CBSE Class 12 Geography Sample Paper 2026 27 with Solutions PDF Download

SECTION A

Question No. 1 to 17 are Multiple Choice Type Questions

1. Match the following:
Column A - Places | Column B - Factors Affecting Population Distribution
I. Thar desert | 1. Pleasant and comfortable climate
II. Mediterranean regions | 2. Industrialisation and job opportunities
III. Katanga-Zambia copper belt | 3. Harsh climatic condition and difficult landform
IV. Kobe-Osaka region | 4. Mineral deposits and mining activities [1 Mark]
(A) I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3
(B) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4
(C) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2
(D) I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4

Answer: (C) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2

Teacher's Note:
a) Harsh climate and difficult terrain explain sparse population in the Thar desert.
b) Link each factor logically: pleasant climate to Mediterranean, minerals to Katanga-Zambia, industry to Kobe-Osaka.

2. The Government of India has introduced the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao programme to address the issue of decline in child sex ratio. Which one of the following options will lead to a more meaningful life for girls? [1 Mark]
(A) Providing financial incentives only at the time of marriage.
(B) Encouraging families to support girls' education.
(C) Restricting girls from pursuing higher studies.
(D) Making girls responsible for household work.

Answer: (B) Encouraging families to support girls' education.

Teacher's Note:
a) Education empowers girls and improves their status in society.
b) Do not confuse marriage-linked incentives with real empowerment measures.

3. A disaster management team wants to set up temporary shelters in Region Y, which has a population of 80,000 and an area of 200 sq km. To plan resources, they must know how densely populated the region is. What is the population density of Region Y? [1 Mark]
(A) 200 persons per sq km
(B) 300 persons per sq km
(C) 400 persons per sq km
(D) 800 persons per sq km

Answer: (C) 400 persons per sq km (Density = Population \( \div \) Area = \( 80{,}000 \div 200 = 400 \) persons per sq km).

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember the formula: density = population divided by area.
b) Always check the unit given (per sq km) before selecting the option.

4. In which of the following countries you can expect a higher investment in people providing education and healthcare as priority and good governance.
Sl No. | Country | HDI 2022
1. | Iceland | 0.959
2. | Denmark | 0.952
3. | Tajikistan | 0.679
4. | El Salvador | 0.674
5. | Burkina Faso | 0.438
6. | Niger | 0.394 [1 Mark]
(A) Niger and El Salvador
(B) Burkina Faso and Tajikistan
(C) Tajikistan and Niger
(D) Iceland and Denmark

Answer: (D) Iceland and Denmark

Teacher's Note:
a) A higher HDI value shows greater investment in education, health and governance.
b) Iceland and Denmark have the highest HDI values in the table.

5. Which of the following statements are correct related to rural marketing centres? Choose the correct option.
i. Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements.
ii. Rural Marketing centres are quasi-urban trading centres of the most rudimentary type.
iii. They offer manufactured goods as well as many specialized markets develop, e.g. markets for labour, housing, semi or finished products.
iv. Personal and professional services are not well-developed. These form local collecting and distributing centres.
Options: [1 Mark]
(A) i, ii, iv
(B) i, iii, iv
(C) ii, iii, iv
(D) i, ii, iii

Answer: (A) i, ii, iv

Teacher's Note:
a) Rural marketing centres are basic, quasi-urban centres serving nearby villages.
b) Statement iii describes urban marketing centres, so it is excluded.

6. How does industrial nations help to step up the volume of trade in developing nations?
i. By developing industries like mining, oil drilling, heavy engineering etc in developing countries.
ii. By not importing food stuffs and minerals from the developing countries.
iii. By creating markets for their finished products in developing countries
iv. By not opening the market for developing countries and increasing the import tariff by 50%. [1 Mark]
(A) I, III
(B) III, IV
(C) II, III
(D) I, IV

Answer: (A) I, III

Teacher's Note:
a) Industrial nations invest in mining and heavy industries in developing countries and sell their finished goods there.
b) Statements ii and iv describe restrictive, not trade-boosting, practices.

7. Which of the following is a major concern associated with rapid growth of international trade in recent times? [1 Mark]
(A) It reduces dependence on natural resources and promotes sustainable development.
(B) It can lead to exploitation of natural resources, causing environmental degradation.
(C) It decreases commercial rivalry and prevents conflicts between nations.
(D) It ensures equal development among all participating countries.

Answer: (B) It can lead to exploitation of natural resources, causing environmental degradation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rapid trade growth often increases pressure on natural resources.
b) Options A, C and D describe positive outcomes, which is not the "concern" asked.

8. Thomas Malthus in his theory (1798) stated that the number of people would increase faster than the food supply. Which of the following statements is NOT supported by Malthus' theory? [1 Mark]
(A) Food shortage would result in a decline in population.
(B) The rate of food supply would be faster than the population growth.
(C) Preventive checks are preferable to control population growth.
(D) To ensure sustainability of resources, population growth needs to be controlled.

Answer: (B) The rate of food supply would be faster than the population growth.

Teacher's Note:
a) Malthus believed population grows faster than food supply, the opposite of statement B.
b) Preventive and positive checks are key terms of Malthus' theory to remember.

9. The table given below shows the crude birth rate and the crude death rate in India. Identify the year that registered the highest natural growth rate?
Decades | Crude Birth rate per 1000 | Crude Death rate per 1000
2001-2011 | 21.8 | 7.1
1991-2001 | 25.4 | 8.4
1981-1991 | 29.5 | 9.8
1971-1981 | 37.2 | 15 [1 Mark]
(A) 1991-2001
(B) 2001-2011
(C) 1971-1981
(D) 1981-1991

Answer: (C) 1971-1981 (Natural growth rate = birth rate - death rate = \( 37.2 - 15 = 22.2 \), the highest among all decades).

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural growth rate is birth rate minus death rate.
b) Calculate for each decade before choosing the option.

10. Which of the following schemes is promoted by the Government for organic farming? [1 Mark]
(A) PM-KISAN
(B) Soil Health Card Scheme
(C) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)
(D) Krishi Vikas Yojana

Answer: (C) Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY)

Teacher's Note:
a) PKVY specifically promotes organic and cluster-based farming.
b) PM-KISAN is an income support scheme, not related to organic farming.

11. In 2019-20, which category of land use has undergone the highest rate of increase in comparison to 1950-51? [1 Mark]
(A) Forest
(B) Barren land & unculturable waste land
(C) Culturable wasteland
(D) Area under non-agricultural use

[Figure: Bar graph titled "Changes in Shares of Land-use Categories in India: 1950-51 and 2019-20" showing per cent of reporting area for 1950-51 and 2019-20. Forests: 17 to 23.4. Area under non-agricultural use: 3.2 to 9.1. Barren and unculturable waste land: 13.4 to 5.4. Permanent pasture and grazing land: 2.3 to 3.4. Area under Misc. Tree crops and groves: 6.9 to 1.0. Culturable Waste Land: 8.0 to 3.9. Fallow other than Current fallow: 6.1 to 3.7. Current fallow: 3.7 to 4.5. Net Area sown: 41.7 to 45.6.]

Answer: (A) Forest

Teacher's Note:
a) Forest area increased from 17% to 23.4%, the largest point increase among the categories.
b) Compare the percentage-point difference between the two years for each bar, not just the visual height.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 11)

The land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is known as: [1 Mark]
(A) Fallow other than Current Fallow
(B) Culturable Wasteland
(C) Current Fallow
(D) Land put to Non-agricultural Uses

Answer: (C) Current Fallow

Teacher's Note:
a) Current fallow is land left uncultivated for one year or less to restore fertility.
b) Do not confuse it with "fallow other than current fallow," which is left uncultivated for more than a year.

12. The map given below shows the major river basins of India. Identify the river basin that covers the states of UP, Bihar and West Bengal. [1 Mark]
(A) Krishna Basin
(B) Pennar Basin
(C) Ganga Basin
(D) Indus Basin

[Figure: Map of India showing major river basins with shaded regions labelled Indus Basin, Ganga Basin, Brahmaputra Basin, Narmada Basin, Tapi Basin, Mahanadi Basin, Godavari Basin, Krishna Basin, Pennar Basin, Kaveri Basin, and west-flowing river groups, with a legend for West Flowing and East Flowing rivers.]

Answer: (C) Ganga Basin

Teacher's Note:
a) The Ganga basin is the largest river basin of India, covering UP, Bihar and West Bengal.
b) Locate the basin on the map by matching state boundaries with the shaded area.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 12)

Name the largest river basin of India. [1 Mark]
(A) Krishna Basin
(B) Pennar Basin
(C) Ganga Basin
(D) Indus Basin

Answer: (C) Ganga Basin

Teacher's Note:
a) The Ganga basin is the largest river basin in India by area and population.
b) It drains UP, Bihar, West Bengal and other states of the Ganga plain.

13. Assertion(A): The Iron and steel industry in India is majorly concentrated in the north eastern part of the Peninsular Plateau.
Reason(R): Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in the old crystalline rocks. [1 Mark]
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(D) R is incorrect but A is correct.

Answer: (A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Teacher's Note:
a) The north eastern Peninsular Plateau has rich deposits of iron ore, coal and manganese in old crystalline rocks.
b) This mineral wealth explains the location of iron and steel plants in the region.

14. There is a declining availability of freshwater and increasing demand from different sectors of the economy in our country. Now the need has arisen to conserve and effectively manage this precious life giving resource for sustainable development. Suggest measures that can be adopted to solve this problem. [1 Mark]
(A) Free and easy access of water to industries.
(B) Constructing new, large-scale dams for irrigation purposes.
(C) Implementing rainwater harvesting, recycling and reusing wastewater.
(D) Extracting more groundwater to increase supply.

Answer: (C) Implementing rainwater harvesting, recycling and reusing wastewater.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rainwater harvesting and recycling promote sustainable water management.
b) Overuse of groundwater or free access to water worsens scarcity, so options A, B and D are wrong.

15. Given below is a list of National Waterways. Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
Stretch | Waterways
1. Allahabad-Haldia | NW-1
2. Kottapuram-Kollam | NW-5
3. Sadiya-Dhubri | NW-2
4. Kakinada-Puducherry | NW-4 [1 Mark]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Answer: (B) 2

Teacher's Note:
a) The Kottapuram-Kollam stretch is actually National Waterway-3, not NW-5.
b) Learn the correct NW numbers: NW-1 Allahabad-Haldia, NW-2 Sadiya-Dhubri, NW-3 Kottapuram-Kollam, NW-4 Kakinada-Puducherry.

16. A coastal district is preparing for an approaching cyclone. The disaster management team needs real-time information on cloud movement and storm intensity. Which satellite system will provide the most reliable support for this purpose? [1 Mark]
(A) IRS - Indian Remote Sensing Satellite
(B) INSAT - Indian National Satellite System
(C) GSAT - Communication satellite for TV channels
(D) PSLV - Launch vehicle for satellites

Answer: (B) INSAT - Indian National Satellite System

Teacher's Note:
a) INSAT provides meteorological data used for weather and cyclone forecasting.
b) IRS is used for resource mapping, not weather monitoring, so it is not the best fit here.

17. Mr. Netra, a 35-year-old unemployed person from a small village in Nepal, has decided to emigrate to a nearby city in the NCR region of India. He has three brothers who work on their family-owned small field, which gives very low returns for the family to survive. Formulate the likely reasons for his emigration.
I. High paid farming jobs are available in the rural area.
II. Better employment opportunities in the city.
III. Sufficient income from agriculture in his village
IV. Better standard of living in rural areas.
V. More opportunities for training and personal development in the city. [1 Mark]
(A) I, III, IV
(B) II, V
(C) III, IV
(D) I, V

Answer: (B) II, V

Teacher's Note:
a) Migration is driven by pull factors like better jobs and training opportunities in the city.
b) Statements I, III and IV describe favourable rural conditions, which contradict the case given, so they are rejected.

SECTION B

Question Nos. 18 and 19 are Source Based Questions.

18. Study the map given below carefully and answer the following questions.

[Figure: Map showing a canal region near the Mediterranean Sea, with the Delta of the Nile, Damietta, Lake Manzala, Shirbin, Tina Bay, El Mansura, El Kantara, Simbillawein, Salhia, Zagazig, Ismailiya, Bir Hassan Lake, Bilbeis, Fayid, Great Bitter Lake, Little Bitter Lake, Cairo, Ain Musa and Sudr, with a legend showing Ship Canal, Railways and Fresh Water Canal, and a label "To Asia" on the right.]

18.1 Identify the canal shown in the map. [1 Mark]

Answer: The map shows the Suez Canal.

Teacher's Note:
a) The presence of Cairo, the Nile delta and the Bitter Lakes identifies this as the Suez Canal.
b) Do not confuse it with the Panama Canal, which lies in Central America.

18.2 Which two water bodies are connected by this Canal? [½+½ Mark]

Answer: The Suez Canal connects the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember both terminal seas to score full marks.
b) The canal runs across the Isthmus of Suez in Egypt.

18.3 State one major significance of this Canal in international trade. [1 Mark]

Answer: It gives Europe a new, shorter gateway to the Indian Ocean, reducing the sea-route distance between Liverpool and Colombo compared to the Cape of Good Hope route, and about 100 ships pass through it daily.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the distance-saving benefit as the key value point.
b) Note the daily traffic figure to show the canal's trade importance.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 18)

18.1 Which two water bodies are connected by the Panama Canal? [1 Mark]

Answer: The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the Pacific Ocean in the west.

Teacher's Note:
a) Note the direction: Atlantic on the east side, Pacific on the west side of the canal.
b) This is opposite to common assumption, so read carefully.

18.2 Between which two cities was the Panama Canal constructed? [½+½ Mark]

Answer: The Panama Canal was constructed across the Panama Isthmus between Panama City and Colon.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember both city names for full marks.
b) The canal is built across the narrow Isthmus of Panama.

18.3 Mention one point explaining how this canal benefits Latin America. [1 Mark]

Answer: The Panama Canal greatly reduces the distance and time of sea travel between the Atlantic and Pacific oceans, facilitating faster and cheaper international trade for the region.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link the answer to trade benefits, not just distance reduction.
b) Mention that it connects Western Europe, the US coasts and East/South-east Asia efficiently.

19. Read the passage given below carefully and answer the following questions.

The uneven spatial distribution of population in India suggests a close relationship between population and physical, socioeconomic and historical factors. As far as the physical factors are concerned, it is clear that climate along with terrain and availability of water largely determines the pattern of the population distribution. Consequently, we observe that the North Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains have higher proportion of population than the interior districts of southern and central Indian States, Himalayas, some of the north eastern and the western states. However, development of irrigation (Rajasthan), availability of mineral and energy resources (Jharkhand) and development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in moderate to high concentration of population in areas which were previously very thinly populated.

I. Define the term population distribution. [1 Mark]

Answer: Population distribution refers to the way people are spaced over the earth's surface.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keep the definition short and precise for a 1 mark question.
b) Do not confuse distribution with density, which is population per unit area.

II. Name one physical factor and one economic factor that influence population distribution. [½+½ Mark]

Answer: Physical factor - climate (or terrain, or availability of water). Economic factor - development of irrigation (or availability of mineral and energy resources, or development of transport network).

Teacher's Note:
a) Take one example each from the passage to save time.
b) Physical factors relate to nature; economic factors relate to human activity.

III. Name one densely populated and one sparsely populated area of India. [½+½ Mark]

Answer: Densely populated - North Indian Plains (or deltas, or Coastal Plains). Sparsely populated - Southern and central Indian States (or Himalayas, or some north eastern states).

Teacher's Note:
a) Pick contrasting regions directly mentioned in the passage.
b) Relate density to terrain and climate suitability for settlement.

SECTION C

Questions number 20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions

20. Explain the concept of human development as introduced by Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq described human development as development that enlarges people's choices and improves their lives, placing people at the centre of all development.
2. The basic goal is to create conditions in which people can lead meaningful, decent lives with dignity.
3. Leading a long and healthy life, gaining knowledge, and having enough means for a decent standard of living are its key aspects, making access to resources, health and education central areas of concern.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always credit Dr Mahbub-ul-Haq as the founder of the human development approach.
b) Mention "enlarging people's choices" as the key phrase examiners look for.
c) Link health, education and income as the three pillars of human development.

21. "The evolution of Indian towns is a reflection of the changing socio-political and economic priorities of different historical eras." Analyse the evolution of modern towns in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The British and other Europeans first developed trading port towns on the coast, such as Surat, Daman, Goa and Pondicherry.
2. The British later consolidated power around Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata, building them in British style, and also developed administrative centres and hill towns as summer resorts.
3. After independence, many towns developed as administrative headquarters, such as Chandigarh, Bhubaneswar and Gandhinagar, and as planned industrial centres like Durgapur, Bhilai and Sindri.

Teacher's Note:
a) Organise the answer chronologically: colonial trading ports, colonial administrative towns, and post-independence planned towns.
b) Quote at least one named example for each phase to earn full marks.
c) Mention satellite towns like Gurugram as a modern trend if space permits.

22. What is Neo-Determinism as introduced by Griffith Taylor? Explain how it provides a middle path between Environmental Determinism and Possibilism? [1+2=3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Neo-determinism, also called "stop-and-go determinism," was introduced by Griffith Taylor. It states that nature sets certain limits on human activities, but within these limits humans are free to choose and develop.
2. It shows that there is neither absolute necessity (as in environmental determinism) nor absolute freedom (as in possibilism); humans must respond to nature's "signals" and proceed only when nature permits.
3. The unchecked "free run" attempted by developed economies has already caused problems like the greenhouse effect, ozone depletion and global warming, so neo-determinism promotes sustainable development in harmony with nature.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember the phrase "stop-and-go determinism" as the alternate name.
b) Explain the "traffic signal" analogy: red signal (nature's limits) and green signal (human freedom).
c) Link the concept to sustainable development for the explanatory part.

23(A) A multinational company wants to outsource work to a country for tasks that require highly skilled knowledge and research, such as R&D, legal services, and analysis. Which type of outsourcing - BPO or KPO - should the company choose, and why? [1+2=3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The company should choose KPO (Knowledge Process Outsourcing).
2. KPO involves outsourcing highly skilled, knowledge-intensive work such as R&D, legal services, business analysis and consultancy, which need specialised expertise and professional knowledge.
3. BPO, in contrast, handles routine, repetitive, process-based tasks like customer support and data entry, so it is not suitable for expert research work.

Teacher's Note:
a) State KPO clearly as the first line to secure the identification mark.
b) Contrast KPO with BPO to justify the choice.
c) Use keywords like "knowledge-intensive" and "specialised expertise."

OR

23(B) What do you understand by the term "Digital Divide?" Explain with one example of how it exists between countries or within a country. [1+2=3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Digital divide refers to the gap between individuals, regions or countries in access to digital technologies such as the internet, computers and digital skills.
2. Between countries, developed nations like the USA and Japan have widespread high-speed internet and advanced digital infrastructure, while many developing countries lack reliable connectivity.
3. Within a country like India, urban areas have better internet access than many rural areas, which widens inequalities in education, employment and access to information.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give the definition first, then the example, to match the 1+2 mark split.
b) Choose either an inter-country or intra-country example clearly, not both vaguely.
c) Link the divide to its impact on education and employment for a complete answer.

SECTION D

Questions number 24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions

24(A) Classify industries based on raw materials and illustrate each category with appropriate examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Agro-based industries use agricultural raw materials, for example sugar, tea and coffee industries.
2. Mineral-based industries use minerals as raw material; these are of two types - metallic, such as iron and steel and copper, and non-metallic, such as cement.
3. Forest-based industries use forest produce, for example timber and paper industries.
4. Chemical-based industries use natural chemical minerals, such as petrochemical and fertiliser industries.
5. Animal-based industries use products obtained from animals, such as leather and woollen industries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give at least one clear example for each category to earn full marks.
b) Remember the sub-division of mineral-based industries into metallic and non-metallic.
c) A common mistake is mixing up forest-based and agro-based categories.

OR

24(B) Explain any five factors influencing the location of industries with suitable examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Access to market: industries locate near large markets to reduce transport cost and reach consumers easily, for example consumer goods industries in cities.
2. Access to raw material: bulky or perishable raw material industries, like sugar mills, are located near raw material sources.
3. Access to labour supply: industries needing skilled or cheap labour, such as textile mills, are set up where labour is easily available.
4. Access to sources of energy: power-intensive industries like aluminium smelting are located near cheap and reliable energy sources.
5. Access to transport and communication facilities: well-connected regions attract industries because they reduce the cost of moving raw material and finished goods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Choose exactly five factors as asked; do not list all seven from the textbook.
b) Give one industrial example for each factor.
c) Government policy and agglomeration economies are useful additional factors if needed.

25(A) Why are seaports known as 'the gateway of international trade'? Write a brief note on the importance of Kandla port. [2+3=5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Seaports act as suction points that link local, regional, national and international markets through the extension of railways and other transport towards the interior.
2. They handle large volumes of domestic and overseas trade, are equipped with modern infrastructure, and about 95% of international trade by volume moves through ocean routes, making ports complex service centres for docking, loading, unloading and storage of cargo.
3. Kandla port (Deendayal Port) is situated at the head of the Gulf of Kuchchh and was developed as a major port to serve the needs of the western and north-western parts of the country.
4. It was developed to reduce the pressure on Mumbai port.
5. It is specially designed to receive large quantities of petroleum, petroleum products and fertiliser, and the offshore terminal at Vadinar further reduces pressure on the port.

Teacher's Note:
a) Split the answer clearly: 2 marks for the general reason, 3 marks for Kandla port.
b) The "95% of trade by volume through ocean routes" statistic is a strong value point.
c) Mention Vadinar as an important supporting fact about Kandla.

OR

25(B) Describe the nature of the changes in the composition of export and import trade of India. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. In exports, the share of agriculture and allied products and manufactured goods has decreased over the years.
2. The share of crude petroleum, petroleum products and other commodities in exports has increased, and engineering goods have shown significant export growth.
3. Among agricultural exports, traditional items like cashew have declined due to tough international competition, while floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar have increased.
4. In imports, foodgrain, capital goods, machinery and equipment dominated during the 1950s and 1960s, but foodgrain imports were discontinued after the 1970s due to the success of the Green Revolution.
5. Foodgrain imports were replaced by fertilisers and petroleum, while machinery, special steel, edible oil and chemicals now make up a large part of India's import basket.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover both exports and imports, with at least two points on each side.
b) The Green Revolution is the key reason for the decline in foodgrain imports.
c) Mention specific commodities like cashew and petroleum to show detailed knowledge.

26(A) The urban waste should be properly treated as a resource for various needs of mankind. Explain the measures that can help in changing urban waste into resources. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Untreated waste ferments slowly and releases toxic biogas, including methane, into the atmosphere; scientific management can harness this to produce usable biogas.
2. Segregation of waste at source into biodegradable, non-biodegradable and hazardous categories is the first essential step, and biodegradable waste can be converted into high-quality organic manure.
3. Recycling of paper, plastic, glass and metals conserves raw materials, saves energy and reduces pollution, while organic waste can be converted into compost or vermicompost for agriculture.
4. Waste-to-energy technologies such as biogas plants and incineration generate electricity and reduce landfill pressure, and treated wastewater can be reused for irrigation, gardening and industry.
5. Scientific landfills with methane recovery prevent soil and groundwater contamination, and public awareness with effective municipal governance supports sustainable waste management overall.

Teacher's Note:
a) Start with segregation at source as the foundational step examiners expect.
b) Mention both compost generation and waste-to-energy as two separate resource uses.
c) Link the final point to the idea of a circular economy.

OR

26(B) How has noise pollution become hazardous in many big cities of India? Explain with examples. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Noise pollution refers to unbearable and uncomfortable noise for human beings; it has become a serious concern only in recent years due to various technological innovations.
2. The main sources are factories, mechanised construction and demolition work, automobiles and aircraft.
3. Additional polluting noise comes from sirens and loudspeakers used during festivals and community programmes.
4. Traffic noise is the biggest nuisance, and its intensity depends on the type of vehicle, aircraft or train and the condition of the road and vehicle.
5. In sea traffic, noise is confined mainly to harbours during loading and unloading, while industrial noise varies with the type of industry and declines with distance.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name at least three sources of noise pollution for a complete answer.
b) Remember that noise pollution is location-specific and decreases with distance.
c) Traffic noise is the most important source to mention first.

27. Distinguish between intensive subsistence farming and extensive commercial grain farming, mentioning any five points. [2½+2½=5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Region: Intensive subsistence farming is found in densely populated regions of monsoon Asia, while extensive commercial grain farming is practised in the interior semi-arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
2. Principal crop: Intensive subsistence farming is dominated by rice or other food crops, while wheat is the principal crop of extensive commercial grain farming, along with corn, barley, oats and rye.
3. Size of holding: Land holdings are very small in intensive subsistence farming due to high population density, whereas farms are very large in commercial grain farming.
4. Labour and mechanisation: Intensive subsistence farming relies on family labour with limited machinery, while commercial grain farming is fully mechanised from ploughing to harvesting.
5. Yield pattern: Intensive subsistence farming has high yield per unit area but low yield per labourer, while commercial grain farming has low yield per acre but high yield per person.

Teacher's Note:
a) Present the points as clear contrasts, covering region, crop, size, labour and yield.
b) Mechanisation level is a high-value keyword examiners look for.
c) Name regions like the Canadian Prairies or Pampas for commercial grain farming if space allows.

28(A) Examine the role of the Indira Gandhi Canal in bringing about changes in the ecology, economy, and society of the Thar Desert region. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ecological impact: the canal has increased soil moisture and vegetation cover in the arid Thar Desert, reducing desert conditions, though it has also caused waterlogging and salinity in some areas.
2. Agricultural development: assured irrigation from the canal has expanded the cultivated area and allowed crops like wheat, cotton and mustard to replace traditional dry farming.
3. Change in cropping pattern: there has been a shift from subsistence crops like bajra to water-intensive commercial crops due to the availability of canal water.
4. Economic transformation: increased agricultural productivity has improved farm incomes, created employment, and encouraged agro-based industries in the region.
5. Social change: the canal has promoted settlement, reduced out-migration, and improved living standards through better infrastructure and socio-economic development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Organise the answer under the three headings given in the question: ecology, economy and society.
b) Mention waterlogging and salinity as a negative ecological effect to show balanced understanding.
c) Link cropping pattern change to canal irrigation as a strong value point.

OR

28(B) Suggest suitable measures to promote sustainable development and improve the quality of life in the Bharmour Tribal Region of Chamba, with reference to its physiographic divisions and river systems. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Development of infrastructure and connectivity: improve road connectivity between valleys and settlements while ensuring minimal ecological damage in this rugged, trans-Himalayan region drained by the Ravi river and its tributaries.
2. Sustainable use of natural resources: promote controlled grazing to prevent degradation of alpine pastures and encourage afforestation to check soil erosion and landslides.
3. Agriculture and livelihood support: promote terrace farming and high-altitude crops suited to local conditions, along with horticulture, medicinal herbs and traditional crafts to diversify income.
4. Water resource management: ensure sustainable use of river water through small irrigation channels and develop hydel projects on tributaries of the Ravi river without harming the environment.
5. Education, health and social development: improve access to education and healthcare in remote areas and promote tribal welfare programmes, skill development and preservation of tribal culture.

Teacher's Note:
a) Refer to the Ravi river and the trans-Himalayan location as required by the question.
b) Cover economic, ecological and social measures for a well-rounded answer.
c) Mention hydel power on tributaries as a specific, region-relevant point.

SECTION E

Question numbers 29 & 30 are Map based questions.

29. On the given political map of the World, seven geographical features have been marked as A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Identify any five with the help of the following information and write their correct names.
A - An Area of nomadic herding
B- A major seaport of Canada
C- A major seaport of Asia
D- An airport in Asia
E- An airport in Australia
F- A man made Canal
G- A waterway of North America [5 Marks]

[Figure: World political outline map with a black line marked with stars stretching across northern Eurasia from Scandinavia to the far east, labelled A; a point on the west coast of Canada labelled B; a point in eastern India labelled C; a point in the Arabian peninsula labelled D; a point in northern Australia labelled E; a point in Central America (Panama) labelled F; and an arrow between the west coast of North America and Central America, near the Great Lakes region, labelled G.]

Answer:
A - Northern part of Eurasia
B - Vancouver
C - Kolkata
D - Jeddah
E - Darwin

Teacher's Note:
a) The question asks for any five of the seven marked features, so choose the ones you are most confident about.
b) Nomadic herding areas are typically found across northern Eurasia's tundra and steppe belts.
c) Learn major world seaports and airports region-wise for quick identification.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 29). Answer five questions out of the following:

29 A. Name one area of nomadic herding of Asia. [1 Mark]

Answer: Arabian peninsula (or Mongolia, or Central China).

Teacher's Note:
a) Any one correctly named nomadic herding region of Asia is accepted.
b) These are typically arid or semi-arid grassland regions.

29 B. Name a major seaport of Canada. [1 Mark]

Answer: Vancouver.

Teacher's Note:
a) Vancouver is located on Canada's Pacific west coast.
b) It is an important port for trade with Asia-Pacific countries.

29 C. Name a major seaport of India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Kolkata.

Teacher's Note:
a) Kolkata port lies on the Hooghly river in eastern India.
b) It serves the trade needs of eastern India and neighbouring landlocked countries.

29 D. Name a major airport in South Africa. [1 Mark]

Answer: Johannesburg.

Teacher's Note:
a) Johannesburg is South Africa's largest and busiest international airport.
b) Remember key African airports for map-based questions.

29 E. Name an airport in Australia. [1 Mark]

Answer: Darwin.

Teacher's Note:
a) Darwin is located in northern Australia.
b) It is an important gateway airport for South-east Asia routes.

29 F. Name the manmade Canal joining the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. [1 Mark]

Answer: Suez Canal.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Suez Canal is a major shortcut for trade between Europe and Asia.
b) It is located in Egypt across the Isthmus of Suez.

29 G. Name one major waterway of North America. [1 Mark]

Answer: St. Lawrence waterway.

Teacher's Note:
a) The St. Lawrence waterway connects the Great Lakes to the Atlantic Ocean.
b) It is important for trade between Canada and the USA.

30. Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the Political Outline map of India with appropriate symbols:
A. The State with the lowest population density
B. An important seaport in Odisha
C. An important coal mine in Tamil Nadu
D. Bailadila -iron ore mines
E. An oil refinery in Gujarat
F. The State leading in the production of Sugarcane
G. An international airport in Kerala [5 Marks]

[Figure: Outline political map of India with points marked - a point in the north-east near Arunachal Pradesh labelled A; a point on the east coast in Odisha labelled B; a point in Chhattisgarh labelled D; a point further east near West Bengal/Odisha border labelled B; a point in Tamil Nadu labelled C; a point on the west coast in Gujarat labelled E; a point in the north near Uttar Pradesh labelled F; and a point in the far south in Kerala labelled G.]

Answer:
A - Arunachal Pradesh
B - Paradwip
C - Neyveli
D - Bailadila iron-ore mines, Chhattisgarh
E - Jamnagar

Teacher's Note:
a) The question requires locating any five of the seven features, so mark the ones you know precisely.
b) Use correct map symbols: a dot for a place, a specific symbol for mines and refineries, as per convention.
c) Learn major mining and refinery locations state-wise for quick recall.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 30). Answer five questions out of the following:

30A. Which Indian state has the lowest population density? [1 Mark]

Answer: Arunachal Pradesh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Arunachal Pradesh has a low population density due to its hilly, forested terrain.
b) Compare this with high-density states like Bihar to understand the contrast.

30B. Name one major seaport located in Odisha. [1 Mark]

Answer: Paradwip.

Teacher's Note:
a) Paradip is an important port for handling iron ore exports.
b) It lies on the east coast of India.

30C. Name an important coal mine located in Tamil Nadu. [1 Mark]

Answer: Neyveli.

Teacher's Note:
a) Neyveli is known for lignite (brown coal) mining.
b) It is one of the few coal-related sites in southern India.

30D. In which state is the famous iron ore mine - Bailadila located? [1 Mark]

Answer: Chhattisgarh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bailadila is a major source of high-grade iron ore in India.
b) It is located in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh.

30E. Name an oil refinery situated in Gujarat. [1 Mark]

Answer: Jamnagar.

Teacher's Note:
a) Jamnagar houses one of the largest oil refineries in India.
b) It is located on the western coast of Gujarat.

30F. Which Indian state is the leading producer of sugarcane? [1 Mark]

Answer: Uttar Pradesh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Uttar Pradesh leads in sugarcane production and has many sugar mills.
b) Maharashtra is another major sugarcane-producing state to remember.

30G. Name one international airport located in Kerala. [1 Mark]

Answer: Thiruvananthapuram.

Teacher's Note:
a) Thiruvananthapuram international airport is located in the state capital of Kerala.
b) Kochi is another major airport of Kerala to keep in mind.