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SECTION A
History
1. [1 mark] Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option :
I. Gandhi-Irwin Pact
II. Rowlatt Act
III. Poona Pact
IV. Khilafat Movement
Options :
(A) I, III, IV and II
(B) II, IV, III and I
(C) II, IV, I and III
(D) I, III, II and IV
Answer : (C) Rowlatt Act (1919), then Khilafat Movement (1919-24), then Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931), then Poona Pact (1932).
Teacher's Note:
Remember the correct year for each event to arrange them fast.
Rowlatt Act and Khilafat came before the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Poona Pact came after the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
2. [1 mark] Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : The Indian subcontinent was a crucial point in 'Indian Ocean trade flows' during sixteenth century.
Reason (R) : Its geographical location connected East-West Asia and Europe.
Options :
(A) Both, (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both, (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer : (A) India's location between East and West Asia made it a key trade point, so R correctly explains A.
Teacher's Note:
Check if the Reason gives the actual cause of the Assertion, not just a related fact.
India's geography linking trade routes is a key NCERT point.
3. [1 mark] The given image shows a famous painting. Choose the painter of this art work from the following options :
(A) Satyendranath Bishi
(B) Abanindranath Tagore
(C) Rabindranath Tagore
(D) Raja Ravi Verma
Answer : (D) Raja Ravi Verma was famous for such mythological paintings.
Teacher's Note:
Raja Ravi Verma is known for popular prints of gods and goddesses.
Do not confuse him with Abanindranath Tagore, who painted Bharat Mata.
4. [1 mark] Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Column - A (Writer) Column - B (Contribution)
(A) Sudarshan Chakra - Anandmath
(B) Kashi Baba - Sacchi Kavitayen
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak - Kesari
(D) Pandita Ramabai - Amar Jiban
Answer : (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak ran the newspaper Kesari.
Teacher's Note:
Kesari was Tilak's Marathi newspaper used to spread nationalist ideas.
Anandmath was written by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay, not Sudarshan Chakra.
5. [2 marks] (A) How had globalization begun long before sixteenth century ? Explain.
OR
(B) How did trade help to spread diseases during the pre-modern world ? Explain.
Answer (a) :
Globalization did not start only in modern times. Long before the sixteenth century, the Silk Route already linked distant parts of Asia, Europe and North Africa. Traders travelled on this route and goods, ideas and even religions moved along with them. Early Christian missionaries and, later, Muslim preachers also used this route to spread their faith. Buddhism, which began in eastern India, spread outward through the same silk routes that criss-crossed Asia. So trade and cultural exchange were an early form of globalization.
Answer (b) :
In the pre-modern world, trade routes carried not just goods but also diseases. When Spanish conquerors reached America, their strongest weapon was not their guns but the germs they carried, especially smallpox. Because America's original people had lived in isolation for so long, they had no immunity against such European diseases. Once smallpox spread, it killed and wiped out whole communities before the Europeans even had to fight, which made conquest much easier for the invaders.
Teacher's Note:
Give at least two clear points for full marks in a 2-mark answer.
Link trade routes directly to the spread of either ideas or diseases.
Mention the Silk Route or smallpox as a concrete example.
6. [3 marks] (A) Explain the role of Johann Gutenberg in the spread of print culture in Europe.
OR
(B) Explain the role of print in the expansion of Protestant reformation.
Answer (a) :
Johann Gutenberg grew up learning to polish stones and became a master goldsmith, so he already knew how to make moulds for small metal objects. He used this same skill to design his own printing technology. The first book he printed was the Bible, and about 180 copies were made. Once his method spread, printing presses came up all over Europe and book production increased fast. This growth is known as the Print Revolution, and it led to important outcomes like the Protestant Reformation and a new reading culture among people.
Answer (b) :
Print played a big part in spreading the ideas of the Protestant Reformation. The reformer Martin Luther wrote his 'Ninety-Five Theses', criticising many practices of the Roman Catholic Church. A printed copy of this was put up on a church door in Wittenberg, and it challenged the Church to debate his ideas openly. Because of print, Luther's writings were copied in large numbers and read widely across Europe very quickly. This caused a split inside the Church and marked the start of the Protestant Reformation.
Teacher's Note:
Cover at least three points to score full 3 marks.
Name Gutenberg's Bible or Luther's Ninety-Five Theses as concrete examples.
Show a clear cause and effect between print and the change described.
7. [5 marks] (A) "The formation of the British Nation-State was different from the rest of Europe." Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
OR
(B) "Ideas of national unity in the early nineteenth century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism." Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer (a) :
In Britain, the nation-state was not formed through a sudden revolution like in other parts of Europe. It grew slowly over a long period, and there was no single British nation before the eighteenth century. Before that, people identified themselves as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish. The English parliament, which had taken power away from the monarchy after a long conflict, became the main tool used to build a nation-state centred on England. The Act of Union between England and Scotland created the United Kingdom, but it really meant England could now dominate Scotland. Ireland faced a similar fate, since it was a country divided between Catholics and Protestants, and the English backed the Protestants to establish control over the Catholic majority. After a failed revolt led by Wolfe Tone, Ireland was forcibly joined to the United Kingdom in 1801. Symbols like the Union Jack flag, the anthem 'God Save Our Noble King' and the English language were promoted as British, while the older nations survived only as junior partners in this union.
Answer (b) :
Liberalism comes from the Latin word Liber, meaning free. For the new middle classes in early nineteenth century Europe, liberalism meant freedom for the individual and equality of all people before the law. Politically, it stood for government by consent rather than rule by a king alone. Since the French Revolution, liberalism had called for an end to autocracy and special privileges for the clergy, and it wanted a constitution with a representative government through parliament. Even so, liberal ideas of that time were limited, because in revolutionary France only property-owning men were given the right to vote and to be elected, while men without property and all women were kept out of political rights. In the economic sphere, liberalism supported free markets and wanted state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital to be removed. These economic ideas led to the formation of the Zollverein, a customs union, which became a symbol of economic liberalism working together with the idea of national unity.
Teacher's Note:
Give five well-explained points to earn full 5 marks.
Use the exact terms Act of Union, Zollverein or Wolfe Tone where relevant.
Link the answer back to the given statement in the concluding line.
8. [4 marks] Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
'To the altar of this revolution we have brought our youth as incense.' Many nationalists thought that the struggle against the British could not be won through non-violence. In 1928, the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA) was founded at a meeting in Ferozeshah Kotla ground in Delhi, with leaders like Bhagat Singh, Jatin Das and Ajoy Ghosh. In April 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutta threw a bomb in the Legislative Assembly, and that same year there was an attempt to blow up the train Lord Irwin was travelling in. Bhagat Singh was 23 when he was tried and executed. During his trial he said he did not wish to glorify the cult of the bomb and pistol, but wanted a revolution in society, declaring that revolution is the inalienable right of mankind and freedom the imprescriptible birthright of all.
8.1 [1 mark] Why is the formation of 'Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA)' considered as a turning point in the freedom struggle of India ?
Answer :
Many nationalists had begun to feel that non-violence alone could not defeat the British, so the HSRA brought a new, younger and more radical leadership into the freedom movement, which helped spread nationalist and patriotic feeling further.
8.2 [1 mark] How did Bhagat Singh's trial speeches transform him from a revolutionary to a philosopher of freedom ?
Answer :
During his trial, Bhagat Singh made it clear he did not wish to glorify the cult of the bomb and pistol but wanted a wider social revolution, and his speeches spoke of freedom, justice and equality, showing a deeper philosophical vision rather than just armed action.
8.3 [2 marks] In what way did Bhagat Singh redefine the meaning of 'revolution' for his generation ? Explain.
Answer :
Bhagat Singh described revolution as the inalienable right of mankind and freedom as the birthright of every person. He believed the youth of his generation must be ready to sacrifice everything for this cause, and his famous slogan 'Inquilab Zindabad' was used to awaken the spirit of freedom among Indians.
Teacher's Note:
Do not answer the passage itself, only the three numbered sub-questions.
Quote a short phrase from the source, like 'Inquilab Zindabad', to support the answer.
Keep 8.1 and 8.2 to one clear point each since they carry only 1 mark.
9. [2 marks] Two places (A) and (B) have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them based on the information given below and write their correct names on the lines marked on the map near them :
(A) The place where General Dyer ordered firing upon a peaceful gathering on 13 April, 1919.
(B) The place where the Session of Indian National Congress was held in the year 1927.
Answer :
(A) Amritsar (Jallianwala Bagh) should be marked with a dot, since General Dyer ordered firing on a peaceful gathering there on 13 April, 1919.
(B) Madras (Chennai) should be marked with a dot, since the Indian National Congress held its session there in 1927.
Teacher's Note:
Mark the exact dot given in the map, do not just write the state name.
Jallianwala Bagh is inside Amritsar city in Punjab.
The 1927 Congress session at Madras is a specific NCERT fact worth remembering.
SECTION B
Geography
10. [1 mark] Identify the correct soil from the given options to complete the flow chart :
Heavy Rainfall + High Leaching → ? → Useful for growing Coffee and Tea
Options :
(A) Alluvial soil
(B) Laterite soil
(C) Red soil
(D) Black soil
Answer : (B) Laterite soil forms under heavy rainfall with high leaching and suits tea and coffee.
Teacher's Note:
Laterite soil is found mostly in high rainfall areas like Kerala, Karnataka and Assam.
Remember leaching removes soluble nutrients, which is why laterite is less fertile.
11. [1 mark] Identify the state related with the Chipko Movement :
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Bihar
Answer : (C) The Chipko Movement began in Uttarakhand to protect forests.
Teacher's Note:
Chipko means to hug or stick, as villagers hugged trees to stop them being cut.
It is a well-known example of a resource conservation movement.
12. [1 mark] Match Column - I with Column - II and choose the correct option :
Column - I (Types of Farming) : I. Primitive subsistence farming, II. Intensive subsistence farming, III. Commercial farming, IV. Plantation farming
Column - II (Features) : (a) Use of modern inputs with less labour, (b) Single crop cultivation on large scale, (c) Slash and burn cultivation, (d) Labour intensive cultivation
Options :
(A) (c) (a) (d) (b)
(B) (a) (b) (d) (c)
(C) (c) (d) (a) (b)
(D) (d) (c) (b) (a)
Answer : (C) I-(c) slash and burn, II-(d) labour intensive, III-(a) modern inputs less labour, IV-(b) single crop large scale.
Teacher's Note:
Slash and burn is the traditional name for primitive subsistence farming.
Plantation farming always means one crop grown over a large area, like tea or coffee estates.
13. [1 mark] Choose the appropriate option to fill in the blank :
Minerals → Ferrous (Nickel), ? (Bauxite), Precious (Gold)
Options :
(A) Energy Minerals
(B) Non-Metallic Minerals
(C) Non-Ferrous Minerals
(D) Precious Minerals
Answer : (C) Bauxite is a non-ferrous mineral, since it does not contain iron.
Teacher's Note:
Minerals are grouped as ferrous, non-ferrous, non-metallic and energy minerals.
Bauxite is the ore used to make aluminium, which is a non-ferrous metal.
14. [1 mark] Choose the correct option related to the factors that determined the land use pattern in India :
(A) Political and Religious factors
(B) Cultural and Geological factors
(C) Economical and Historical factors
(D) Physical and Human factors
Answer : (D) Both physical factors like soil, climate and terrain, and human factors like population, decide land use.
Teacher's Note:
Land use pattern depends on things people can change and things nature has already fixed.
Population density and technology are examples of human factors.
15. [1 mark] Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
Column - A (National Parks) Column - B (States)
(A) Periyar - Madhya Pradesh
(B) Manas - Assam
(C) Bandhavgarh - Rajasthan
(D) Corbett - Uttar Pradesh
Answer : (B) Manas National Park is located in Assam.
Teacher's Note:
Periyar is actually in Kerala, and Bandhavgarh and Corbett are in Madhya Pradesh and Uttarakhand respectively.
Learn a few national parks with their correct states, since this is a common MCQ trap.
16. [2 marks] Suggest any two measures for better productivity and organic farming.
Answer :
Using organic manure and compost improves soil fertility naturally and gives essential nutrients to crops without chemicals. Farmers can also follow crop rotation, growing different crops one after another in the same field, which helps reduce pests and keeps the soil healthy for a longer time.
Teacher's Note:
Any two measures are enough, do not write more than needed for 2 marks.
Organic manure, crop rotation, biological pest control and drip irrigation are all valid points.
17. [5 marks] (A) "Energy saved is energy produced." Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
OR
(B) "Electricity has a wide range of applications in today's world that its per capita consumption is considered as an index of development." Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer (a) :
When we save electricity, less power needs to be generated in power plants, so saving energy works just like producing new energy. Resources such as coal, petroleum and natural gas are limited and will run out one day, so saving energy conserves these valuable resources for the future. Energy conservation also lowers the cost of generating electricity and helps the country save money, while reducing pressure on power stations and preventing power cuts. Simple habits, like switching off lights and fans when not needed, using public transport, and car-pooling, can save a large amount of energy. Because every unit of energy saved equals a unit of energy produced, we must use our limited energy resources carefully and shift towards non-conventional sources for sustainable development.
Answer (b) :
Electricity is widely used to run machines in industries such as iron and steel, textiles, chemicals and engineering, which drives industrial development. It also powers irrigation pumps and tube wells, helping farmers increase agricultural production. In households, electricity is used for lighting, heating, cooling, cooking and running appliances, making daily life easier. Modern transport systems, like electric trains and metro railways, depend on electricity to run, and it is essential for telecommunication, television, computers and the internet. Commercial places such as offices, markets, banks and shopping centres need electricity for their daily operations, and schools, hospitals and laboratories depend on it too. Because electricity touches almost every part of life, greater access to it directly improves people's comfort and productivity, which is why per capita electricity consumption is used as a sign of a country's development.
Teacher's Note:
Cover different sectors like industry, agriculture, household and transport for full marks.
Give at least five distinct points, each backed by a small example.
End with a line connecting back to the statement given in the question.
18. [4 marks] Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
FLOODS. Basic safety precautions include listening to radio or TV for weather bulletins and flood warnings, making a family emergency kit with a torch, spare batteries, a first aid box, ORS, dry food, drinking water and candles, and keeping cash, jewellery and important documents in a safe place. During floods, people should not enter flood waters or let children play near them, must stay away from sewer lines, drains and fallen power-lines, must be careful of snakes, and should eat only freshly cooked and covered food and drink only boiled or filtered water.
18.1 [1 mark] Suggest one precaution before using water after floods.
Answer :
Water should always be boiled and filtered before it is used for drinking after a flood.
18.2 [1 mark] Mention any two measures related to protection of food items during floods.
Answer :
People should eat only freshly cooked and dry food during floods, and they should always keep their food covered so it does not get contaminated.
18.3 [2 marks] Suggest two actions to be taken before leaving the house during a flood warning.
Answer :
Before leaving the house, a family should make an emergency kit with essentials like a torch, medicines and dry food, and keep cash, jewellery and important documents safely with them. They must also switch off the power and gas connections before they leave, so that the house does not catch fire or get short-circuited.
Teacher's Note:
Only answer the three numbered questions, not the whole passage as a summary.
Give exactly the number of points asked, one for 18.1, two for 18.2 and 18.3.
Words like boiled, covered and emergency kit are the exact terms examiners look for.
19. [3 marks] On the same outline map of India, given for Q. No. 9, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
19.1 The dam built on Mahanadi river.
19.2 Nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh.
19.3 Software technology park located in Maharashtra.
19.4 Major sea port located in Gujarat.
Answer :
19.1 Hirakud Dam should be marked and labelled on the Mahanadi river in Odisha.
19.2 Narora, in Uttar Pradesh, should be marked and labelled as the location of the nuclear power plant.
19.3 Pune or Mumbai, in Maharashtra, should be marked and labelled as the software technology park.
19.4 Kandla, in Gujarat, should be marked and labelled as the major sea port.
Teacher's Note:
Only any three of the four locations need to be marked, choose the ones known best.
Use the correct symbol for a dam, a power plant, a technology park and a port as taught in class.
Hirakud is one of the longest dams in the world, built on the Mahanadi.
SECTION C
Political Science
20. [1 mark] Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Both, Sri Lanka and Belgium faced challenges of ethnic and linguistic diversity.
Reason (R) : Sri Lanka had majority of Tamils whereas Belgium had majority of French speaking people.
Options :
(A) Both, (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both, (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer : (C) Sri Lanka's majority were Sinhala speakers, not Tamils, so the Reason is incorrect.
Teacher's Note:
Remember Sinhalese are the majority in Sri Lanka, while Tamils are a minority.
Do not confuse this with Belgium, where French speakers really are a large group.
21. [1 mark] Look at the given picture carefully and choose the most appropriate option : Which of the following values is being reflected through this picture ?
(A) Unity and integration
(B) Equality and Justice
(C) Multitasking and Dedication
(D) Religions and Rituals
Answer : (C) The picture of a woman with many hands shows multitasking and dedication.
Teacher's Note:
Picture-based questions usually test values shown by a symbol, not a factual date.
Look at what the image is doing, not just what it shows.
22. [1 mark] Identify the odd one out regarding the Political Parties of India :
(A) Indian National Congress and Communist Party of India (M)
(B) Rashtriya Janta Dal and Lok Jan Shakti Party
(C) Indian National Lok Dal and Jan Nayak Janta Party
(D) Rashtriya Lok Dal and Jan Satta Dal
Answer : (A) These are both national parties, while the other pairs are state or regional parties.
Teacher's Note:
National parties contest across India, while regional parties are limited to one or a few states.
Grouping is the key skill here, not just knowing party names.
23. [1 mark] Read the following statements regarding decentralization step India took in the year 1992 and choose the correct option :
I. Mandatory regular elections for local bodies
II. Two-third seats reserved for women
III. Formation of the State Election Commission
IV. Seats reserved for Schedule Castes and Schedule Tribes
Options :
(A) I, II and III are correct.
(B) I, III and IV are correct.
(C) II, III and IV are correct.
(D) I, II and IV are correct.
Answer : (B) The 1992 law made compulsory local elections, an Election Commission and SC/ST reservation, but seats reserved for women were one-third, not two-third.
Teacher's Note:
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments of 1992 brought these decentralisation changes.
Note carefully that the reservation for women is one-third, a common trick in this MCQ.
24. [2 marks] Explain any two features of federalism.
Answer :
In a federal system, there are two or more levels of government, and each level has its own powers over specific matters of law-making, taxation and administration. The powers of each level are written down in the Constitution itself, so one level of government cannot change these basic provisions on its own, it needs the consent of the other level too.
Teacher's Note:
Two clear features with a short explanation each are enough for 2 marks.
Words like tiers of government and constitutionally guaranteed are important keywords.
25. [2 marks] Explain any two Constitutional provisions that make India a secular nation.
Answer :
India has no official religion of its own, unlike some other countries. The Constitution gives every individual and community the freedom to profess, practise and propagate any religion of their choice, and it also bans discrimination on the grounds of religion.
Teacher's Note:
Mention freedom of religion and no official state religion as the two safest points.
The Constitution also allows the state to step in against practices like untouchability.
26. [3 marks] "Political parties perform a series of functions in the democracy." Explain the statement with examples.
Answer :
Political parties contest elections and put forward different policies and programmes for voters to choose from. They group many different public opinions into a few basic positions, which gives direction to government policy-making, and they play a big role in making laws in the legislature. Parties also recruit and train leaders, some of whom go on to become ministers and run the government, while parties that lose the election form the opposition and criticise government failures or wrong policies. For example, opposition parties often raise public issues and even launch movements to mobilise opinion against the ruling party's decisions.
Teacher's Note:
Any three functions with a small example will fetch full 3 marks.
Cover both ruling party functions and opposition party functions for a balanced answer.
27. [5 marks] (A) "The blend of accountability, responsiveness and legitimacy forms the foundation of a democratic government." Examine the statement.
OR
(B) "Dignity and freedom of the citizens are the essence of democracy." Examine the statement.
Answer (a) :
Democracy ensures that citizens have the power to elect their representatives and control the rulers through regular elections. A basic outcome of democracy is that the government stays accountable to its citizens, who can question decisions and check that proper procedures were followed before decisions are made. Democratic governments also try to be responsive to what people actually need and expect from them. Citizens have the right to examine how decisions are taken, which keeps government actions transparent, and democracy builds institutions that let citizens take part in decision-making. Finally, democracy is seen as a legitimate government because it is the people's own government, chosen by them, and practices like free and fair elections, open public debate and the right to information all strengthen this accountability, responsiveness and legitimacy together.
Answer (b) :
Democracy promotes the dignity and freedom of every individual, and the desire for respect and freedom forms the very basis of democratic life. Equal treatment and respect towards women is a necessary part of a truly democratic society, and democracy in India has strengthened the claims of disadvantaged and discriminated castes to equal status and equal opportunity. Because of this, ordinary citizens learn to value their democratic rights instead of just accepting whatever they are given. Democracy transforms people from being mere subjects of a ruler into being citizens with a say in government, and it provides a peaceful method to resolve conflicts while promoting equality and guaranteeing basic rights to all.
Teacher's Note:
Give five separate points for full 5 marks, each explained in a line or two.
Words like accountable, responsive, legitimate, dignity and freedom are the key examiner terms.
A short concluding sentence tying back to the statement helps improve the impression.
28. [4 marks] Read the given source carefully and answer the questions that follow :
POWER SHARING. Power sharing arrangements can be seen in how political parties, pressure groups and movements influence those in power. In a democracy, citizens must have a choice among different contenders for power, which in modern democracies takes the form of competition among parties. Sometimes two or more parties form an alliance and, if elected, share power through a coalition government. Interest groups such as traders, businessmen, industrialists, farmers and industrial workers also share in governmental power, either by taking part in government committees or by influencing decision-making.
28.1 [1 mark] How do pressure groups influence the government ?
Answer :
Pressure groups represent different social groups and their interests, and they create awareness among the public and try to influence the government's decision-making process.
28.2 [1 mark] How do social groups benefit from power sharing ?
Answer :
Power sharing protects the interests of different groups, such as linguistic and cultural communities, and gives fair representation to minorities, which reduces conflict and keeps the system stable.
28.3 [2 marks] Explain the contributions of citizens in the power sharing process.
Answer :
Citizens contribute to power sharing by taking part in government committees and branches and by joining interest groups or civil society organisations that raise their concerns. Through these activities and by voting, citizens influence the decision-making process and keep a check on government actions.
Teacher's Note:
Keep 28.1 and 28.2 to one clear point each since they are only 1 mark.
Coalition government and interest groups are the key terms from this passage.
Do not summarise the passage itself, answer only the three sub-questions.
SECTION D
Economics
29. [1 mark] Study the data of a State given below and answer the question that follows :
| Category | Males | Females |
| I. Literacy rate of rural population | 76% | 54% |
| II. Literacy rate of rural children in age group of 10-14 years | 90% | 87% |
| III. Percentage of rural children aged 10-14 years attending school | 85% | 82% |
If rural children aged 10-14 years are considered, then how many female children are attending school ?
(A) 90
(B) 85
(C) 82
(D) 83
Answer : (C) The table shows 82% of female children aged 10-14 years attend school.
Teacher's Note:
Read the table row carefully, this question asks about school attendance, not literacy rate.
Row III gives the correct figure needed here.
30. [1 mark] Match Column - I with Column - II and choose the correct option :
Column - I (Sectors on the basis of ownership) : a. Public Sector, b. Private Sector, c. Joint Sector, d. Cooperative Sector
Column - II (Examples) : (i) Amul Dairy, (ii) Maruti Suzuki, (iii) Oil and Natural Gas Corporation, (iv) Airtel Limited
Options :
(A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(D) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
Answer : (C) a-Public Sector-ONGC, b-Private Sector-Airtel, c-Joint Sector-Maruti Suzuki, d-Cooperative Sector-Amul Dairy.
Teacher's Note:
Joint sector means the government and private players own the business together.
Amul is a classic example of a cooperative sector enterprise.
31. [1 mark] Read the following case and choose the correct option :
Swapna owns a small farm in her village. She wants to take loan to meet the expense of cultivation.
From which of the following sources should Swapna take the loan ?
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Nearest nationalised bank
(C) Moneylender of the village
(D) Agricultural trader
Answer : (B) A nationalised bank is a formal, low-interest and safer source of credit than a moneylender.
Teacher's Note:
Formal sources like banks are always safer than informal sources like moneylenders.
The RBI itself does not lend directly to farmers, it supervises other banks.
32. [1 mark] Which one of the following best describes liberalisation ?
(A) Protecting domestic industries
(B) Banning foreign companies
(C) Removal of restrictions on trade
(D) Restricting foreign investment
Answer : (C) Liberalisation means removing government restrictions on trade and business.
Teacher's Note:
Liberalisation, privatisation and globalisation are three different but related terms, do not mix them up.
Liberalisation is specifically about removing trade restrictions.
33. [1 mark] Which of the following organisations publishes the 'Human Development Report' ?
(A) World Trade Organisation
(B) World Health Organisation
(C) United Nations Environmental Program
(D) United Nations Development Program
Answer : (D) The United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) publishes the Human Development Report.
Teacher's Note:
UNDP is the correct body, not WHO or WTO.
The Human Development Report ranks countries using the Human Development Index.
34. [1 mark] Choose the correct option to fill the blank :
Literacy Rate is expressed as a proportion of the literate population in the age group ______ and above.
(A) 7 years
(B) 8 years
(C) 9 years
(D) 10 years
Answer : (A) Literacy rate is measured for people aged 7 years and above.
Teacher's Note:
This is a fixed NCERT definition, remember the age as exactly 7 years.
Do not confuse this with the school-going age used for other statistics.
35. [3 marks] "New technology has helped the world to become connected." Justify the statement with suitable arguments.
Answer :
Rapid improvements in technology have driven the globalisation process forward. Better transport technology allows goods to be delivered across long distances much faster and at lower cost, while developments in information and communication technology, especially telecommunications, computers and the internet, let people access information almost instantly. Satellite communication devices have made global communication and information sharing much easier, and the internet lets people share information on almost anything, send instant e-mails and even talk over voice-mail across the world at very low cost.
Teacher's Note:
Any three points on technology and connectivity are enough for full marks.
Mention transport technology and the internet as the two strongest examples.
36. [3 marks] Differentiate between formal and informal sources of credit.
Answer :
| Formal sources of credit | Informal sources of credit |
| Supervised by the Reserve Bank of India. | No organisation supervises these sources. |
| Charge a minimal rate of interest on loans. | Charge a much higher rate of interest. |
| Low cost of borrowing, and low chances of debt trap. | High cost of borrowing, may lead to a debt trap. |
| Includes loans from banks and cooperatives. | Includes moneylenders, traders, employers, relatives and friends. |
Teacher's Note:
Give at least three points of difference, presented in a clear comparison.
RBI supervision and interest rate are the two most important points examiners look for.
37. [3 marks] Why is sustainable development essential ? Explain with examples.
Answer :
Sustainable development means economic growth that is also environment friendly, so that resources are conserved for future generations too. Resources must be used in line with their availability, and present needs must be met in a careful and judicious way without wasting them. For example, groundwater is a renewable resource that gets replenished naturally, like crops and plants, but if it is used faster than it can be renewed, future generations will suffer, which shows why our present growth must be sustainable.
Teacher's Note:
Give any three points, one of which should include a real example like groundwater.
Link the idea clearly to conserving resources for future generations.
38. [5 marks] (A) Describe the efforts done by the Indian government to increase employment in rural areas.
OR
(B) Describe the rising importance of Tertiary Sector in India.
Answer (a) :
The central government in India has made laws to implement the Right to Work in rural areas. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 (MGNREGA) guarantees 100 days of employment in a year to all those in rural areas who are able to work and need work. It is the duty of the government to provide this work, and if it fails to do so, it must give unemployment allowances instead. Types of work that will help raise agricultural production from the land are given preference under this Act. The government has continued to build on this through newer schemes for rural employment and livelihood, along with agricultural development programmes, to further generate employment in villages.
Answer (b) :
Over the past few decades, production has grown in all three sectors of the Indian economy, but the tertiary sector has grown the fastest and become the largest sector in India, overtaking the primary sector. This sector covers a wide range of services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices, municipal corporations, defence, transport and banks, which are all essential for supporting growth in the other two sectors. As people's incomes rise, they also demand more services like tourism, shopping, private hospitals and schools, which further boosts the tertiary sector. New information and communication technology has also opened up services that were not even available before, making this sector increasingly important to India's economy.
Teacher's Note:
Give five distinct points for full marks in this 5-mark long answer.
MGNREGA and its 100-day guarantee is the most important fact for part (A).
For part (B), mention that the tertiary sector has overtaken the primary sector in size.
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