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Very Short Answer Questions (1 Mark)
(1) Issued equity shares of ₹1,00,000.
(2) Obtained a short-term loan from bank ₹1,00,000. [CBSE (F) 2014]
Answer:
| S.No | Effect | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| (1) | Decrease | Equity increases and debt remains unaffected. |
| (2) | No change | Both Equity and Debt remain unaffected. |
Teacher's Note:
1. A short-term loan is a current liability, so it is not part of ‘debt’ in this ratio.
Question 2. What will be the impact of ‘Cash Paid to Trade Payables’ on a Current Ratio of 2:1? State the reason. [CBSE Delhi 2012(C)]
Answer:
Current Ratio will increase because both Current assets and Current liabilities are decreased by the same amount.
Teacher's Note:
1. Quick check with figures: (2,00,000 − 50,000) ÷ (1,00,000 − 50,000) = 3 : 1, higher than 2 : 1.
Question 3. State with reason whether repayment of long-term loan will result in increase, decrease or no change of Debt to Equity ratio. [CBSE Delhi 2010(C)]
Answer:
Debt to equity ratio will decrease because long-term loan will decrease but total equity (Shareholders’ funds) will remain unchanged.
Teacher's Note:
1. Only the numerator falls, so the ratio falls.
Question 4. The inventory turnover ratio of a Company is 3 times. State, giving reason, whether the ratio improves, declines or does not change because of increase in the value of closing inventory by ₹5,000. [CBSE (AI) 2008]
Answer:
Inventory turnover ratio will decline because increase in the value of closing inventory by ₹5,000 will decrease the cost of Revenue from Operations (Opening Inventory + Purchases – Closing Inventory) and will increase the value of average inventory \( \left( \frac{\text{Opening Inventory} + \text{Closing Inventory}}{2} \right) \).
Teacher's Note:
1. Closing inventory affects both the numerator and the denominator here, and both changes push the ratio down.
Question 5. The gross profit ratio of a company is 50%. State with reason whether the decrease in rent received by ₹15,000 will increase, decrease or not change the ratio. [CBSE Delhi 2009(C)]
Answer:
Decrease in rent received by ₹15,000 will not change the gross profit ratio because rent received being an indirect income, does not affect gross profit.
Teacher's Note:
1. Gross profit is affected only by revenue from operations and direct costs; rent received is an other income, shown below gross profit.
Question 6. Debt to Equity Ratio of X Ltd. is 1 : 2. What is the effect of conversion of debentures into preference shares on this ratio? [CBSE (F) 2006]
Answer:
Debt to Equity Ratio will decrease as conversion of debentures into preference shares will reduce the long-term debts but increase the equity.
Teacher's Note:
1. Preference share capital is part of shareholders’ funds (equity) in this ratio.
Question 7. What are liquidity ratios?
Answer:
Liquidity ratios are the ratios meant for testing short-term solvency position of the firm, i.e., whether a company is able to repay the short-term loans on their due dates. They include (i) Current Ratio, and (ii) Liquid Ratio.
Teacher's Note:
1. Liquid Ratio is the same as Quick Ratio or Acid Test Ratio.
Question 8. What are solvency ratios?
Answer:
Solvency ratios show the long-term financial solvency and measure the enterprise ability to pay interest and long-term liabilities at maturity. They include: (i) Debt to Equity Ratio, (ii) Proprietary Ratio, (iii) Total Assets to Debt Ratio.
Teacher's Note:
1. Interest Coverage Ratio is the fourth solvency ratio in the CBSE syllabus.
Question 9. What do you understand by working capital?
Answer:
Excess of current assets over current liabilities is called working capital.
Teacher's Note:
1. Working Capital = Current Assets − Current Liabilities; it is used as the denominator of the Working Capital Turnover Ratio.
Question 10. How can the cost of revenue from operations be calculated?
Answer:
Cost of revenue from operations can be calculated by the following ways:
Cost of revenue from operations = Net Revenue from Operations – Gross Profit.
Or
Cost of revenue from operations = Opening Inventory + Net Purchases + Direct Expenses – Closing Inventory.
Teacher's Note:
1. Net purchases means purchases less purchases returns.
Question 11. Give the assets side approach to calculate capital employed.
Answer:
Capital Employed = Net Fixed Assets + Net Working Capital.
Teacher's Note:
1. Non-current investments and long-term loans and advances are also added on the assets side approach.
Question 12. Give any two reasons of increase in gross profit.
Answer:
(i) Selling price may have increased without the same increase in the price of materials and wages.
(ii) Gross profit may be higher due to over-valuation of closing inventory.
Teacher's Note:
1. Over-valued closing inventory reduces cost of revenue from operations, which inflates gross profit.
Question 13. You are a creditor of a company. Mention any two ratios that you would like to calculate to analyse the financial position of the company.
Answer:
(i) Current Ratio, (ii) Quick Ratio.
Teacher's Note:
1. Short-term creditors care about liquidity ratios.
Question 14. In case a bill receivable is dishonoured, elucidate whether this will improve, decline or will have no change on current ratio, if the existing current ratio is 2:1.
Answer:
No change. In case a bills receivable is dishonoured, current ratio will not change because bills receivable decreases and debtors increases by the same amount.
Teacher's Note:
1. Both bills receivable and debtors are current assets, so total current assets stay the same.
Question 15. Rubies Ltd. has a profit of ₹4,00,000 before interest and tax. Its ROI is 25%. Calculate the capital employed in the company.
Answer:
Capital employed = \( \frac{4,00,000}{25} \times 100 \) = ₹16,00,000.
Teacher's Note:
1. ROI = Profit before Interest and Tax ÷ Capital Employed × 100; rearrange to find capital employed.
Question 16. Assuming that the current ratio is 2 : 1, state giving reasons, whether this ratio will improve, decline or will have no change, in case a final dividend already declared is paid?
Answer:
Improve. In case a final dividend already declared is paid, current ratio will improve, because both the current assets and current liabilities are decreased by the same amount.
Teacher's Note:
1. Dividend once declared is a current liability until it is paid.
Short Answer Questions (2 Marks)
| S.No. | Items | ₹ | S.No. | Items | ₹ |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Total Assets | 1,00,000 | 3 | Non-current Liabilities | 20,000 |
| 2 | Shareholders’ Funds | 60,000 | 4 | Non-current Assets | 50,000 |
Answer:
Current Assets = 1,00,000 − 50,000 = ₹50,000; Current Liabilities = 1,00,000 − 60,000 − 20,000 = ₹20,000
Current Ratio = \( \frac{50{,}000}{20{,}000} \) = 2.5 : 1
Teacher's Note:
1. Total assets equal total of the equity-and-liabilities side, so current liabilities can be found as a balancing figure.
| Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|
| Equity Share Capital | 5,00,000 |
| 9% Preference Share Capital | 4,00,000 |
| Fixed Assets | 12,00,000 |
| Non-Current Investments | 1,50,000 |
| Reserves and Surplus | 2,40,000 |
| Current Assets | 1,90,000 |
| Current Liabilities | 1,00,000 |
Answer:
Total Assets = 12,00,000 + 1,50,000 + 1,90,000 = ₹15,40,000
Long-term Debts = 15,40,000 − (5,00,000 + 4,00,000 + 2,40,000 + 1,00,000) = ₹3,00,000
Total Assets to Debt Ratio = \( \frac{15{,}40{,}000}{3{,}00{,}000} \) = 5.13 : 1
Teacher's Note:
1. Long-term debt is not given directly; it is the balancing figure of the equity-and-liabilities side.
| Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|
| Long-term Borrowings | 3,00,000 |
| Long-term Provisions | 1,50,000 |
| Current Liabilities | 75,000 |
| Non-current Assets | 5,40,000 |
| Current Assets | 1,35,000 |
Answer:
Total Assets = 5,40,000 + 1,35,000 = ₹6,75,000; Debt = 3,00,000 + 1,50,000 = ₹4,50,000
Total Assets to Debt Ratio = 1.5 : 1
Teacher's Note:
1. Long-term provisions are included in debt along with long-term borrowings.
| Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|
| Profit after Interest and Tax | 4,97,000 |
| Rate of Income Tax | 30% |
| 12% Debentures | 6,00,000 |
Answer:
Profit before Tax = 4,97,000 × 100/70 = ₹7,10,000; Interest = 12% of 6,00,000 = ₹72,000; Profit before Interest and Tax = ₹7,82,000
Interest Coverage Ratio = \( \frac{7{,}82{,}000}{72{,}000} \) = 10.86 times
Teacher's Note:
1. At 30% tax, profit after tax is 70% of profit before tax.
Question 21. From the given information, calculate the inventory turnover ratio. Revenue from Operations: ₹2,00,000; GP: 25% on cost; Inventory in the beginning is 1/3 of the inventory at the end which was 30% of revenue from operations. [CBSE Delhi 2010]
Answer:
Cost of Revenue from Operations = 2,00,000 × \( \frac{100}{125} \) = ₹1,60,000; Closing Inventory = 30% of 2,00,000 = ₹60,000; Opening Inventory = ₹20,000; Average Inventory = ₹40,000
Inventory Turnover Ratio = 4 times
Teacher's Note:
1. Closing inventory is 30% of revenue; opening inventory is one-third of that.
Question 22. A trader carries an average inventory of ₹80,000. His inventory turnover ratio is 12 times. Find out his profit if he sells at a profit of 20% on revenue from operations. [CBSE (F) 2004]
Answer:
Cost of Revenue from Operations = 80,000 × 12 = ₹9,60,000; 20% on revenue = 25% on cost
Gross Profit ₹2,40,000
Teacher's Note:
1. Convert profit on sales to profit on cost: 20/80 = 25%.
| S.No. | Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Revenue from Operations | 12,00,000 |
| 2. | Current Assets | 5,00,000 |
| 3. | Total Assets | 8,00,000 |
| 4. | Total Non-current Liabilities | 4,00,000 |
| 5. | Shareholders’ Fund | 2,00,000 |
Answer:
Current Liabilities = 8,00,000 − 4,00,000 − 2,00,000 = ₹2,00,000; Working Capital = 5,00,000 − 2,00,000 = ₹3,00,000
Working Capital Turnover Ratio = 4 times
Teacher's Note:
1. Find current liabilities as total assets less non-current liabilities and shareholders’ funds.
| S.No. | Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Cost of Revenue from Operation | 50,000 |
| 2. | Revenue from Operation | 1,50,000 |
| 3. | Operating Expenses | 20,000 |
Answer:
Operating Ratio = \( \frac{50{,}000 + 20{,}000}{1{,}50{,}000} \times 100 \)
46.7%
Teacher's Note:
1. Operating cost = cost of revenue from operations + operating expenses.
| S.No. | Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Share Capital | 50,000 |
| 2. | Reserves and Surplus | 25,000 |
| 3. | Net Fixed Assets | 2,25,000 |
| 4. | Non-current Trade Investments | 25,000 |
| 5. | Current Assets | 1,10,000 |
| 6. | 12% Long term Borrowings | 2,00,000 |
| 7. | Current Liabilities | 85,000 |
| 8. | Assumed company has no long term provisions | — |
Answer:
Capital Employed = 50,000 + 25,000 + 2,00,000 = ₹2,75,000; Profit before Interest and Tax = 60,000 + 24,000 = ₹84,000
ROI = \( \frac{84{,}000}{2{,}75{,}000} \times 100 \) = 30.55%
Teacher's Note:
1. Add back 12% interest on borrowings (₹24,000) to profit before tax.
Question 26. ₹2,00,000 is Cost of Revenue from operations, Inventory Turnover Ratio 8 times, Inventory in the beginning is 1.5 times more than the Inventory at the end. Calculate values of opening and closing inventory. [CBSE Delhi 2004]
Answer:
Average Inventory = 2,00,000 ÷ 8 = ₹25,000; Opening + Closing = ₹50,000; Opening = 2.5 × Closing
Opening Inventory ₹35,714, Closing Inventory ₹14,286
Teacher's Note:
1. ‘1.5 times more than’ means closing inventory plus 1.5 times of it, i.e., 2.5 times.
| Particulars | Value |
|---|---|
| Average Inventory | ₹80,000 |
| Inventory Turnover Ratio | 6 Times |
| Selling Price | 25% above cost |
Answer:
Cost of Revenue from Operations = 80,000 × 6 = ₹4,80,000; Gross Profit = 25% of 4,80,000
Gross Profit ₹1,20,000; Revenue from Operations ₹6,00,000
Teacher's Note:
1. ‘25% above cost’ means profit is calculated on cost of revenue from operations.
Question 28. O.M. Ltd. has a Current Ratio of 3.5:1 and Quick Ratio of 2 : 1. If the excess of Current Assets over Quick Assets as represented by Inventory is ₹1,50,000, calculate Current Assets and Current Liabilities. [CBSE Delhi 2012]
Answer:
Inventory = 3.5 CL − 2 CL = 1.5 CL = ₹1,50,000, so CL = ₹1,00,000
Current Assets ₹3,50,000, Current Liabilities ₹1,00,000
Teacher's Note:
1. Check: quick assets 2,00,000 + inventory 1,50,000 = 3,50,000.
Short Answer Questions (3 Marks)
| Particulars | 2015-16 | 2016-17 |
|---|---|---|
| No. of units sold | 5,000 | 6,000 |
| Cost of Revenue from Operations (₹) | 9,50,000 | 11,85,600 |
| Revenue from Operations (₹) | 12,50,000 | 15,60,000 |
Answer:
Gross Profit Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Gross Profit}}{\text{Revenue from Operations}} \times 100 \)
Gross Profit = Revenue from Operations – Cost of Revenue from Operations
Gross Profit Ratio (2015-16) = \( \frac{(12{,}50{,}000 - 9{,}50{,}000)}{12{,}50{,}000} \times 100 \) = \( \frac{3{,}00{,}000}{12{,}50{,}000} \times 100 \) = 24%
Gross Profit Ratio (2016-17) = \( \frac{15{,}60{,}000 - 11{,}85{,}600}{15{,}60{,}000} \times 100 \) = \( \frac{3{,}74{,}400}{15{,}60{,}000} \times 100 \) = 24%.
Analysis: Gross Profit for the year 2015-16 is ₹3,00,000 and for the year 2016-17 ₹3,74,400. Gross Profit Ratio for both the years is 24%. Net increase in Gross Profit is ₹74,400. This is accounted for increase in revenue from operations by ₹3,10,000 and increase in cost of revenue from operations by ₹2,35,600.
Teacher's Note:
1. A constant GP ratio with higher absolute gross profit means the growth came from higher volume (6,000 units against 5,000), not from better margins.
| Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|
| Opening Inventory | 3,00,000 |
| Closing Inventory | 4,20,000 |
| Purchases | 14,00,000 |
| Wages | 3,70,000 |
| Carriage Inwards | 1,50,000 |
| Administrative Expenses | 84,000 |
| Selling Expenses | 36,000 |
| Revenue from operations | 24,00,000 |
Answer:
(i) Gross Profit Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Gross Profit}}{\text{Revenue from Operations}} \times 100 \)
Gross Profit = Revenue from Operations – Cost of Revenue from Operations
= Revenue from Operations – (Opening Inventory + Purchases + Wages + Carriage Inwards – Closing Inventory)
= 24,00,000 – (3,00,000 + 14,00,000 + 3,70,000 + 1,50,000 – 4,20,000) = 24,00,000 – 18,00,000 = ₹6,00,000
Gross Profit Ratio = \( \frac{6{,}00{,}000}{24{,}00{,}000} \times 100 \) = 25%
(ii) Operating Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Cost of Revenue from Operations + Operating Expenses}}{\text{Revenue from Operations}} \times 100 \)
Operating Expenses = Administrative Expenses + Selling Expenses = 84,000 + 36,000 = ₹1,20,000
Operating Ratio = \( \frac{18{,}00{,}000 + 1{,}20{,}000}{24{,}00{,}000} \times 100 \) = 80%
(iii) Inventory Turnover Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Cost of Revenue from Operations}}{\text{Average Inventory}} \)
Average Inventory = \( \frac{3{,}00{,}000 + 4{,}20{,}000}{2} \) = ₹3,60,000
Inventory Turnover Ratio = \( \frac{18{,}00{,}000}{3{,}60{,}000} \) = 5 times.
Teacher's Note:
1. Wages and carriage inwards are direct expenses, so they go into cost of revenue from operations.
| S.No. | Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Revenue from Operation | 2,00,000 |
| 2. | Gross Profit | 75,000 |
| 3. | Office Expenses | 15,000 |
| 4. | Selling Expenses | 26,000 |
| 5. | Interest on Debentures | 5,000 |
| 6. | Accidental losses | 12,000 |
| 7. | Income from Rent | 2,500 |
Answer:
(a) Net Profit Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Net Profit}}{\text{Revenue from Operations}} \times 100 \)
Net Profit = Gross Profit – All Indirect Expenses and Losses + All Incomes
= ₹75,000 – ₹15,000 – ₹26,000 – ₹5,000 – ₹12,000 + ₹2,500 = ₹19,500
Revenue from Operations = ₹2,00,000
∴ Net Profit Ratio = \( \frac{19{,}500}{2{,}00{,}000} \times 100 \) = 9.75%
(b) Operating Profit Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Operating Profit}}{\text{Revenue from Operation}} \times 100 \)
Operating Profit = Gross Profit – Operating Expenses = ₹75,000 – ₹15,000 – ₹26,000 = ₹34,000.
Revenue from Operations = ₹2,00,000
∴ Operating Profit Ratio = \( \frac{34{,}000}{2{,}00{,}000} \times 100 \) = 17%.
Teacher's Note:
1. Interest, accidental losses and rent income are non-operating items: they affect net profit but not operating profit.
Question 32. The following information is provided to you:
Share Capital ₹80,000, General Reserve ₹40,000, 15% Loan from Bank ₹50,000, Revenue from Operations for the year ₹1,00,000, Tax paid during the year ₹20,000, Profit after interest and tax ₹40,000.
From the above information, calculate the following ratios:
(a) Debt to Equity Ratio
(b) Interest Coverage Ratio
(c) Return on Investment.
Answer:
(a) Debt to Equity Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Long-term Debts}}{\text{Shareholders' Funds}} \)
Shareholders’ Funds = Share Capital + General Reserve + Profit after Interest and Tax = ₹80,000 + ₹40,000 + ₹40,000 = ₹1,60,000
Debt to Equity Ratio = \( \frac{50{,}000}{1{,}60{,}000} \) = 0.31 : 1
(b) Interest Coverage Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Net Profit before Interest, Tax and Dividend}}{\text{Interest Charges}} \)
= \( \frac{\text{Net Profit after Interest and Tax + Tax + Interest}}{\text{Interest Charges}} \) = \( \frac{40{,}000 + 20{,}000 + 7{,}500}{7{,}500} \) = \( \frac{67{,}500}{7{,}500} \) = 9 times
(c) Return on Investment = \( \frac{\text{Net Profit before Interest and Tax}}{\text{Capital Employed}} \times 100 \)
Capital Employed = Share Capital + Reserves and Surplus (General Reserve + Profit) + Long-term Loans = ₹80,000 + ₹40,000 + ₹40,000 + ₹50,000 = ₹2,10,000
Return on Investment = \( \frac{67{,}500}{2{,}10{,}000} \times 100 \) = 32.14%.
Teacher's Note:
1. Interest on the 15% bank loan is 15% of ₹50,000 = ₹7,500; add it back with tax to get profit before interest and tax.
(i) Debt to Equity Ratio; (ii) Proprietary Ratio; (iii) Total Assets to Debt Ratio, and (iv) Interest Coverage Ratio if Net Profit before charging interest and Tax is ₹2,00,000.
Balance Sheet of Hazi Ali Ltd.
as at 31st March, 2017
| Particulars | Note No. | 2017 (₹) | 2016 (₹) |
|---|---|---|---|
| I. EQUITY AND LIABILITIES | |||
| 1. Shareholders’ Funds | |||
| (a) Share Capital | 1 | 15,00,000 | |
| (b) Reserves and Surplus | 2 | 6,00,000 | |
| 2. Non-current Liabilities | |||
| (a) Long-term Borrowings | 3 | 5,00,000 | |
| 3. Current Liabilities | |||
| (a) Trade Payables | 12,00,000 | ||
| (b) Short-term Provisions | 2,00,000 | ||
| Total | 40,00,000 | ||
| II. ASSETS | |||
| 1. Non-Current Assets | |||
| (a) Fixed Assets | |||
| (i) Tangible Assets | 16,50,000 | ||
| (b) Non-current Investments | 1,60,000 | ||
| 2. Current Assets | |||
| (a) Inventories | 9,10,000 | ||
| (b) Trade Receivables | 12,40,000 | ||
| (c) Cash and Cash Equivalents | 40,000 | ||
| Total | 40,00,000 |
| Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|
| 1. Share Capital: Equity Share Capital | 15,00,000 |
| 2. Reserves and Surplus: General Reserve | 6,00,000 |
| 3. Long-term Borrowings: 12% Debentures | 5,00,000 |
Answer:
(i) Debt to Equity Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Long-term Debts}}{\text{Shareholders' Funds}} \) = \( \frac{\text{Debentures}}{\text{Equity Share Capital + General Reserve}} \) = \( \frac{5{,}00{,}000}{21{,}00{,}000} \) = 0.238 : 1
(ii) Proprietary Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Proprietors' Funds}}{\text{Total Assets}} \) = \( \frac{\text{Equity Share Capital + General Reserve}}{\text{Total Assets}} \) = \( \frac{21{,}00{,}000}{40{,}00{,}000} \) = 0.525 : 1
(iii) Total Assets to Debt Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Total Assets}}{\text{Long-term Debts}} \) = \( \frac{40{,}00{,}000}{5{,}00{,}000} \) = 8 : 1
(iv) Interest Coverage Ratio = \( \frac{\text{Net Profit before Interest, Tax and Dividend}}{\text{Fixed Interest Charges}} \)
Fixed Interest Charges = 12% of 5,00,000 = ₹60,000
= \( \frac{2{,}00{,}000}{60{,}000} \) = 3.33 times.
Teacher's Note:
1. Total assets here are the Balance Sheet total; current liabilities are not deducted for the Total Assets to Debt Ratio.
(i) Received from debtors ₹17,000.
(ii) Issued ₹2,00,000 equity shares to the vendors of machinery.
(iii) Accepted bills of exchange drawn by the creditors ₹7,000. [CBSE (AI) 2015]
Answer:
| S. No. | Effect | Reasons |
|---|---|---|
| (i) | No change | It will increase cash and decrease debtors with the same amount. No change in current assets and current liabilities. |
| (ii) | No change | Both current assets and current liabilities are not affected. |
| (iii) | No change | No change in current assets and current liabilities. Because increase in one current liability results in decrease in another current liability with the same amount. |
Teacher's Note:
1. A transaction between two current assets, or between two current liabilities, never changes the current ratio.
(a) Purchase of fixed asset on a credit of 2 months.
(b) Purchase of fixed asset on a long term deferred payment basis.
(c) Issue of new shares for cash.
(d) Issue of bonus shares.
(e) Sale of fixed asset at a loss of ₹3,000. [CBSE Delhi; (AI) 2010; (F) 2010]
Answer:
| Effect | Reasons |
|---|---|
| (a) No Change | Neither the equity nor the debts are affected. |
| (b) Increase | Debts are increasing. |
| (c) Decrease | Shareholders’ funds or equity will increase. |
| (d) No change | Both remain unaffected. |
| (e) Increase | Because equity will be decreased. |
Teacher's Note:
1. Bonus shares only move an amount from reserves to share capital, so total shareholders’ funds do not change.
(a) Debt to Equity Ratio
(b) Total Assets to Debt Ratio
(c) Proprietary Ratio
| S.No. | Items | ₹ |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Long-term Borrowings | 1,00,000 |
| 2 | Long-term Provisions | 50,000 |
| 3 | Current Liabilities | 25,000 |
| 4 | Non-current Assets | 1,80,000 |
| 5 | Current Assets | 45,000 |
Answer:
Debt = ₹1,50,000; Total Assets = ₹2,25,000; Equity = 2,25,000 − 1,50,000 − 25,000 = ₹50,000
(a) 3 : 1, (b) 1.5 : 1, (c) 0.22 : 1
Teacher's Note:
1. Shareholders’ funds = total assets − long-term debt − current liabilities.
Question 37. From the given information, calculate the following:
(i) Cost of Revenue from operations (ii) Opening and closing inventory
(iii) Quick Assets (iv) Current Assets
Information:
Inventory Turnover Ratio 6 times,
Inventory at the end is ₹6,000 more than the inventory in the beginning,
Revenue from operations (all credit) ₹2,40,000.
Gross Profit 25% on cost,
Current Liabilities ₹80,000,
Quick Ratio 0.80: 1. [CBSE Delhi 2016 (C)]
Answer:
Average Inventory = 1,92,000 ÷ 6 = ₹32,000; Opening + Closing = ₹64,000 with Closing = Opening + 6,000
(i) Cost of Revenue from operations ₹1,92,000 (ii) Opening Inventory ₹29,000, Closing Inventory ₹35,000 (iii) Quick Assets ₹64,000, (iv) Current Assets ₹99,000
Teacher's Note:
1. Current assets = quick assets + closing inventory (not average inventory).
Question 38. (a) Compute ‘Working Capital Turnover Ratio’ from the following information:
Cash Sales ₹1,30,000; Credit Sales ₹3,80,000; Sales Returns ₹10,000; Liquid Assets ₹1,40,000; Current Liabilities ₹1,05,000 and Inventory ₹90,000.
(b) Calculate ‘Debt to Equity Ratio’ from the following information:
Total Assets ₹3,50,000; Total Debt ₹2,50,000 and Current Liabilities ₹80,000. [CBSE Delhi 2013]
Answer:
(a) Net Revenue = 1,30,000 + 3,80,000 − 10,000 = ₹5,00,000; Working Capital = 1,40,000 + 90,000 − 1,05,000 = ₹1,25,000
(b) Long-term Debt = 2,50,000 − 80,000 = ₹1,70,000; Equity = 3,50,000 − 2,50,000 = ₹1,00,000
Working Capital Turnover Ratio = 4 times; Debt to Equity Ratio = 1.7 : 1
Teacher's Note:
1. ‘Total debt’ includes current liabilities, so deduct them to get long-term debt.
Question 39. Calculate opening and closing trade receivables from the following information :
Trade Receivable Turnover Ratio 4 times; Cost of Revenue from Operations ₹3,20,000; Gross Profit Ratio 20%; Closing Trade Receivables were ₹15,000 more than Opening Trade Receivables; Cash Revenue from Operations being 33\( \frac{1}{3} \)% of Credit Revenue from Operations. [CBSE 2019 (67/3/1)]
Answer:
Revenue from Operations = 3,20,000 × \( \frac{100}{80} \) = ₹4,00,000; Credit Revenue = 4,00,000 × \( \frac{3}{4} \) = ₹3,00,000; Average Trade Receivables = ₹75,000
Opening Receivables = ₹67,500, Closing Receivables = ₹82,500
Teacher's Note:
1. Cash revenue = 1/3 of credit revenue, so credit revenue is 3/4 of total revenue.
Question 40. From the following information, calculate any two of the following ratios:
(a) Debt to Equity Ratio;
(b) Working Capital Turnover Ratio;
(c) Return on Investment.
Information:
Equity Share Capital ₹10,00,000; General Reserve ₹1,00,000; Statement of Profit and Loss Balance after Tax and Interest ₹3,00,000; 12% Debentures ₹4,00,000; Trade Payables ₹3,00,000; Land and Building ₹13,00,000; Furniture ₹3,00,000; Trade Receivables ₹2,90,000; Cash ₹1,10,000.
Revenue from Operations for the year ended 31.3.2011 was ₹30,00,000 and Tax paid 50%. [CBSE (AI) 2012]
Answer:
(a) Equity = 10,00,000 + 1,00,000 + 3,00,000 = ₹14,00,000; Debt = ₹4,00,000
(b) Working Capital = 2,90,000 + 1,10,000 − 3,00,000 = ₹1,00,000
(c) Profit before Tax = 3,00,000 × 100/50 = ₹6,00,000; Interest = 12% of 4,00,000 = ₹48,000; Profit before Interest and Tax = ₹6,48,000; Capital Employed = 14,00,000 + 4,00,000 = ₹18,00,000
(a) Debt to Equity Ratio = 0.29 : 1, (b) Working Capital Turnover Ratio = 30 times, (c) Return on Investment = \( \frac{6{,}48{,}000}{18{,}00{,}000} \times 100 \) = 36%
Teacher's Note:
1. Gross up profit after tax for 50% tax, then add debenture interest, before dividing by capital employed.
Long Answer Questions (5 Marks)
(i) Debt to Equity Ratio and (ii) Working Capital Turnover Ratio
| Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|
| Cash Revenue from Operations | 40,00,000 |
| Credit Revenue from Operations | 20,00,000 |
| Cost of Revenue from Operations | 35,00,000 |
| Other Current Assets | 8,00,000 |
| Current Liabilities | 4,00,000 |
| Paid-up Share Capital | 17,00,000 |
| 6% Debentures | 3,00,000 |
| 9% Loan from Bank | 7,00,000 |
| Debenture Redemption Reserve | 3,00,000 |
| Closing Inventory | 1,00,000 |
Answer:
(i) Debt = 3,00,000 + 7,00,000 = ₹10,00,000; Equity = 17,00,000 + 3,00,000 = ₹20,00,000
(ii) Revenue from Operations = 40,00,000 + 20,00,000 = ₹60,00,000; Working Capital = 8,00,000 + 1,00,000 − 4,00,000 = ₹5,00,000
(i) Debt to Equity Ratio = 0.5 : 1; (ii) Working Capital Turnover Ratio = \( \frac{60{,}00{,}000}{5{,}00{,}000} \) = 12 times
Teacher's Note:
1. Debenture Redemption Reserve is a reserve, so it is part of shareholders’ funds.
2. Working Capital Turnover Ratio uses total revenue from operations (cash + credit).
Statement of Profit and Loss
for the year ended 31st March 2015
| Particulars | Note No. | 31st March, 2015 (₹) | 31st March, 2014 (₹) |
|---|---|---|---|
| I. Revenue from Operations (Sales) | 4,44,000 | ||
| II. Other Income | NIL | ||
| III. Total Revenue (I + II) | 4,44,000 | ||
| IV. Expenses: | |||
| (a) Purchases | 2,50,000 | ||
| (b) Change in Inventories | 1 | 20,000 | |
| (c) Employees Benefit Expenses | 32,000 | ||
| (d) Other Expenses | 2 | 38,000 | |
| Total Expenses | 3,40,000 | ||
| V. Profit before Tax (III – IV) | 1,04,000 |
as at 31st March, 2015
| Particulars | Note No. | 31st March, 2015 (₹) | 31st March, 2014 (₹) |
|---|---|---|---|
| I. EQUITY AND LIABILITIES | |||
| 1. Shareholders’ Funds | |||
| (a) Equity Share Capital | 3,00,000 | ||
| (b) Reserves and Surplus | 1,00,000 | ||
| 2. Current Liabilities | |||
| (a) Trade Payables | 1,50,000 | ||
| (b) Other Current Liabilities | 50,000 | ||
| Total | 6,00,000 | ||
| II. ASSETS | |||
| 1. Non-Current Assets | |||
| (a) Fixed Assets: Tangible | 3 | 4,00,000 | |
| 2. Current Assets | |||
| (a) Inventories | 20,000 | ||
| (b) Trade Receivables (Debtors) | 1,00,000 | ||
| (c) Cash and Cash Equivalents | 80,000 | ||
| Total | 6,00,000 |
| Particulars | ₹ |
|---|---|
| 1. Change in Inventories Opening Inventory Less: Closing Inventory | 40,000 20,000 |
| 20,000 | |
| 2. Other Expenses Direct Expenses Loss on Sale of Building | 30,000 8,000 |
| 38,000 | |
| 3. Tangible Assets: Land | 4,00,000 |
Answer:
Hint: Cost of Revenue from operations = Purchases + Change in Inventories + Direct Expenses = ₹3,00,000.
(i) Current Assets = 20,000 + 1,00,000 + 80,000 = ₹2,00,000; Current Liabilities = ₹2,00,000
(ii) Average Inventory = (40,000 + 20,000)/2 = ₹30,000
(iii) Shareholders’ Funds = ₹4,00,000; Total Assets = ₹6,00,000
(i) Current Ratio: 1 : 1; (ii) Inventory Turnover Ratio : 10 Times; (iii) Proprietary Ratio: 0.67 : 1
Teacher's Note:
1. Loss on sale of building is a non-operating loss and employee benefit expenses are indirect, so neither goes into cost of revenue from operations.
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Accountancy Class 12 Exam Resources: Part 2 Chapter 05 Accounting Ratios
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