CUET Legal Studies Sample Paper Set B

The question consist of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). You are to examine the two statements carefully and select the best option.

Question. Assertion: Custom per se is law, independent of prior recognition by the sovereign or the judge.
Reason: Custom is source of law but by itself is not law.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : D

Question. Assertion: Idol is a person who can hold property.
Reason: Only human being can be called person not the lifeless things.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : C

Question. Assertion: Laws are means of achieving an end namely social control.
Reason: The ultimate end of law is to secure greatest happiness to greatest number.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : B

Question. Assertion: Every person should have the freedom of speech and expression.
Reason: If a person is stopped from speaking then mankind will lose the truth.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : A

Question. Assertion: Attempt to commit an offence though does not result in any harm, should also be punished)
Reason: A person who tries to cause a prohibited harm and fails, is, in terms of moral culpability, not materially different from the person who tries and succeeds.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : A

Question. Assertion: In India, every state has a High Court in its territory.
Reason: The Constitution of India provides for a High Court in each state.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : D

Question. Assertion: The Council of Ministers at the centre is collectively responsible both to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Reason: The members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to be ministers of the Union Government.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : D

Question. Assertion: The reservation of thirty-three per cent of seats for women in Parliament and State Legislature does not require Constitutional Amendment.
Reason: Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three per cent of seats they contest to wom en candidates witho ut any Constitutional Amendment.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : D

Question. Assertion: We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Democratic Republic. 
Reason: A republic will ensure we have a head of state that is democratically elected and accountable to voters. As a result the head of state will be a more effective constitutional safeguard.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : A

Question. Assertion: Republic Day is celebrated on 26th January every year in the country.
Reason: The Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950.
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is correct explanation to A
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true

Answer : A

Read the definition and elements of the attempt, apply them on the given fact situations and answer the question:

Definition of Attempt: Lord Blackburn has said that “there is no doubt that there is difference between a preparation antecedent to an attempt and the actual attempt, but if the actual transaction has commenced which would have ended in the crime if not interrupted, there is clearly an attempt to commit the crime.”

1. Fault element: Intention or knowledge requisite for committing an offence; and
2. Conduct Element: does any act towards its commission and has crossed the stage of preparation. This act is so closely connected with, and proximate to the commission that it fails in object because of facts not known to him or because of circumstances beyond his control.

Question. ‘RANI’ ran to a well stating that she would jump into it, and she started running towards the well but she was caught before she could reach it.
a) She is not guilty of attempt to commit suicide because she might have changed her mind before jumping into the well.
b) She is guilty of attempt to commit suicide.
c) Right to life includes rights right to die hence a person should not be held responsible for attempt commit suicide.
d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. ‘SINY’ with an intention to pick-pocket puts his hand into MINU’s pocket. MINU had a loaded pistol in his pocket. The thief touches the pistol and trigger goes on, whereby MINU is shot dead.
a) SINY will be liable only for attempting to pickpocket and not for killing because she cannot be treated differently from all other pick-pockets who steal under exactly similar circumstances and same intention, with no risk of causing death and with no greater care to avoid it.
b) SINY will be liable for attempting to murder.
c) SINY will be liable for culpable homicide not am ounting to m urder as his intention was definitely not to kill.
d) None of the above

Answer : A

Question. ‘JAM’ denied food to his wife JANE for several days by keeping her confined in a room with an intention to accelerate her death. JANE ultimately managed to escape.
a) JAM is guilty for attempt to murder his wife.
b) JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife and he was only doing preparation.
c) JAM is not guilty for attempt to murder his wife as she always had option to escape.
d) None of the above

Answer : A

Fill in the blanks: Choose the pair of words which complete the sentence to make logical sense.

Question. The NDA led Government notified the ........... and the National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, thus ending the over two-decade-old ............. of appointing judges of Supreme Court and high courts. Under the new law, a six-member panel headed by ........... will select judges of the apex court and state high courts.
a) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Chief Justice of India
b) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Union Law Minister
c) 121st Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, collegium system, the Prime Minister
d) 99th Constitutional (Amendment) Act 2015, cabinet system, the Prime Minister

Answer : A

Question. The ............... Legislative Assembly on 31st March 2015 passed a controversial Anti-Terrorism Law. Earlier, the passed bill was rejected two times by the then .......... in 2004 and 2008.
a) Bihar, Presidents
b) Madhya Pradesh, Governors
c) Gujarat, Presidents
d) Maharashtra, Governors

Answer : C

Question. The Union Government on the recommendation of the ............ under the chairmanship of ............... has decided to decriminalize Section ........... of the Indian Penal Code.
a) 20th Law Commission, Justice A.P. Shah & 309
b) 20th Law Commission, Justice M.P. Shah & 307
c) Supreme Court, Justice H.L. Dattu & Section 309
d) Planning Commission, Law Minister, section 309

Answer : A

Question. A bench headed by ........... quashed allocation of 214 ............. as ..............
a) Justice H.L. Dattu, coal blocks, illegal and arbitrary
b) Justice R.M. Lodha, coal blocks, illegal and arbitrary
c) Justice T.S. Thakur, licenses, illegal and arbitrary
d) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. Choose the best option for the following statement:
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since:
1. It will be violative of the right to freedom of speech and expression.
2. It will be violative of the right to freedom of conscience and practice & propagation of religion.
3. There is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem.
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) None is correct

Answer : C

Question. Five years’ experience is a must to be able to practice as an advocate in the Supreme Court of India. This rule was prescribed by the ........
a) Bar Council of India
b) Supreme Court of India
c) High Court of Delhi
d) Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India

Answer : A

Question. Union Government recently approved 33 per cent Reservation for Women in:
a) Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all non-gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
b) Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
c) Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted and non-gazetted Police Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.
d) Horizontally and each category (OBC, SC, ST, and others) in direct recruitment in all gazetted and non-gazetted Posts in all Union Territories including Delhi.

Answer : A

Question. As per Indian Protocol, who among the followings ranks highest in the order of precedence?
a) Deputy Prime Minister
b) Former President
c) Governor of a State within his State
d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer : C

Question. Consider the following statements and choose the best option:
1. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the Chief Justice of India.
2. Chief Justice Mr. Justice H.L. Dattu is the present Chairman of NALSA
3. The Chairman of the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the senior most judge (after CJI) of the Supreme Court of India.
4. Hon’ble Mr. Justice T.S. Thakur is the present Chairman of NALSA.
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) None is correct

Answer : C

Question. India and Britain recently signed an “extradition treaty”. Extradition means:
a) Exports without double taxation
b) Order of Indian courts will apply to Indians living in the U.K.
c) India and the U.K. will deport criminals on reciprocal basis to each other
d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question. What is a ‘moot’?
a) A basic point of law
b) A basic fact of case
c) Mock court for practice by students in general
d) Another name for magistrate’s court

Answer : C

Question. The temporary release of a convicted prisoner from jail for a fixed period is called:
a) Bail
b) Parole
c) Acquittal
d) Discharge

Answer : B

Question. The Railway authorities allowed a train to be overcrowded. In consequence, a legitimate passenger, Mr. X got his pocket picked. Choose appropriate answer:
a) Mr. X can sue the railway authorities for the loss suffered.
b) Mr. X cannot sue because he had given his consent to travel in a over-crowded train.
c) Mr. X cannot sue the railway authorities because there was no infringement of legal right and mere fact that the loss was caused does not give rise to a cause of action.
d) None of the above

Answer : C

Question. Choose the best option for the following statement: The distinction between fraud and misrepresentation:
1. Fraud is more or less intentional wrong, whereas misrepresentation may be quite innocent.
2. In addition to rendering the contract voidable, is a cause of action in tort for damages. Simple misrepresentation is not a tort but a person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damages which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract.
3. A person complaining of misrepresentation can be met with the defence that he had “the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence”. But excepting fraud by silence in other cases of fraud it is no defence that “the plaintiff had the means of discovering the truth by ordinary diligence”.
4. None of the above
a) 1 is correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) Only 4 is correct

Answer : C

Question. In a recent case a Supreme Court bench comprising of Justice Dipak Misra and Justice Prafulla C Pant held that the amount of maintenance to be awarded under Section 125 of CrPC cannot be restricted for the iddat period (three months) only as the inherent and fundamental principle behind Section 125. Also, it said that an order under Section 125 CrPC can be passed if a person, despite having sufficient means, neglects or refuses to maintain the wife.
a) Shamima Farooqui vs. Shahid Khan
b) Mohd. Ahmad Khan vs. Shah Bano Begum
c) Hamida Bano vs. Abdul Rasheed
d) Abdul Kadir vs. Salima

Answer : A

Question. Select the correct statements on Social Justice Bench constituted on social issue
1. Constituted by Supreme Court on 3 December 2014
2. Started operation on 12 December 2014
3. The brainchild of Chief Justice of India H.L. Dattu
4. Two-judge bench to be headed by Justice Madan B Lokur
5. The other member is Justice U. U. Lalit
a) 1, 2 and 5 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d) All are correct

Answer : D

Question. Select the correct statements about 14th Finance Commission which submitted its report to President
1. It covers the period between 1 April 2015 and 31 March 2020.
2. The Commission headed by former RBI Governor Y. V. Reddy.
3. Provides for devolution of tax receipts from the Centre to the States.
4. Article 28 0 of Con stitutio n provid es for appointment of Finance Commission.
5. 1st and 13th Finance Commission was headed by K. C. Neogy and Dr Vijay Kelkar respectively.
a) 1, 3 and 5 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d) All are correct

Answer : D

Question. Who administers oath of office to the Governor of a State?
a) President of India
b) Chief Justice of High Court of the respective state
c) Chief Justice of India
d) Speaker of State Assembly

Answer : B

Question. Governor of a State can make Laws during recess of State Legislative Assembly through ............. .
a) Act
b) Bills
c) Notification
d) Ordinance

Answer : D

Question. Who called Indian Constitution as Quasi-Federal?
a) Austin
b) K. C. Wheare
c) H. M. Servai
d) Jennings

Answer : B

Question. President of India exercises his powers......... .
a) Either directly or through officers subordinate to him
b) Through ministers
c) Through Prime Minister
d) Through Cabinet

Answer : A

Question. Vote on accounts is meant for .......... .
a) Vote on the report of CAG
b) To meet unforseen expenditure
c) Appropriating funds pending passing of budget
d) Budget

Answer : C

Question. Principle : Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it.
Facts : ‘A’, a police officer, without warrant, apprehends ‘Z’, who has committed murder.
a) ‘A’ is guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement
b) ‘A’ is not guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement
c) ‘A’ may be guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint
d) ‘A’ cannot apprehend ‘Z’ without a warrant issued by a court of law

Answer : B

Question. Principle : When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.
Facts : Roshan along with two of his friends, Tushar and Tarang proceeded to the house of Darshan in order to avenge an insult made by the brother of Darshan. They opened fire on the members of Darshan’s family. It was found that the shots of Roshan did not hit anyone, but the shots of Tushar and Tarang succeeded in killing Darshan.
a) Roshan was not liable for the offence of murder of Darshan, as Roshan’s shots did not hit Darshan
b) Only Tushar and Tarang were liable for the offence of murder of Darshan, as their shots hit Darshan
c) Roshan along with Tushar and Tarang was liable for the offence of murder of Darshan
d) Roshan was liable to a lesser extent comparing to his friends for the offence of murder of Darshan, as Roshan’s shots did not hit Darshan

Answer : C

Question. Principle : No communication made in good faith in an offence by reason of any harm to the person to whom it is made, if it is made for the benefit of that person.
Facts : ‘A’, a surgeon, in good faith, communicates to a patient his opinion that he cannot live. The patient dies in consequence of the shock.
a) ‘A’ has committed the offence of causing death of his patient
b) ‘A’ has not committed the offence of causing death of his patient
c) ‘A’ has only partially committed the offence of causing death of his patient
d) None of the above

Answer : B

Question. Principle : Whoever, being legally bound to furnish information on any subject to any public servant, as such, furnishes, as true, information on the subject which he knows or has reason to believe to be false, has committed a punishable offence of furnishing false information.
Facts : Sawant, a landholder, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate, willfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred by accident in consequence of the bite of a snake.
a) Sawant is not guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
b) Sawant is guilty of the offence of furnishing false information to the Magistrate
c) Sawant is not legally bound to furnish true information to the Magistrate
d) Sawant has the discretion to furnish true information to the Magistrate, as the murder was committed within the limits of his estate

Answer : B

Question. Principle : Whoever unlawfully or negligently does any act which is, and which he knows or has reason to believe to be, likely to spread the infection of any disease dangerous to life, shall be guilty of a negligent act likely to spread infection of disease dangerous to life.
Facts : ‘K’, a person, knowing that he is suffering from Cholera, travels by a train without informing the railway officers of his condition.
a) ‘K’ has committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers
b) Railway officers are guilty of an unlawful and negligent act, as ‘K’ who is suffering from Cholera disease has travelled by the train
c) ‘K’ has not committed an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellowpassengers
d) Both ‘K’ and Railway officers are guilty of an unlawful and negligent act, which is likely to spread the infection of Cholera disease dangerous to the life of fellow-passengers

Answer : A

Question. Principle : Whoever drives any vehicle, or rides, on any public way in a manner so rash or negligent as to endanger human life, or to be likely to cause hurt or injury to any other person, has committed an offence, which shall be punished in accordance with the law.
Facts : ‘X’, a truck driver, driving his vehicle rashly and negligently at a high speed climbed the footpath and hit ‘Y’, a pedestrian, from behind causing his death.
a) ‘X’ is not guilty of rash and negligent driving
b) ‘Y’ should have taken sufficient care on the footpath
c) ‘X’ is guilty of rash and negligent driving
d) ‘X’ is only in part guilty of rash and negligent driving

Answer : C

Question. Principle : Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that he is likely by such act to cause death, commits the offence of culpable homicide.
Facts : ‘A’ knows ‘Z’ to be behind a bush. ‘B’ does not know it. ‘A’, intending to cause, or knowing it to be likely to cause Z’s death, induces ‘B’ to fire at the bush. ‘B’ fires and kills ‘Z’.
a) ‘B’ has committed the offence of culpable homicide
b) ‘A’ has committed the offence of culpable homicide
c) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’ have committed the offence of culpable homicide
d) None of them has committed the offence of culpable homicide

Answer : B

Question. Principle : Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
Facts : ‘Z’, going on a journey, entrusts his plate to the possession of ‘A’, the keeper of a warehouse, till ‘Z’ shall return. Then, ‘A’ carries the plate to a goldsmith and sells it.
a) ‘A’ has committed theft
b) ‘A’ has not committed theft
c) ‘A’ lawfully sold the plate to the goldsmith
d) None of the above is true

Answer : B

Question. Principle : Whoever makes any false document or part of a document with intent to cause damage or injury, to the public or to any person, or to support any claim or title, or to cause any person to part with property, or to enter into any express or implied contract, or with intent to commit fraud or that fraud may be committed, commits forgery.
Facts : ‘A’ without Z’s authority, affixes Z’s seal to a document purporting to be a conveyance of an estate from ‘Z’ to ‘A’, with the intention of selling the estate to ‘B’ and thereby of obtaining from ‘B’ the purchasemoney.
a) ‘B’ has committed forgery
b) ‘Z’ has committed forgery
c) ‘A’ has committed forgery
d) ‘A’ and ‘B’ have committed forgery

Answer : C

Question. Principle : Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.
Facts : ‘Z’ is riding in a palanquin. ‘A’, intending to rob ‘Z’, seizes the pole and stops the palanquin. Here ‘A’ has caused cessation of motion to ‘Z’, and ‘A’ has done this by his own bodily power.
a) ‘A’ has used criminal force to ‘Z’
b) ‘A’ has no intention to use criminal force to ‘Z’
c) ‘A’ has used force with the consent of ‘Z’
d) None of the above is correct

Answer : A

Question. Principle : One of the essential conditions for a marriage between any two persons to be solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is that at the time of the marriage the male has completed the age of twenty-one years and the female the age of eighteen years. If the said condition is not fulfilled such a marriage is null and void.
Facts : ‘A’, a male aged twenty-two years, proposes to marry ‘B’, a female aged sixteen years, at Delhi in the month of June 2014 under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
a) Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ can be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954.
b) Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ cannot be legally solemnized under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
c) Marriage between ‘A’ and ‘B’ can remain valid for A under the Special Marriage Act, 1954
d) None of the above is correct

Answer : B

Question. Principle : Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 either the husband or the wife can move a petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion. The term ‘desertion’ means desertion of the petitioner by the other party to the marriage for a continuous period of not less than two years immediately preceding the presentation of the petition, without reasonable cause and without the consent or against the wish of such party and the includes the willful neglect of the petitioner by the other party to the marriage, and its grammatical variations and cognate expressions shall be construed accordingly. It is also said that desertion is withdrawal not from a place but from a state of things.
Facts : Rohan, a technocrat, went to US in January 2011 for pursuing his higher studies for a period of three years. In fact, Rohan went to US with the consent of his wife Basanti, who stayed at her parents’ home, and with a promise of his return to India upon the completion of his studies. From US he has quite often been in touch with his wife. Subsequently, Rohan has got a job there in US and he wishes to take his wife. She refuses to go to US and, in the meanwhile, she files a petition for a decree of divorce on the ground of desertion by her husband.
a) Rohan’s three year stay in US in the above context can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
b) Rohan’s three year stay in US in the above context cannot amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
c) Rohan’s continued stay after three years can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.
d) Basanti’s refusal can amount to a ground of desertion for divorce.

Answer : B

Question. Principle : Un der the Hind u Ad options and Maintenance Act, 1956, no person shall be capable of being taken in adoption unless he or she is a Hindu, he or she not already been adopted, he or she has not been married, unless there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who are married being taken in adoption, and he or she has not completed the age of fifteen years, unless there is a custom or usage applicable to the parties which permits persons who have completed the age of fifteen years being take in adoption.
Facts: Vijay being natural father had given Tarun, a boy aged 10 years, in adoption to Manoj in March 2010 in accordance with the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956. In May 2012 Manoj gave Tarun in adoption to Sanjay. Subsequently in December 2013, Sanjay gave Tarun in adoption to Vijay.
a) Adoption of Tarun by Sanjay is valid
b) Adoption of Tarun by Vijay is valid
c) Adoption of Tarun by Manoj is valid
d) None of the above adoptions is valid

Answer : C

Question. Principle : Under copyright law copyright subsists in original literary works also. A literary work need not be of literary quality. Even so prosaic a work as an index of railway stations or a railway guide or a list of stock exchange quotations qualifies as a literary work if sufficient work has been expended in compiling it to give it a new and original character.
Facts : Michael works hard enough, walking down the streets, taking down the names of people who live at houses and makes a street directory as a result of that labour.
a) Michael’s exercise in making a street directory is sufficient to justify in making claim to copyright in that work which is ultimately produced
b) Michael’s exercise in making a street directory is not enough to justify in making claim to copyright in that work
c) A street directory cannot be enough to be considered as a literary work
d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer : A

Question. Principle: Every person shall be liable to punishment under the Indian Penal Code and not otherwise for every act or omission contrary to the provisions of the Code of which he shall be guilty within the territory of India. In other words, the exercise of criminal jurisdiction depends upon the locality of the offence committed, and not upon the nationality or locality of the offender.
Facts: ‘X’, a Pakistani citizen, while staying at Karachi, made false representations to ‘Y’, the complainant, at Bombay through letters, telephone calls and telegrams and induced the complainant to part with money amounting to over rupees five lakh to the agents of ‘X’ at Bombay, so that rice could be shipped from Karachi to India as per agreement. But the rice was never supplied to the complainant.
a) The offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code was committed by ‘X’ within India, even though he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime
b) The offence of cheating as per section 420 of the Code was not committed by ‘X’ within India, as he was not physically present at the time and place of the crime
c) Only the agents of ‘X’ had committed the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code within India, as they were physically present at the time and place of the crime
d) ‘Y’ was also liable for the offence of cheating under section 420 of the Code within India, as he was physically present at the time and place of the crime

Answer : A