JEE Chemistry Online Mock Test Full Syllabus Set A

Refer to JEE Chemistry Online Mock Test Full Syllabus Set A below. Students of JEE Chemistry can do the below online test and refer to the full list of free JEE Chemistry Mock Online Test provided below. These online Mock tests for Chemistry in JEE have been designed based on the pattern of questions expected to come in the upcoming JEE examinations and the latest syllabus issued by JEE (Main), NCERT and KVS and to help students strengthen their understanding of key topics. We have also provided MCQ Questions for JEE Chemistry with answers for all topics.

Online Mock Test for JEE Chemistry All Chapters

In the online practice Mock test for Chemistry All Chapters you can see the list of questions below with options out of which you have to select one correct answer and after completing the test you can check your answers and score. This mock test will help JEE students to check understanding of all topics in All Chapters. This includes multiple choice questions from JEE Chemistry book to test your knowledge and boost confidence.

All Chapters Chemistry JEE Mock Test

1. When NaCl is dopped with 1.0 × 10–3 mole of SrCl2, the number of cation vacancy is

2. The angular momentum of the electron in first excited energy state of hydrogen atom is

3. What will be the heat of formation of methane, if the heat of combustion of carbon is '–x' kJ, heat of formation of water is '–y' kJ and heat of combustion of methane is 'z' kJ ?

4. Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of anisole?

5. Ethanol and dimethyl ether form a pair of functional isomers. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of dimethyl ether, due to the presence of

6.

7.

8. In the diazotization of arylamines with sodium nitrite and hydrochloric acid, an excess of hydrochloric acid is used primarily to

9.

10. The correct order of atomic/ionic sizes is

11. The above shown polymer is obtained when a carbonyl compound is allowed to stand. It is a white solid. The polymer is

12.

13. The reactivity of metals with water is in the order of

14. Which of the following statements is not correct for sigma and pi-bonds formed between two carbon atoms?

15. Which of these have no unit?

16.

17. The number of enantiomers of the compound CH3 CHBr CHBrCOOHis

18. Hydrogen has an ionisation energy of 1311 kJ mol–1 and for chlorine it is 1256 kJ mol–1. Hydrogen forms H+ (aq) ions but chlorine does not form Cl+ (aq) ions because

19. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

20. Which of the following compounds has the highest boiling point?

21. Which of the following statements is true?

22.

23.

24. Four successive members of the first row transition elements are listed below with their atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy?

25.

26. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomerism?
(en = ethylenediamine)

27. Which of the following statements is false ?

28. Which one of the following is NOT a buffer solution?

29. Which of the following statements, about the advantage of roasting of sulphide ore before reduction is not true?

30. 1 M solution of CH3COOH should be diluted to ...............
times so that pH is doubled.

31. Compound X of molecular formula C4H6 takes up one equivalent of hydrogen in presence of Pt to form another compound Y which on ozonolysis gives only ethanoic acid. The compound X can be

32. A closed container contains equal number of oxygen and hydrogen molecules at a total pressure of 740 mm. If oxygen is removed form the system then pressure will

33. Which of the following reagents convert propene to 1- propanol?

34. The following data are for the decomposition of ammonium nitrite in aqueous solution

35. Aluminium vessels should not be washed with materials containing washing soda since

36. Among the following compounds (I - III), the ease of their reaction with electrophiles is,

37. The energy of a photon is 3 × 10–12 erg. What is its wavelength in nm ? (h = 6.62 × 10–27 erg-sec; c = 3 × 1010 cm/s)

38. Inductive effect involves

39. Specific volume of cylindrical virus particle is 6.02 × 10–2 cc/gm. whose radius and length 7 Å & 10 Å respectively. If NA = 6.02 × 1023, find molecular weight of virus

40. In sodium fusion test of organic compounds, the nitrogen of the organic compound is converted into

41. 0.4 moles of HCl and 0.2 moles of CaCl2 were dissolved in water to have 500 mL of solution, the molarity of Cl ion is:

42. Which of the following statement is false ?

43. Which of the following statements is not correct for nitrogen ?

44. Which one of the following statement is not true ?

45. The weight of NaCl decomposed by 4.9g of H2SO4, if 6 g of sodium hydrogen sulphate and 1.825 g of HCl, were produced in the reaction is

46. CN is a strong field ligand. This is due to the fact that

47. An acidic solution of 'X' does not give precipitate on passing H2S through it. 'X' gives white precipitate when NH4OH is added to it. The white precipitate dissolves in excess of NaOH solution. Pure 'X' fumes in air and dense white fumes are obtained when a glass rod dipped in NH4OH is put in the fumes. Compound 'X' can be

48. Which of the following molecules is most suitable to disperse benzene in water ?

49. An example of electrophilic substitution reaction is

50. In the extraction of Cu, the metal is formed in the bessemer converter due to the reaction :

51. Which is the most suitable reagent among the following to distinguish compound (3) from rest of the compounds ?

52. The volume-temperature graphs of a given mass of an ideal gas at constant pressure are shown below.

53. Fluorine is more electronegative than either boron or phosphorus. What conclusion can be drawn from the fact that BF3 has no dipole moment but PF3 does ?

54. When conc. HNO3 acts on our skin, the skin becomes yellow, because

55. Solution of potash alum is acidic in nature. This is due to hydrolysis of

56.

57. The non-polar molecule is

58.

59. Nylon is a :

60.

61. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall- Heroult process is carried out

62.

63. The unit cell of an ionic compound is a cube in which cations (A) occupy each of the corners and anions (B) are at the centres of each face . The simplest formula of the ionic compound is

64. Mole fraction of methanol in its aqueous solution is 0.5. The concentration of solution in terms of percent by mass of methanol is

65. Which of the following products is formed when benzaldehyde is treated with CH3MgBr and the addition product so obtained is subjected to acid hydrolysis ?

66. Of the following which is diamagnetic in nature?

67. H3PO3 is

68.

69.

70. The species with a radius less than that of Ne is

71. Aniline, chloroform and alcoholic KOH react to produce a bad smelling substance which is

72. The paramagnetism of transition element compounds is due to

73. Mark the false statement?

74. The concentration of a reactant X decreases from 0.1 M to 0.005 M in 40 min. If the reaction follows first order kinetics, the rate of the reaction when the concentration of X is 0.01 M will be

75.

76. Which of the following can be predicted from electronegativity values of elements ?

77. The product obtained on reaction of C2H5Cl with hydrogen over palladium carbon is

78. An example of Perkin’s reaction is

79. Which of the following product is obtained by treating 1- butyne with HgSO4 and H2SO4?

80. Glucose contains in addition to aldehyde group

81. Fluorine does not show highest oxidation state opposite to other halogens, because

82. The decomposition of a substance follows first order kinetics. Its concentration is reduced to 1/8th of its initial value in 24 minutes. The rate constant of the decomposition process is

83. Vapour pressure (in torr) of an ideal solution of two liquids A and B is given by : P = 52XA + 114 where XA is the mole fraction of A in the mixture. The vapour pressure (in torr) of equimolar mixture of the two liquids will be

84. The favourable condition for a process to be spontaneous is

85. Formaldehyde reacts with ammonia to give urotropine is

86. Indicate the wrongly named compound

87. Paramagnetism of Cr (Z = 24), Mn2+ (Z = 25) and Fe3+
(Z = 26) are x, y and z respectively. They are in the order

88. Which of the following represents a correct sequence of reducing power of the following elements?

89. Calculate the pH of a solution obtained by mixing 2 ml of HCl of pH 2 and 3 ml of solution of KOH of pH = 12

90. Calculate Keq for the cell at 20°C formed by two electrodes

91. The four quantum numbers that could identify the third 3p electron in sulphur are

92. In which of the following, resonance will be possible?

93. The catalyst used in the preparation of an alkyl chloride by the action of dry HCl on an alcohol is

94. Predict the relative acidic strength among the following

95. Ammonium dichromate on heating gives

96. A 0.5 M NaOH solution offers a resistance of 31.6 ohm in a conductivity cell at room temperature. What shall be the approximate molar conductance of this NaOH solution if cell constant of the cell is 0.367 cm–1.

97.

98.

99.

100. Following substances are in solid state :
(A) Methane (B) Cesium chloride
(C) Ice (D) Lithium Which non-conductive solid when melts converts into conductive liquid?

101. Which of the following orders is wrong?

102. In a compound AOH, electronegativity of ‘A’ is 2.1, the compound would be

103.

104. Which of the following structures does not contain any chiral C atom but represent the chirality in the structure

105.

106. Tertiary nitro compounds do not tautomerise because

107. Perlon is

108. The unit of equivalent conductivity is

109. In which case, van’t Hoff factor i remains unchanged ?

110. Which does not exist ?

111. Which of the following reactions is used to make a fuel cell?

112. Which of the following reactions can produce aniline as main product?

113.

114. Penicillin is

115. Which of the following is correct order of acidity?

116. If ‘a’ stands for the edge length of the cubic systems : simple cubic, body centred cubic and face centred cubic, then the ratio of radii of the spheres in these systems will be respectively,

117. In nitrogen family, the H-M-H bond angle in the hydrides gradually becomes closer to 90º on going from N to Sb. This shows that gradually

118.

119. Vapour pressure of benzene at 30°C is 121.8 mm. When 15 g of a non volatile solute is dissolved in 250 g of benzene its vapour pressure decreased to 120.2 mm. The molecular weight of the solute (Mo. wt. of solvent = 78)

120. In DNA the complementary bases are

121. Select correct statement(s).

122.

123. Solubility product of a salt AB is 1 × 10–8 in a solution in which the concentration of A+ ions is 10–3 M. The salt will precipitate when the concentration of B– ions is kept

124. Which one of the following complexes will have four different isomers ?

125. A balloon has maximum capacity of 20 L. At one atmospheric pressure 10 L of air is filled in the balloon. It will burst when pressure is (assuming isothermal condition)

126. The restricted rotation about carbon carbon double bond in 2-butene is due to

127.

128. A certain compound (X) when treated with copper sulphate solution yields a brown precipitate. On adding hypo solution, the precipitate turns white. The compound is

129. Hard water when passed through ion exchange resin containing R’COOH groups, becomes free from :

130. When dihydroxyacetone reacts with HIO4, the product is/ are :

131. Which of the following shows iso-structural species?

132.

133. If uncertainty in position and velocity are equal then uncertainty in momentum will be

134.

135. The correct order of solubility in water for He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe is

136.

137. Which is not the disproportionation reaction ?

138. In which of the following cases, the stability of two oxidation states is correctly represented

139. In an adiabatic process which of the following is true?

140.

141.

142. Which of the following does not represent the correct order of the properties indicated

143. Ozone hole refers to

144. Two elements A & B form compounds having molecular formulae AB2 and AB4. When dissolved in 20.0 g of benzene 1.00g of AB2 lowers f.p. by 2.3°C whereas 1.00g of AB4 lowers f.p. by 1.3°C. The molal depression constant for benzene in 1000g is 5.1. The atomic masses of A and B are

145. The rate of SN1 reaction is fastest in the hydrolysis of which of the following halides ?

146.

147. Potassium permanganate acts as an oxidant in neutral, alkaline as well as acidic media. The final products obtained from it in the three conditions are, respectively

148. In which reaction, there is change in oxidation number of N

149.

150.

151. Which of the following can be termed as a mixed complex?

152. Silver bromide when dissolve in hypo solution gives complex ..... in which oxidation state of silver is ....

153. The pure crystalline substance on being heated gradually first forms a turbid liquid at constant temperature and still at higher temperature turbidity completely disappears. The behaviour is a characteristic of substance forming

154. Among the reactions given below for B2H6, the one which does not take place is

155. Which of the following reactions corresponds to the definition of enthalpy of formation ?

156. Arrange hypophosphorous acid (H3PO2), phosphorous acid (H3PO3) and Phosphoric acid (H3PO4) in the decreasing order of acidic strength

157.

158. Which of the following shows the tendency to form peroxide?

159. Aluminothermy used for on the spot welding of large iron structure is based on the fact that

160.

161. An atom X belongs to 4th period of the periodic table and has highest number of unpaired electrons in comparison to the other elements of the period. The atomic number of X is

162.

163.

164.

165.

166.

167.

168. Which of the following compound can not used in preparation of iodoform?

169. Choose the correct order of T (True) and F (False) –
(1) When the pH of rain water is below 3.6, it is called acid rain.
(2) Ozone hole occurs over Antarctica mainly during September–October and it gets replenished in November–December.
(3) Methylcyclohexane is an ozone-depleting molecule.
(4) COD is always larger than BOD.

170. An aqueous solution of colourless metal sulphate M gives a white precipitate with NH4OH. This was soluble in excess of NH4OH. On passing H2S through this solution a white ppt. is formed. The metal M in the salt is

171. In Lassaigne’s test, the organic compound is fused with a piece of sodium metal in order to

172. If Cl2 gas is passed into aqueous solution of KI containing some CCl4 and the mixture is shaken, then

173. A metal which is not affected by conc. H2SO4, HNO3 or alkalis forms a compound X. This compound X can be used to give a complex which finds its application for toning in photography? The metal is

174. Although Al has a high oxidation potential it resists corrosion because of the formation of a tough, protective coat of

175.

176. Which of the following statements is not correct?

177.

178.

179. Equal volume of 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M glucose are mixed. The mixture will have

180.

181.

JEE (Main) Chemistry Mock online test JEE All Chapters

The above link for JEE Chemistry Online Mock Test Full Syllabus Set A will help you to check your understanding of all important concepts which have been prepared based on latest JEE (Main) JEE syllabus. The free online mock tests for All Chapters JEE (Main) JEE should be used by students to check their understanding. We bring here the biggest collection of All Chapters JEE Chemistry MCQ Test to help you prepare properly and get highest rank in exams. Students can attempt the mock tests for JEE Chemistry as many number of times as they want and also download a passing certificate after they have cleared the online test. These mock online tests for JEE Chemistry All Chapters have been developed by our teachers after thorough review of the latest book and based on pattern of questions in upcoming exams.

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The All Chapters mock online tests for JEE (Main) JEE Chemistry has been designed by our teachers to improve your understanding of this chapter. These online mock tests are structured so that it feels like real exam condition for students so that they can build their confidence and accuracy of answers. By daily practicing these MCQ based questions for JEE Chemistry with answers students will be able to identify key topics to focus on and improve performance. The mock tests have been updated as per the latest NCERT book for JEE Chemistry to help in your exam preparation.

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Daily practicing the All Chapters mock tests for JEE Chemistry has several benefits as they help to familiarize students with important concepts and effective time management skills. Each mock test for chapter All Chapters given above includes a variety of questions that  have been selected from Question Papers for JEE Chemistry and cover all important topics so that you have full preparation. After completing the JEE Chemistry Online Mock Test Full Syllabus Set A, JEE students can review the answers to identify mistakes and improve further. Access these free JEE online mock tests anytime and take a step closer to achieving excellence in your Chemistry exams.

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Follow these simple steps to attempt the test:
a. The JEE Chemistry Online Mock Test Full Syllabus Set A has 15-20 questions for JEE students as per JEE (Main) JEE Chemistry Sample Papers pattern.
b. Each All Chapters question has four options, students of JEE must read the question carefully and choose the correct answer.
c. Answer all questions given above for JEE Chemistry Online Mock Test Full Syllabus Set A.
d. Once you have answered all the All Chapters JEE MCQ based questions, click on the Submit button.
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f. To check your mistakes in MCQ based test for All Chapters in Chemistry for JEE, scroll up and see the correct answers.
g. You can attempt the JEE Chemistry Online Mock Test Full Syllabus Set A as many times to improve your score in JEE (Main) JEE Chemistry exams.

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