JEE Chemistry Full Syllabus MCQs

Refer to JEE Chemistry Full Syllabus MCQs provided below. JEE (Main) Full Syllabus Chemistry MCQs with answers available in Pdf for free download. The MCQ Questions for Full Syllabus Chemistry with answers have been prepared as per the latest syllabus, JEE (Main) books and examination pattern suggested in Full Syllabus by JEE (Main), NCERT and KVS. Multiple Choice Questions for All Chapters are an important part of exams for Full Syllabus Chemistry and if practiced properly can help you to get higher marks. Refer to more Chapter-wise MCQs for JEE (Main) Full Syllabus Chemistry and also download more latest study material for all subjects

MCQ for Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters

Full Syllabus Chemistry students should refer to the following multiple-choice questions with answers for All Chapters in Full Syllabus. These MCQ questions with answers for Full Syllabus Chemistry will come in exams and help you to score good marks

All Chapters MCQ Questions Full Syllabus Chemistry with Answers

 

Question:  An acidic solution of 'X' does not give precipitate on passing H2S through it. 'X' gives white precipitate when NH4OH is added to it. The white precipitate dissolves in excess of NaOH solution. Pure 'X' fumes in air and dense white fumes are obtained when a glass rod dipped in NH4OH is put in the fumes. Compound 'X' can be

  • a) ZnCl2
  • b) FeCl3
  • c) SnCl2
  • d) AlCl3

Answer: ZnCl2

 

Question: CN is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that

  • a) it is a pseudohalide
  • b) it carries negative charge
  • c) it can accept electrons from metal species
  • d) it forms high spin complexes with metal species

Answer: it is a pseudohalide

 

Question: The weight of NaCl decomposed by 4.9g of H2SO4, if 6 g of sodium hydrogen sulphate and 1.825 g of HCl, were produced in the reaction is

  • a) 2.925 g
  • b) 6.921 g
  • c) 4.65 g
  • d) 1.4 g

Answer: 2.925 g

 

Question: Which one of the following statement is not true ?

  • a) Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish
  • b) Clean water would have a BOD value of less than 5 ppm
  • c) Oxides of sulphur, nitrogen and carbon are the most widespread air pollutant
  • d) pH of drinking water should be between 5.5 – 9.5

Answer: Concentration of DO below 6 ppm is good for the growth of fish

 

Question: Which of the following statements is not correct for nitrogen ?

  • a) d-orbitals are available for bonding
  • b) Its electronegativity is very high
  • c) It is a typical non-metal
  • d) Its molecular size is small

Answer: d-orbitals are available for bonding

 

Question: Which of the following statement is false ?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: 0.4 moles of HCl and 0.2 moles of CaCl2 were dissolved in water to have 500 mL of solution, the molarity of Cl ion is:

  • a) 1.6 M
  • b) 0.8 M
  • c) 1.2 M
  • d) 10.0 M

Answer: 1.6 M

 

Question: In sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into

  • a) Sodium cyanide
  • b) Sodium nitrate
  • c) Sodamide
  • d) Sodium nitrite

Answer: Sodium cyanide

 

Question: Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm. whose radius and length 7 Å & 10 Å respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023, find molecular weight of virus

  • a) 15.4 kg/mol
  • b) 3.08 × 104 kg/mol
  • c) 3.08 × 103 kg/mol
  • d) 1.54 × 104 kg/mol

Answer: 15.4 kg/mol

 

Question:  Inductive effect involves

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: The energy of a photon is 3 × 10–12 erg. What is its wavelength in nm ?

(h = 6.62 × 10–27 erg-sec; c = 3 × 1010 cm/s)

  • a) 662
  • b) 66.2
  • c) 1324
  • d) 6.62

Answer: 662

 

Question: Among the following compounds (I - III), the ease of their reaction with electrophiles is,

  • a) I > II > III
  • b) III > II > I
  • c) II > III > I
  • d) II > I > III

Answer: I > II > III

 

Question: Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda since

  • a) washing soda reacts with Al to form insoluble aluminium oxide
  • b) washing soda reacts with Al to form soluble aluminate
  • c) washing soda is easily decomposed
  • d) washing soda is expensive

Answer: washing soda reacts with Al to form insoluble aluminium oxide

 

Question: The following data are for the decomposition of ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution

  • a) One
  • b) Three
  • c) Zero
  • d) Two

Answer: One

 

Question: Which of the following reagents convert propene to 1- propanol?

  • a) B2H6, H2O2, OH
  • b) aqueous KOH
  • c) H2O, H2SO4
  • d) None of these

Answer: B2H6, H2O2, OH

 

Question: A closed container contains equal number of oxygen and hydrogen molecules at a total pressure of 740 mm. If oxygen is removed form the system then pressure will

  • a) Become half of 740 mm
  • b) Become double of 740 mm
  • c) Become 1/9 of 740 mm
  • d) Remains unchanged

Answer: Become half of 740 mm

 

Question: Compound X of molecular formula C4H6 takes up one equivalent of hydrogen in presence of Pt to form another compound Y which on ozonolysis gives only ethanoic acid. The compound X can be

  • a) All the three
  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer: All the three

 

Question: 1 M solution of CH3COOH should be diluted to ___________ times so that pH is doubled.

  • a) 5.55 × 104 times
  • b) 10–2 times
  • c) four times
  • d) 5.55 × 106 times

Answer: 5.55 × 104 times

 

Question: Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?

  • a) Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.
  • b) Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is thermodynamically feasible
  • c)

  • d)

Answer: Carbon and hydrogen are suitable reducing agents for metal sulphides.

 

Question: Which one of the following is NOT a buffer solution?

  • a) 0.05 M KClO4 + 0.05 M HClO4
  • b) 3MH2CO3 + 3MKHCO3
  • c) 0.8 MH2 S + 0.8 M KHS
  • d) None of these

Answer: 0.05 M KClO4 + 0.05 M HClO4

 

Question: Which of the following statements is false ?

  • a) The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is helium
  • b) Xenon is the most reactive among the rare gases
  • c) Helium is inert gas
  • d) Radon is obtained from the decay of radium

Answer: The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is helium

 

Question: Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomerism?

(en = ethylenediamine)

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy?

  • a) Manganese (Z = 25)
  • b) Vanadium (Z = 23)
  • c) Chromium (Z = 24)
  • d) Iron (Z = 26)

Answer: Manganese (Z = 25)

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a) 5, 6, 3, 3
  • b) 3, 5, 3, 6
  • c) 5, 3, 6, 3
  • d) 5, 6, 5, 5

Answer: 5, 6, 3, 3

 

Question: Which of the following statements is true?

  • a) Bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2
  • b) Mn(III) oxidation state is more stable than Mn(II) in aqueous state
  • c) Elements of 15th group shows only +3 and +5 oxidation states
  • d) Silicon exhibits 4 coordination number in its compound

Answer: Bond energy of F2 is less than Cl2

 

Question: Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

  • a) All the transition metals form monometallic carbonyls
  • b) Carbonyls are formed by transition metals
  • c) Transition metals form complexes
  • d) Nickel forms Ni(CO)4

Answer: All the transition metals form monometallic carbonyls

 

Question: Hydrogen has an ionisation energy of 1311 kJ mol–1 and for chlorine it is 1256 kJ mol–1. Hydrogen forms H+ (aq) ions but chlorine does not form Cl+ (aq) ions because

  • a) Cl+ has lower hydration enthalpy
  • b) Cl has high electron affinity
  • c) Cl has high electronegativity
  • d) H+ has lower hydration enthalpy

Answer: Cl+ has lower hydration enthalpy

 

Question: The number of enantiomers of the compound CH3 CHBr CHBrCOOHis

  • a) 4
  • b) 2
  • c) 3
  • d) 6

Answer: 4

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: Which of these have no unit?

  • a) Electronegativity
  • b) Ionisation energy
  • c) Electron affinity
  • d) Electron affinity

Answer: Electronegativity

 

Question: Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi-bonds formed between two carbon atoms?

  • a) Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively
  • b) Free rotation of atoms about a sigma-bond is allowed but not in case of a pi-bond
  • c) Sigma-bond is stronger than a pi-bond
  • d) Sigma-bond determines the direction between carbon atoms but a pi-bond has no primary effect in this regard

Answer: Bond energies of sigma- and pi-bonds are of the order of 264 kJ/mol and 347 kJ/mol, respectively

 

Question: The reactivity of metals with water is in the order of

  • a) Na > Mg > Zn >Fe > Cu
  • b) Cu > Fe > Zn > Mg > Na
  • c) Mg > Zn > Na > Fe > Cu
  • d) Zn > Na > Mg > Fe > Cu

Answer: Na > Mg > Zn >Fe > Cu

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

The above shown polymer is obtained when a carbonyl compound is allowed to stand. It is a white solid. The polymer is

  • a) Trioxane
  • b) Paraformaldehyde
  • c) Formose
  • d) Metaldehyde.

Answer: Trioxane

 

Question: The correct order of atomic/ionic sizes is

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: In the diazotization of arylamines with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid, an excess of hydrochloric acid is used primarily to

  • a) Supress the concentration of free aniline available for coupling
  • b) Supress hydrolysis of phenol
  • c) Ensure a stoichiometric amount of nitrous acid
  • d) Neutralise the base liberated

Answer: Supress the concentration of free aniline available for coupling

 

Question:

  • a) adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3
  • b) adsorption of litmus by H2O
  • c) adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)4
  • d) none of these

Answer: adsorption of litmus by Al(OH)3

 

Question:

  • a) –, –
  • b) +, –
  • c) +, +
  • d) –, +

Answer: –, –

 

Question: Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a pair of functional isomers. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of dimethyl ether, due to the presence of

  • a) H-bonding in ethanol
  • b) H-bonding in dimethyl ether
  • c) CH3 group in ethanol
  • d) CH3 group in dimethyl ether

Answer: H-bonding in ethanol

 

Question: Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of anisole?

  • a) Reaction of methylmagnesium iodide with phenol
  • b) Reaction of diazomethane with phenol
  • c) Sodium phenoxide is treated with methyl iodide
  • d) Phenol + dimethyl sulphate in presence of a base

Answer: Reaction of methylmagnesium iodide with phenol

 

Question: What will be the heat of formation of methane, if the heat of combustion of carbon is '–x' kJ, heat of formation of water is '–y' kJ and heat of combustion of methane is 'z' kJ ?

  • a) (–x – 2y + z) kJ
  • b) (–z – x + 2y) kJ
  • c) (–x – y + z) kJ
  • d) (–x – 2y – z) kJ

Answer: (–x – 2y + z) kJ

 

Question: The angular momentum of the electron in first excited energy state of hydrogen atom is

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d) None of these

Answer:

 

Question: When NaCl is dopped with 1.0 × 10–3 mole of SrCl2, the number of cation vacancy is

  • a) 6.023 × 1020
  • b) 3.011 × 1020
  • c) 2 × 6.023 × 1020
  • d) 6.023 × 1018

Answer: 6.023 × 1020

 

Question: A 0.5 M NaOH solution offers a resistance of 31.6 ohm in a conductivity cell at room temperature. What shall be the approximate molar conductance of this NaOH solution if cell constant of the cell is 0.367 cm–1.

  • a) 23.2 S cm2 mole–1
  • b) 54.64 S cm2 mole–1
  • c) 23.4 S cm2 mole–1
  • d) 46.45 S cm2 mole–1

Answer: 23.2 S cm2 mole–1

 

Question: Ammonium dichromate on heating gives

  • a) chromium sesquioxide & nitrogen
  • b) chromium sesquioxide & ammonia
  • c) chromic acid and N2
  • d) chromic acid & ammonia

Answer: chromium sesquioxide & nitrogen

 

Question: Predict the relative acidic strength among the following

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: The catalyst used in the preparation of an alkyl chloride by the action of dry HCl on an alcohol is

  • a) anhydrous ZnCl2
  • b) anhydrous AlCl3
  • c) FeCl3
  • d) Cu

Answer: anhydrous ZnCl2

 

Question:  In which of the following, resonance will be possible?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: The four quantum numbers that could identify the third 3p electron in sulphur are

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Calculate Keq for the cell at 20°C formed by two electrodes

  • a) 1032
  • b) 10–42
  • c) 1041
  • d) 10–32

Answer: 1032

 

Question: Calculate the pH of a solution obtained by mixing 2 ml of HCl of pH 2 and 3 ml of solution of KOH of pH = 12

  • a) 11.30
  • b) 10.30
  • c) 3.70
  • d) None of these

Answer: 11.30

 

Question: Which of the following represents a correct sequence of reducing power of the following elements?

  • a) Li > Cs > Rb
  • b) Cs > Li > Rb
  • c) Rb > Cs > Li
  • d) Li > Rb > Cs

Answer: Li > Cs > Rb

 

Question: Paramagnetism of Cr (Z = 24), Mn2+ (Z = 25) and Fe3+ (Z = 26) are x, y and z respectively. They are in the order

  • a) x > y = z
  • b) x > y > z
  • c) x = y = z
  • d) x = y > z

Answer: x > y = z

 

Question: Indicate the wrongly named compound

  • a) None of these
  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer: None of these

 

Question: Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give urotropine is

  • a) (CH2)6N4
  • b) (CH2)4N3
  • c) (CH2)6N6
  • d) (CH2)3N3

Answer: (CH2)6N4

 

Question: The favourable condition for a process to be spontaneous is

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: Vapour pressure (in torr) of an ideal solution of two liquids A and B is given by : P = 52XA + 114 where XA is the mole fraction of A in the mixture. The vapour pressure (in torr) of equimolar mixture of the two liquids will be

  • a) 140
  • b) 166
  • c) 83
  • d) 280

Answer: 140

 

Question: The decomposition of a substance follows first order kinetics. Its concentration is reduced to 1/8th of its initial value in 24 minutes. The rate constant of the decomposition process is

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: Fluorine does not show highest oxidation state opposite to other halogens, because

  • a) it has no d-orbital
  • b) it is most electronegative
  • c) its atomic radius is very small
  • d) F ion is stable and isoelectronic with neon

Answer: it has no d-orbital

 

Question: Glucose contains in addition to aldehyde group

  • a) one primary –OH and four secondary –OH groups
  • b) one secondary –OH and four primary –OH groups
  • c) two primary –OH and three secondary –OH groups
  • d) three primary –OH and two secondary –OH groups

Answer: one primary –OH and four secondary –OH groups

 

Question: Which of the following product is obtained by treating 1- butyne with HgSO4 and H2SO4?

  • a) CH3CH2COCH3
  • b) CH3CH2CH2COOH
  • c) None of these
  • d) CH3CH2CH2CHO

Answer: CH3CH2COCH3

 

Question: An example of Perkin’s reaction is

  • a)

  • b)

  • c) None of these
  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: The product obtained on reaction of C2H5Cl with hydrogen over palladium carbon is

  • a) C2H6
  • b) C3H8
  • c) C4H10
  • d) C2H4

Answer: C2H6

 

Question: Which of the following can be predicted from electronegativity values of elements ?

  • a) Polarity of bonds
  • b) Position in electrochemical series
  • c) Dipole moment of a molecule
  • d) None of these

Answer: Polarity of bonds

 

Question:

  • a) disproportionation reaction
  • b) decomposition reaction
  • c) reduction reaction
  • d) oxidation reaction

Answer: disproportionation reaction

 

Question: The concentration of a reactant X decreases from 0.1 M to 0.005 M in 40 min. If the reaction follows first order kinetics, the rate of the reaction when the concentration of X is 0.01 M will be

  • a) 7.5 × 10–4 M min–1
  • b) 3.47 × 10–4 M min–1
  • c) 1.73 × 10–4 M min–1
  • d) 3.47 × 10–5 M min–1

Answer: 7.5 × 10–4 M min–1

 

Question: Mark the false statement?

  • a)

  • b) The efficiency of a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell is 23%
  • c) A salt bridge is used to eliminate liquid junction potential
  • d) None of these

Answer:

 

Question: The paramagnetism of transition element compounds is due to

  • a)

  • b) paired eletrons spining in opposite directions
  • c) shared valance electrons
  • d) 

Answer:

 

Question: Aniline, chloroform and alcoholic KOH react to produce a bad smelling substance which is

  • a) phenyl isocyanide
  • b) phenyl cyanide
  • c) chlorobenzene
  • d) benzyl alcohol.

Answer: phenyl isocyanide

 

Question: The species with a radius less than that of Ne is

  • a) Mg2+
  • b) F
  • c) K+
  • d) O2

Answer: Mg2+

 

Question:

  • a) 35.0
  • b) 66.67
  • c) 33.33
  • d) 30.0

Answer: 35.0

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d) None of these

Answer:

 

Question: H3PO3 is

  • a) a dibasic acid
  • b) basic
  • c) neutral
  • d) a tribasic acid

Answer: a dibasic acid

 

Question: Of the following which is diamagnetic in nature?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: Which of the following products is formed when benzaldehyde is treated with CH3MgBr and the addition product so obtained is subjected to acid hydrolysis ?

  • a) A secondary alcohol
  • b) Phenol
  • c) A primary alcohol
  • d) tert-Butyl alcohol

Answer: A secondary alcohol

 

Question: Mole fraction of methanol in its aqueous solution is 0.5. The concentration of solution in terms of percent by mass of methanol is

  • a) 64
  • b) 36
  • c) 50
  • d) 72

Answer: 64

 

Question: The unit cell of an ionic compound is a cube in which cations (A) occupy each of the corners and anions (B) are at the centres of each face . The simplest formula of the ionic compound is

  • a) AB3
  • b) A4B3
  • c) AB2
  • d) A3B

Answer: AB3

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall- Heroult process is carried out

  • a) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature
  • b) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting temperature
  • c) in the presence of NaCl
  • d) in the presence of fluorite

Answer: in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature

 

Question:

  • a) 6, 3, 6, 0
  • b) 7, 1, 6, 4
  • c) 7, 2, 7, 1
  • d) 6, 2, 7, 3

Answer: 6, 3, 6, 0

 

Question: Nylon is a :

  • a) polyamide
  • b) polysaccharide
  • c) polyester
  • d) all of the above

Answer: polyamide

 

Question:

  • a) 3, 5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzene sulphonic acid
  • b) 2-bromophenol
  • c) 2-bromo-4-hydroxylbenzene sulphonic acid
  • d) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol

Answer: 3, 5-dibromo-4-hydroxybenzene sulphonic acid

 

Question: The non-polar molecule is

  • a) SO3
  • b) ClO2
  • c) NF3
  • d) CHCl3

Answer: SO3

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d) None of these

Answer:

 

Question: Solution of potash alum is acidic in nature. This is due to hydrolysis of

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question: When conc. HNO3 acts on our skin, the skin becomes yellow, because

  • a) The proteins are converted into xanthoproteins
  • b) Nitro-cellulose is formed
  • c) HNO3 acts as a dehydrating agent
  • d) HNO3 acts as an oxidising agent

Answer: The proteins are converted into xanthoproteins

 

Question:

Fluorine is more electronegative than either boron or phosphorus. What conclusion can be drawn from the fact that BF3 has no dipole moment but PF3 does ?

  • a)

    The BF3 molecule must be planar triangular

  • b)

    The atomic radius of P is larger than that of B

  • c)

    BF3 molecule must be linear

  • d)

    BF3 is not spherically symmetrical but PF3 is spherically symmetrical.

Answer:

The BF3 molecule must be planar triangular

 

Question:

The volume-temperature graphs of a given mass of an ideal gas at constant pressure are shown below.

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Which is the most suitable reagent among the following to distinguish compound (3) from rest of the compounds ?

  • a)

    Ammonical silver nitrate

  • b)

    Alk KMnO4

  • c)

    Bromine in acetic acid

  • d)

    Bromine in carbon tetrachloride

Answer:

Ammonical silver nitrate

 

Question:

In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the bessemer converter due to the reaction :

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

An example of electrophilic substitution reaction is

  • a)

    Nitration of benzene

  • b)

    Formation of ethylene from ethyl alcohol

  • c)

    Conversion of methyl chloride to methyl alcohol

  • d)

    Chlorination of methane

Answer:

Nitration of benzene

 

Question:

Which of the following molecules is most suitable to disperse benzene in water ?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Ozone hole refers to

  • a)

    Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in stratsophere

  • b)

    Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in troposphere

  • c)

    Hole in ozone layer

  • d)

    Increase in concentration of ozone

Answer:

Reduction in thickness of ozone layer in stratsophere

 

Question:

Which of the following does not represent the correct order of the properties indicated

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

    III and V

  • b)

    IV and V

  • c)

    I and IV

  • d)

    II and V

Answer:

III and V

 

Question:

In an adiabatic process which of the following is true?

  • a)

    q = 0

  • b)

    q = + w

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

q = 0

 

Question:

In which of the following cases, the stability of two oxidation states is correctly represented

  • a)

    Mn2+ > Mn3+

  • b)

    Cu+ > Cu2+

  • c)

    Ti3+ > Ti4+

  • d)

    Fe2+ > Fe3+

Answer:

Mn2+ > Mn3+

 

Question:

Which is not the disproportionation reaction ?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

The correct order of solubility in water for He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe is

  • a)

    Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

  • b)

    Ne > Ar > Kr > He > Xe

  • c)

    Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe

  • d)

    He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xe

Answer:

Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > He

 

Question:

  • a)

    Molecularity of the reaction is 2

  • b)

    The unit of k is s–1

  • c)

    Molecularity of the reaction is 3/2

  • d)

    The reaction is of second order

Answer:

Molecularity of the reaction is 2

 

Question:

If uncertainty in position and velocity are equal then uncertainty in momentum will be

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

    N, N-dimethylcyclopropanecarboxamide

  • b)

    N-methylcyclopropanamide

  • c)

    cyclopropionamide

  • d)

    none of the above

Answer:

N, N-dimethylcyclopropanecarboxamide

 

Question:

Which of the following shows iso-structural species?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

When dihydroxyacetone reacts with HIO4, the product is/ are :

  • a)

    HCHO and CO2

  • b)

    HCOOH

  • c)

    HCHO

  • d)

    HCHO and HCOOH

Answer:

HCHO and CO2

 

Question:

Hard water when passed through ion exchange resin containing R’COOH groups, becomes free from :

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

A certain compound (X) when treated with copper sulphate solution yields a brown precipitate. On adding hypo solution, the precipitate turns white. The compound is

  • a)

    K3PO4

  • b)

    KI

  • c)

    K2CO3

  • d)

    KBr

Answer:

K3PO4

 

Question:

  • a)

    – X2 kJ mol– 1

  • b)

    – X4 kJ mol– 1

  • c)

    + X3 kJ mol– 1

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

– X2 kJ mol– 1

 

Question:

The restricted rotation about carbon carbon double bond in 2-butene is due to

  • a)

    Sideways overlap of two p- orbitals

  • b)

    Overlap of one p- and one sp2-hybridized orbitals

  • c)

    Overlap of two sp2- hybridized orbitals

  • d)

    Overlap of one s- and sp2-hybridized orbitals

Answer:

Sideways overlap of two p- orbitals

 

Question:

A balloon has maximum capacity of 20 L. At one atmospheric pressure 10 L of air is filled in the balloon. It will burst when pressure is (assuming isothermal condition)

  • a)

    < 0.5 atm

  • b)

    > 0.5 atm

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

< 0.5 atm

 

Question:

Which one of the following complexes will have four different isomers ?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Solubility product of a salt AB is 1 × 10–8 in a solution in which the concentration of A+ ions is 10–3 M. The salt will precipitate when the concentration of B– ions is kept

  • a)

    > 10–5 M

  • b)

    < 10–8 M

  • c)

    between 10–7 M to 10–8 M

  • d)

    between 10–8 M to 10–7 M

Answer:

> 10–5 M

 

Question:

  • a)

    D-glucose + D-fructose

  • b)

    D-glucose + L-fructose

  • c)

    L-glucose + L-fructose

  • d)

    L-glucose + L-fructose

Answer:

D-glucose + D-fructose

 

Question:

Select correct statement(s).

  • a)

    All of the above

  • b)

    CaC2 has NaCl type lattice

  • c)

    Mg2C3 reacts with water to form propyne

  • d)

    Cyanamide ion (CN 2–) is isoelectronic with CO2 and has the same linear structure

Answer:

All of the above

 

Question:

In DNA the complementary bases are

  • a)

    adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

  • b)

    uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine

  • c)

    adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosine

  • d)

    adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil

Answer:

adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine

 

Question:

Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm. When 15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure decreased to 120.2 mm. The molecular weight of the solute (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78)

  • a)

    356.2

  • b)

    530.1

  • c)

    456.8

  • d)

    656.7

Answer:

356.2

 

Question:

  • a)

    2.0

  • b)

    3.0

  • c)

    1.5

  • d)

    2.5

Answer:

2.0

 

Question:

In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hydrides gradually becomes closer to 90º on going from N to Sb. This shows that gradually

  • a)

  • b)

    The basic strength of the hydrides increases

  • c)

    The bond energies of M-H bonds increase

  • d)

    The bond pairs of electrons become nearer to the central atom

Answer:

 

Question:

If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively,

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Which of the following is correct order of acidity?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

 

Question:

Penicillin is

  • a)

    antibiotic

  • b)

    antipyretic

  • c)

    antimalarial

  • d)

    analgesic

Answer:

antibiotic

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Which of the following reactions can produce aniline as main product?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Which of the following reactions is used to make a fuel cell?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

 

Question:

Which does not exist ?

  • a)

    [CCl6]2–

  • b)

    [SiCl6]2–

  • c)

    [GeF6]2–

  • d)

    [SnCl6]2–

Answer:

[CCl6]2–

 

Question:

In which case, van’t Hoff factor i remains unchanged ?

  • a)

    aq. ZnCl2 reacts with aq. NH3

  • b)

    PtCl4 reacts with aq. KCl

  • c)

    KMnO4 reduced to MnO2 in alkaline medium

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

aq. ZnCl2 reacts with aq. NH3

 

Question:

The unit of equivalent conductivity is

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

    S cm–2

  • d)

    ohm cm

Answer:

 

Question:

Perlon is

  • a)

    Nylon – 6

  • b)

    Terylene

  • c)

    Rubber

  • d)

    Polyester

Answer:

Nylon – 6

 

Question:

Tertiary nitro compounds do not tautomerise because

  • a)

  • b)

    there is no double bond

  • c)

    oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen

  • d)

    all of the above

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

    Cyclo hexane-1-ethyl-3-methyl

  • b)

    1-ethyl-3 methyl cyclo hexane

  • c)

    1-ethyl-3 methyl benzene

  • d)

    1-methyl-3 ethyl cyclohexane

Answer:

Cyclo hexane-1-ethyl-3-methyl

 

Question:

Which of the following structures does not contain any chiral C atom but represent the chirality in the structure

  • a)

    2, 3-Pentadiene

  • b)

    Pent – 3 – en – 1 – yne

  • c)

    2 – Ethyl – 3 – hexene

  • d)

    1,3 – Butadiene

Answer:

2, 3-Pentadiene

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

 

Question:

In a compound AOH, electronegativity of ‘A’ is 2.1, the compound would be

  • a)

    Neutral towards acid & base

  • b)

    Acidic

  • c)

    Basic

  • d)

    Amphoteric

Answer:

Neutral towards acid & base

 

Question:

Which of the following orders is wrong?

  • a)

    Ist ionisation potential – Be < B < N < O

  • b)

    Electron affinity– N < O < F < Cl

  • c)

    Basic property– MgO < CaO < FeO < Fe2O3

  • d)

    Reactivity–Be < Li < K < Cs

Answer:

Ist ionisation potential – Be < B < N < O

 

Question:

Following substances are in solid state :
(A) Methane    (B) Cesium chloride
(C) Ice             (D) Lithium

Which non-conductive solid when melts converts into conductive liquid?

  • a)

    Only B

  • b)

    C, D

  • c)

    Only C

  • d)

    A, B and C

Answer:

Only B

 

Question:

  • a)

    More water will be formed

  • b)

    More ice will be formed

  • c)

    Equilibrium will not be disturbed

  • d)

    Water will evaporate

Answer:

More water will be formed

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

    5.97

  • b)

    9.60

  • c)

    2.34

  • d)

    6.97

Answer:

5.97

 

Question:

  • a)

    400 kJ mol–1

  • b)

    100 kJ mol–1

  • c)

    200 kJ mol–1

  • d)

    300 kJ mol–1

Answer:

400 kJ mol–1

 

Question:

Equal volume of 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M glucose are mixed. The mixture will have

  • a)

    Same osmotic pressure

  • b)

    Higher osmotic pressure

  • c)

    None of these

  • d)

    Lower osmotic pressure

Answer:

Same osmotic pressure

 

Question:

  • a)

    0.04 V

  • b)

    0.33 V

  • c)

    1.21 V

  • d)

    0.605 V

Answer:

0.04 V

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • a)

    Vinyle chloride undergo nucleophilic substitution more readily than CH3Cl.

  • b)

    C – Cl bond in vinyl chloride is shorter than in CH3Cl

  • c)

    C – Cl bond in vinyl chloride is stronger than in CH3Cl

  • d)

    C– Cl bond in vinyl chloride is less polar than in CH3Cl

Answer:

Vinyle chloride undergo nucleophilic substitution more readily than CH3Cl.

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Although Al has a high oxidation potential it resists corrosion because of the formation of a tough, protective coat of

  • a)

    Al2O3

  • b)

    Al(NO3)2

  • c)

    AlN

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

Al2O3

 

Question:

A metal which is not affected by conc. H2SO4, HNO3 or alkalis forms a compound X. This compound X can be used to give a complex which finds its application for toning in photography? The metal is

  • a)

    Au

  • b)

    Hg

  • c)

    Ag

  • d)

    Cu

Answer:

Au

 

Question:

If Cl2 gas is passed into aqueous solution of KI containing some CCl4 and the mixture is shaken, then

  • a)

    Lower layer becomes violet

  • b)

    Homogenous violet layer is formed

  • c)

    None

  • d)

    Upper layer becomes violet

Answer:

Lower layer becomes violet

 

Question:

In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound is fused with a piece of sodium metal in order to

  • a)

    convert the covalent compound into a mixture of ionic compounds

  • b)

    increase the reactivity of the compound

  • c)

    decrease the melting point of the compound

  • d)

    increase the ionisation of the compound

Answer:

convert the covalent compound into a mixture of ionic compounds

 

Question:

An aqueous solution of colourless metal sulphate M gives a white precipitate with NH4OH. This was soluble in excess of NH4OH. On passing H2S through this solution a white ppt. is formed. The metal M in the salt is

  • a)

    Zn

  • b)

    Ba

  • c)

    Ca

  • d)

    Al

Answer:

Zn

 

Question:

Choose the correct order of T (True) and F (False) –
(1) When the pH of rain water is below 3.6, it is called acid rain.
(2) Ozone hole occurs over Antarctica mainly during September–October and it gets replenished in November–December.
(3) Methylcyclohexane is an ozone-depleting molecule.
(4) COD is always larger than BOD.

  • a)

    FTFT

  • b)

    FTTT

  • c)

    TTTF

  • d)

    FFFF

Answer:

FTFT

 

Question:

Which of the following compound can not used in preparation of iodoform?

  • a)

    HCHO

  • b)

    CH3CHO

  • c)

    2-propanol

  • d)

    CH3COCH3

Answer:

HCHO

 

Question:

  • a)

    II, III, V, I, IV

  • b)

    III, IV, I, II, V

  • c)

    V, II, I, IV, III

  • d)

    II, V, I, IV, III

Answer:

II, III, V, I, IV

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

    Rate = K [B]4

  • b)

    Rate = K [A]2 [B]2

  • c)

    Rate = K[B]3

  • d)

    Rate = K [A] [B]3

Answer:

Rate = K [B]4

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

    14.64 %

  • b)

    26.14 %

  • c)

    85.36 %

  • d)

    58.63 %

Answer:

14.64 %

 

Question:

An atom X belongs to 4th period of the periodic table and has highest number of unpaired electrons in comparison to the other elements of the period. The atomic number of X is

  • a)

    24

  • b)

    23

  • c)

    25

  • d)

    33

Answer:

24

 

Question:

  • a)

    7, 6, 8

  • b)

    6, 6, 6

  • c)

    1, 0, 2

  • d)

    8, 6, 8

Answer:

7, 6, 8

 

Question:

Aluminothermy used for on the spot welding of large iron structure is based on the fact that

  • a)

    As compared to iron, aluminium has greater affinity for oxygen

  • b)

    As compared to aluminium, iron has greater affinity for oxygen

  • c)

    Reaction between aluminium and oxygen is endothermic

  • d)

    Reaction between iron and oxygen is endothermic

Answer:

As compared to iron, aluminium has greater affinity for oxygen

 

Question:

Which of the following shows the tendency to form peroxide?

  • a)

    Radium

  • b)

    Magnesium

  • c)

    Lithium

  • d)

    Beryllium

Answer:

Radium

 

Question:

  • a)

    A, B, C

  • b)

    C, B, A

  • c)

    A, B, C, D

  • d)

    D, C, B, A

Answer:

A, B, C

 

Question:

Arrange hypophosphorous acid (H3PO2), phosphorous acid (H3PO3) and Phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the decreasing order of acidic strength

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

 

Question:

Which of the following reactions corresponds to the definition of enthalpy of formation ?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

 

Question:

Among the reactions given below for B2H6, the one which does not take place is

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

 

Question:

The pure crystalline substance on being heated gradually first forms a turbid liquid at constant temperature and still at higher temperature turbidity completely disappears. The behaviour is a characteristic of substance forming

  • a)

    Liquid crystals

  • b)

    Allotropic crystals

  • c)

    Isomeric crystals

  • d)

    Isomorphous crystals

Answer:

Liquid crystals

 

Question:

Silver bromide when dissolve in hypo solution gives complex ..... in which oxidation state of silver is ....

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Which of the following can be termed as a mixed complex?

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

  • a)

    50 ml of 0.05 M H2C2O4

  • b)

    25 ml of 0.2 M H2C2O4

  • c)

    50 ml of 0.10 M H2C2O4

  • d)

    100 ml of 0.05 M H2C2O4

Answer:

50 ml of 0.05 M H2C2O4

 

Question:

In which reaction, there is change in oxidation number of N

  • a)

  • b)

  • c)

  • d)

Answer:

 

Question:

Potassium permanganate acts as an oxidant in neutral, alkaline as well as acidic media. The final products obtained from it in the three conditions are, respectively

  • a)

    MnO2, MnO2 and Mn2+

  • b)

    MnO2, MnO2 + and Mn3+

  • c)

    MnO, MnO2 and Mn2+

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

MnO2, MnO2 and Mn2+

 

Question:

  • a)

    0.4 NA

  • b)

    0.2 NA

  • c)

    4 NA

  • d)

    0.1 NA

Answer:

0.4 NA

 

Question:

The rate of SN1 reaction is fastest in the hydrolysis of which of the following halides ?

  • a)

    C6H5CH2Br

  • b)

    CH3Br

  • c)

    (CH3)3CBr

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

C6H5CH2Br

 

Question:

Two elements A & B form compounds having molecular formulae AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20.0 g of benzene 1.00g of AB2 lowers f.p. by 2.3°C whereas 1.00g of AB4 lowers f.p. by 1.3°C. The molal depression constant for benzene in 1000g is 5.1. The atomic masses of A and B are

  • a)

    25, 42

  • b)

    52, 48

  • c)

    42, 25

  • d)

    None of these

Answer:

25, 42

 

Chemical Kinetics and Nuclear Chemistry
JEE Chemistry Chemical Kinetics MCQs Set B

More Study Material

JEE (Main) Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters MCQs

We hope students liked the above MCQs for All Chapters designed as per the latest syllabus for Full Syllabus Chemistry released by JEE (Main). Students of Full Syllabus should download the Multiple Choice Questions and Answers in Pdf format and practice the questions and solutions given in above Full Syllabus Chemistry MCQs Questions on daily basis. All latest MCQs with answers have been developed for Chemistry by referring to the most important and regularly asked topics which the students should learn and practice to get better score in school tests and examinations. Studiestoday is the best portal for Full Syllabus students to get all latest study material free of cost.

MCQs for Chemistry JEE (Main) Full Syllabus All Chapters

Expert teachers of studiestoday have referred to NCERT book for Full Syllabus Chemistry to develop the Chemistry Full Syllabus MCQs. If you download MCQs with answers for the above chapter daily, you will get higher and better marks in Full Syllabus test and exams in the current year as you will be able to have stronger understanding of all concepts. Daily Multiple Choice Questions practice of Chemistry and its study material will help students to have stronger understanding of all concepts and also make them expert on all critical topics. You can easily download and save all MCQs for Full Syllabus Chemistry also from www.studiestoday.com without paying anything in Pdf format. After solving the questions given in the MCQs which have been developed as per latest course books also refer to the NCERT solutions for Full Syllabus Chemistry designed by our teachers

All Chapters MCQs Chemistry JEE (Main) Full Syllabus

All MCQs given above for Full Syllabus Chemistry have been made as per the latest syllabus and books issued for the current academic year. The students of Full Syllabus can refer to the answers which have been also provided by our teachers for all MCQs of Chemistry so that you are able to solve the questions and then compare your answers with the solutions provided by us. We have also provided lot of MCQ questions for Full Syllabus Chemistry so that you can solve questions relating to all topics given in each chapter. All study material for Full Syllabus Chemistry students have been given on studiestoday.

All Chapters JEE (Main) Full Syllabus MCQs Chemistry

Regular MCQs practice helps to gain more practice in solving questions to obtain a more comprehensive understanding of All Chapters concepts. MCQs play an important role in developing understanding of All Chapters in JEE (Main) Full Syllabus. Students can download and save or print all the MCQs, printable assignments, practice sheets of the above chapter in Full Syllabus Chemistry in Pdf format from studiestoday. You can print or read them online on your computer or mobile or any other device. After solving these you should also refer to Full Syllabus Chemistry MCQ Test for the same chapter

JEE (Main) MCQs Chemistry Full Syllabus All Chapters

JEE (Main) Full Syllabus Chemistry best textbooks have been used for writing the problems given in the above MCQs. If you have tests coming up then you should revise all concepts relating to All Chapters and then take out print of the above MCQs and attempt all problems. We have also provided a lot of other MCQs for Full Syllabus Chemistry which you can use to further make yourself better in Chemistry

Where can I download latest JEE (Main) MCQs for Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters

You can download the JEE (Main) MCQs for Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters for latest session from StudiesToday.com

Can I download the MCQs of All Chapters Full Syllabus Chemistry in Pdf

Yes, you can click on the links above and download topic wise MCQs Questions PDFs for All Chapters Full Syllabus for Chemistry

Are the Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters MCQs available for the latest session

Yes, the MCQs issued by JEE (Main) for Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters have been made available here for latest academic session

How can I download the All Chapters Full Syllabus Chemistry MCQs

You can easily access the links above and download the All Chapters Full Syllabus MCQs Chemistry for each topic

Is there any charge for the MCQs with answers for Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters

There is no charge for the MCQs and their answers for Full Syllabus JEE (Main) Chemistry All Chapters you can download everything free

How can I improve my MCQs in Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters

Regular revision of MCQs given on studiestoday for Full Syllabus subject Chemistry All Chapters can help you to score better marks in exams

What are MCQs for Full Syllabus Chemistry All Chapters

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for All Chapters Full Syllabus Chemistry are objective-based questions which provide multiple answer options, and students are required to choose the correct answer from the given choices.