give reasons. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Situation (A) involves Article 29(2), which prohibits denial of admission to any citizen in a State-aided institution on the ground of language.
2. Situation (B) involves Article 30(2), which prohibits the State from discriminating against a minority educational institution while granting aid, on grounds of religion or language.
3. Both actions are unconstitutional, as they infringe the cultural and educational rights guaranteed to minorities under Articles 29 and 30.

Teacher's Note:
a) Article 29(2) protects individual students, while Article 30(2) protects minority institutions as such.
b) The key illegality in both cases is discrimination purely on the ground of language/minority status.

36. Explain the difference between a trade name and a trademark, giving one example when a trade name becomes a trademark. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. A trade name merely identifies a business but does not, by itself, give any brand or legal protection.
2. A trademark protects a brand name or mark and distinguishes a company's goods or services from those of others, and can be legally registered.
3. Example: "Google" began as a trade name but has become a well-known registered trademark that distinguishes its search and technology services from competitors.

Teacher's Note:
a) A trade name can exist without registration, but trademark protection generally requires registration for full legal remedies.
b) Use a well-known brand example to show how a trade name graduates into a trademark through public recognition.

SECTION D

37A. Justice R. Dev, a judge of the High Court of Nioria, is accused of repeated misuse of official privileges and serious ethical misconduct. Several lawyers submit written complaints to Members of Parliament. After examining the material, a group of MPs decides that the allegations require formal scrutiny. They prepare a detailed motion stating the charges and seek to initiate the constitutional process to remove Justice Dev from office.
When the motion is submitted, some MPs argue that the matter should be handled by the High Court itself. Others insist that only Parliament can begin the process, and that a special committee must investigate before any vote is taken. The Speaker receives the motion and must decide the next steps.
Justice Dev, meanwhile, continues to hold office unless the constitutional procedure is successfully completed.
I. Identify the constitutional process that the MPs are attempting to initiate against Justice Dev?
II. Give reason- why can the High Court not remove its own judge, even if the allegations are serious?
III. State the role of Members of Parliament in the early stage of this process?
IV. Briefly explain the next step after the motion is admitted by the Speaker/Chairperson.
V. Why is the removal of a judge made deliberately difficult under the Constitution? Give one reason. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The MPs are attempting to initiate the impeachment (removal) of a High Court judge, a constitutional process carried out by Parliament.
2. The High Court cannot remove its own judge because removal of judges is governed exclusively by the Constitution and carried out by Parliament, not by any internal court authority.
3. In the early stage, MPs receive and examine the complaints, draft a motion specifying the charges, and present it to the Speaker/Chairperson to initiate the constitutional procedure.
4. After the motion is admitted, the Speaker/Chairperson refers it to a specially constituted committee, usually comprising judges or senior members, which investigates the allegations, holds hearings and submits a report before Parliament votes on the motion.
5. Removal is made deliberately difficult to protect judicial independence, so that judges can decide cases without fear of removal due to political or executive pressure.

Teacher's Note:
a) The key word for this process is "impeachment", governed by Article 124/218 read with the Judges (Inquiry) Act.
b) Always mention the investigating committee stage before the final Parliamentary vote.

OR

37B. In Van Pradesh, a new fleet of public buses was introduced on routes connecting schools, colleges, and workplaces.
Within weeks:
Many buses had steps too high for wheelchair users, and lacked ramps or safe boarding facilities.
Priority seating for persons with mobility impairments was absent or ignored.
Some buses skipped accessible stops, forcing students and employees with disabilities to miss school, exams, and work repeatedly.
Despite repeated complaints, the Transport Department did not take any effective action, leaving affected individuals with no practical way to travel safely.
Ms. Rhea, a university researcher, collected Photographs and videos of inaccessible buses, Testimonies from affected students and employees, Expert reports documenting unsafe travel conditions
Believing this systemic problem denied basic rights of mobility and access, Ms. Rhea approaches the court on behalf of the affected group. She is not personally affected, but seeks a court directive to ensure public transport is accessible to all citizens, so that students and employees can attend school and work without discrimination or barriers.
I. Name the legal remedy being invoked by Ms. Rhea to seek judicial intervention in the matter.
II. Why is it permissible for her to file the petition even though she is not personally affected?
III. How does this mechanism protect the rights and ensure accountability of public authorities? [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ms. Rhea is invoking a Public Interest Litigation (PIL), which allows a concerned citizen to seek judicial intervention on behalf of a group whose rights are being denied, even without being personally affected.
2. It is permissible because courts relax the ordinary rule of locus standi in PILs, allowing any public-spirited person to approach the court when the affected persons, such as students and employees with disabilities, are unable to approach the court themselves effectively.
3. This mechanism provides a remedy to disadvantaged groups who cannot individually enforce their rights, and holds the Transport Department accountable for inaction.
4. It enables the court to issue directions correcting the systemic barriers, ensuring long-term compliance and accessible public transport.
5. It ensures that the rights to equality, mobility and non-discrimination are upheld in practice, and not merely on paper.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Relaxed locus standi" is the key concept examiners check for in PIL answers.
b) Emphasise that a PIL is used precisely when the affected group cannot approach the court on its own.

38. Company A entered into a two-year supply agreement with Company B. After eight months, Company B complained about repeated delays in delivery and held back payments. Company A claimed that the delays were caused by sudden changes in specifications demanded by Company B.
Both parties exchanged several emails requesting meetings to sort out the issue. After two failed meetings, Company A decided to file a civil suit in the District Court. Company B objected, pointing out that the contract clearly stated that any dispute would be resolved "through a binding decision by a neutral third party" and that courts could be approached only after this process was complete.
Company A argues that going to court is faster and refuses to follow the process mentioned in the contract.
Using the facts of the case and the ADR mechanisms in your syllabus, answer the following:
(A) Identify the dispute-resolution process Company B is referring to.
(B) Can Company A directly approach the court for dispute resolution? Give reason for your answer.
(C) What is the first step to be taken to initiate dispute resolution according to this process?
(D) State any two advantages of resolving disputes through this method. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Company B is referring to arbitration, a process in which a neutral third party (arbitrator) gives a binding decision on the dispute.
2. No, Company A cannot directly approach the court, because the contract makes arbitration a mandatory precondition to litigation, and courts can be approached only after this process is complete.
3. The first step is to issue a notice of arbitration to the other party, stating the nature of the dispute and the relief sought, and initiating appointment of an arbitrator as per the agreed procedure.
4. Two advantages of arbitration: it is generally faster than court litigation, and the arbitrator, being an expert in the subject matter, can give a more informed decision.

Teacher's Note:
a) A binding decision by a "neutral third party" in a contract clause is the key marker of arbitration, not mediation or conciliation.
b) Confidentiality and flexibility of procedure are other acceptable advantages of arbitration.

39. The countries of Lumeria and Aravon are geographically distant and share no treaties or diplomatic relations.
A detailed report by the International Human Rights Oversight Commission (IHROC) reveals that Aravon is committing systematic persecution and gross human rights violations against a minority community, including unlawful killings, forced displacement, and denial of basic rights.
During a special session of the Global Council of Nations (GCN), Lumeria condemns these actions and proposes an independent fact-finding mission to investigate the situation in Aravon.
Aravon objects, claiming that Lumeria is "not an affected state" and has no legal right to raise issues concerning its internal affairs.
Lumeria responds that certain international obligations are owed to the entire community of states, and any state may act when these obligations are violated.
(A) Identify and explain the principle of international law that allows Lumeria to raise the issue and propose action despite having no direct link with Aravon.
(B) Explain why Aravon's argument about Lumeria lacking standing is not valid under this principle.
(C) State how this principle strengthens global responsibility in maintaining core international norms. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The principle involved is Erga Omnes obligations, meaning obligations owed by every State to the international community as a whole, particularly regarding fundamental human rights and prohibitions on gross violations.
2. Under this principle, any State can raise the issue even without a direct connection to the violation, because the obligation is owed collectively to all States and not merely to those directly affected.
3. Aravon's argument is therefore invalid, since Lumeria's standing does not depend on being an "affected state" but arises from the collective nature of the obligation.
4. This principle strengthens global responsibility by ensuring serious breaches of core international norms, such as persecution and gross human rights violations, are treated as a concern of the entire international community.
5. It creates accountability beyond the affected State's own borders and encourages collective action against grave violations.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Erga omnes" literally means "towards all" and is the exact term examiners look for.
b) Contrast this with ordinary bilateral obligations, which are owed only to specific states, not the whole community.

40 A. Read the following two scenarios and identify the type of liability under Tort Law.
I. (a) A gas-based fertilizer plant, Agro Gas Ltd., releases a cloud of poisonous gas due to faulty valves in its processing unit. Several people in the nearby village fall ill. The company claims that the leak was caused by a technical defect in the machinery, which they could not have predicted.
(b) Pannu stores a large quantity of water in a private reservoir near his farmland. During an unusually heavy storm followed by heavy rainfall, the reservoir bursts, causing water to flood and damage the neighbouring fields and houses.
II. Differentiate between the above two scenarios giving three points of difference with basis of differentiation. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Agro Gas Ltd. scenario is a case of Absolute Liability, as laid down in M.C. Mehta v. Union of India.
2. Pannu's reservoir scenario is a case of Strict Liability, as laid down in Rylands v. Fletcher.
3. Nature of liability: absolute liability admits no exceptions at all, while strict liability allows certain defences.
4. Defences available: no defence, such as act of God or a third party's act, is available in absolute liability, whereas such defences are available in strict liability.
5. Scope of application: absolute liability applies to hazardous or inherently dangerous industrial activities, while strict liability applies to keeping dangerous substances or things on one's land.

Teacher's Note:
a) "No exceptions" is the defining feature of absolute liability that distinguishes it from strict liability.
b) Always cite M.C. Mehta v. Union of India for absolute liability and Rylands v. Fletcher for strict liability.

OR

40 B. Read the following situations carefully and identify the tort involved in each case.
I. Arjun raises his fist and threatens to punch Rohan, who believes he is about to be hit. However, Arjun does not actually touch him.
II. Meera suddenly pushes Kavya from behind without giving her any warning.
III. Vikram throws a stone at Aman intending to hit him, but Aman narrowly escapes as the stone misses him.
IV. Neha angrily pours a glass of water on her colleague during an argument.
V. Raj points an unloaded gun at Sahil, who does not know that it is unloaded and feels immediate fear of being shot. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Situation I is Assault, since it creates reasonable apprehension of imminent harm without actual physical contact.
2. Situation II is Battery, since it involves intentional and direct physical contact (pushing) without consent.
3. Situation III is Assault, since the attempt to hit created reasonable apprehension of harm even though the stone missed and no contact occurred.
4. Situation IV is Battery, since pouring water intentionally on someone amounts to direct physical contact.
5. Situation V is Assault, since Sahil reasonably feared imminent harm even though the gun was unloaded, as he was unaware of that fact.

Teacher's Note:
a) Assault is about apprehension of harm; battery is about actual physical contact.
b) The victim's own reasonable belief matters for assault, even if the threat could not actually have caused harm, as in the unloaded gun example.