CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 32-1-3

SECTION A

1. Study the following table related to 'World Human Development Index' and answer the questions given below :
S. No: 1 | Country: India | HDI Rank in the world: 130
S. No: 2 | Country: Myanmar | HDI Rank in the world: 148
S. No: 3 | Country: Nepal | HDI Rank in the world: 149
S. No: 4 | Country: Pakistan | HDI Rank in the world: 150
Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the highest rank in 'Human Development Index' ? [1 Mark]
(A) Pakistan
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar

Answer: (B) India

Teacher's Note:
a) A lower HDI rank number means a higher position in development.
b) India's rank of 130 is the smallest number here, so it is highest ranked among these four.

2. Which of the following are the main components of a political party ? Choose the correct option :
I. Leaders
II. Active members
III. Followers
IV. Pressure groups [1 Mark]
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (A) Only I, II and III are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pressure groups are separate organisations, not components of a party.
b) Remember the three components: leaders, active members and followers/sympathisers.

3. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following : [1 Mark]
(A) Canada - Unitary
(B) Bolivia - Federal
(C) Australia - Unitary
(D) Spain - Federal

Answer: (D) Spain - Federal

Teacher's Note:
a) Canada and Australia are federal countries, not unitary.
b) Spain adopted federalism to accommodate regional diversity like Catalonia.

4. Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government ? [1 Mark]
(A) Unitary
(B) Presidential
(C) Federal
(D) Parliamentary

Answer: (C) Federal

Teacher's Note:
a) Belgium adopted a federal system to balance Dutch and French speaking communities.
b) This is a key example of power sharing to avoid majoritarian rule.

5. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I (Minerals): a. Iron ore | b. Mica | c. Bauxite | d. Coal
Column II (Major Mines): i. Gaya | ii. Singarauli | iii. Chandrapur | iv. Maikala [1 Mark]
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

Answer: (A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Teacher's Note:
a) Iron ore is mined at Chandrapur, mica at Gaya, bauxite at Maikala and coal at Singarauli.
b) Learn mineral belts along with state and mine names for map-based recall.

6. Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in 1866 ? [1 Mark]
(A) Sardinia-Piedmont
(B) Venetia
(C) Sicily
(D) Papal State

Answer: (B) Venetia

Teacher's Note:
a) Venetia joined united Italy in 1866, Rome joined in 1870.
b) Sardinia-Piedmont was the base kingdom that led unification, not a later addition.

7. Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option :
I. Poverty and hunger
II. Slaves for sale
III. Wide spread of diseases
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution [1 Mark]
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Slave sale was a forced transportation, not a voluntary migration reason.
b) Poverty, disease and religious persecution pushed free Europeans to migrate.

8. The author of 'Book of Marvels' is : [1 Mark]
(A) Marco Polo
(B) Columbus
(C) Vasco da Gama
(D) Alfred Crosby

Answer: (A) Marco Polo

Teacher's Note:
a) Marco Polo's travel account inspired later European explorers.
b) The marking scheme notes that due to no fully correct option, full marks were awarded to all candidates who attempted this question.

9. Assume you are doing research on 15th century print culture. Which of the following would be the most significant advantage for your research ? [1 Mark]
(A) Easier access to rare manuscripts
(B) Reduced need for libraries
(C) Increase in the ability to copy text by hand
(D) Increased speed and accuracy of print

Answer: (D) Increased speed and accuracy of print

Teacher's Note:
a) The printing press made book production faster and more accurate than hand copying.
b) Libraries remained important, so option (B) is incorrect.

10. Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option :
I. Reserved
II. Protected
III. Unclassed [1 Mark]
(A) III, II, I
(B) I, II, III
(C) II, III, I
(D) III, I, II

Answer: (B) I, II, III

Teacher's Note:
a) Reserved forests cover the largest area, followed by protected, then unclassed.
b) Reserved forests are considered most valuable for conservation.

11. 'Sariska Tiger Reserve' is located in which one of the following states ? [1 Mark]
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (B) Rajasthan

Teacher's Note:
a) Sariska is a well-known tiger reserve in the Alwar district of Rajasthan.
b) Do not confuse it with Ranthambore, also in Rajasthan.

12. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option :
Column I (Dam): a. Hirakud | b. Gandhi Sagar | c. Nagarjuna Sagar | d. Mettur
Column II (River): i. Chambal | ii. Krishna | iii. Kaveri | iv. Mahanadi [1 Mark]
(A) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Answer: (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Hirakud is on the Mahanadi, Gandhi Sagar on the Chambal, Nagarjuna Sagar on the Krishna, Mettur on the Kaveri.
b) Memorise dam-river pairs along with the state they are located in.

13. Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the Krishna - Godavari issue : [1 Mark]
(A) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

Answer: (B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

Teacher's Note:
a) These three states share the Krishna-Godavari river basin and often dispute water sharing.
b) Do not confuse this with the Cauvery dispute states.

14. Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey ? [1 Mark]
(A) Paddy
(B) Maize
(C) Wheat
(D) Jowar

Answer: (C) Wheat

Teacher's Note:
a) Wheat is a rabi crop, sown in winter and visible growing in January.
b) Paddy, maize and jowar are kharif crops, not grown in this season.

15. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Assertion (A) : Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Reason (R) : All living things need minerals. [1 Mark]
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Minerals are essential for bones, teeth and metabolism in living beings.
b) This directly explains why minerals are indispensable to life.

16. Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option :
Statement I : Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process.
Statement II : This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs. [1 Mark]
(A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(B) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

Answer: (A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Teacher's Note:
a) Technology improvements in transport and communication drive globalisation.
b) Statement II gives the specific mechanism explaining statement I.

17. Which of the following groups in urban India depend on informal sources to meet their credit needs ? [1 Mark]
(A) Poor households
(B) Households with few assets
(C) Both poor households and households with few assets
(D) Both well-off households and households with few assets

Answer: (C) Both poor households and households with few assets

Teacher's Note:
a) Lack of collateral pushes both these groups towards informal lenders.
b) Well-off households usually access formal bank credit easily.

18. Why does it become difficult for farmers in rural areas to take loans from government banks ? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option :
I. Lack of collateral
II. Complicated procedure
III. Higher cost of borrowing
IV. Lack of awareness [1 Mark]
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Higher cost of borrowing is more associated with informal sources, not formal bank procedures.
b) Collateral, paperwork and low awareness are the real barriers for rural farmers.

19. Look at the given picture and answer the question that follow : The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy ? [1 Mark]
(A) Primary
(B) Quaternary
(C) Secondary
(D) Tertiary

[Figure: Photograph showing women workers in a garment factory setting, cutting and arranging cloth pieces on tables.]

Answer: (D) Tertiary (as per the official CBSE marking scheme)

Teacher's Note:
a) The official CBSE marking scheme gives (D) Tertiary as the answer to this question.
b) Many students choose (C) Secondary because the picture shows garment work, so read picture-based questions carefully.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 19)

The work of which of the following comes in the secondary sector of the economy ? [1 Mark]
(A) Bee-keeper
(B) Moneylender
(C) Basket weaver
(D) Fisherman

Answer: (C) Basket weaver

Teacher's Note:
a) Basket weaving converts raw material into a finished product, making it secondary sector work.
b) Bee-keeping and fishing are primary sector activities; money lending is tertiary.

20. 'X' lives in a town. He cultivates flowers along with animal husbandry. The work of 'X' will fall under which sector of the economy ? [1 Mark]
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary

Answer: (A) Primary

Teacher's Note:
a) Both flower cultivation and animal husbandry directly use natural resources.
b) Any activity based on extracting or growing natural products belongs to the primary sector.

SECTION B

21. Suggest any two measures to remove gender inequality. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Increase the literacy rate among women through education and awareness programmes.
2. Increase political representation of women, and give legal protection to women in employment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Any two relevant measures like education, employment protection or political reservation are acceptable.
b) Link measures directly to reducing inequality, not just describing inequality.

22. Explain two important characteristics of Black soil. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Black soil, also called regur soil, is ideal for growing cotton, so it is also known as black cotton soil.
2. It is made of fine clayey material, has high moisture-retaining capacity and is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime, though poor in phosphorus.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember "regur soil" and "black cotton soil" as key terms.
b) Mention both formation factor (climate and parent rock) and nutrient content for full marks.

23. (a) Explain the role of anti-colonial movement in the rise of 'modern nationalism' in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. People began discovering their unity through the shared experience of struggling against colonial oppression.
2. Movements like Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India united different classes and groups, even though their individual experiences of colonialism varied.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasise "shared bond against colonialism" as the key idea.
b) Name at least one anti-colonial movement for a complete answer.

OR

(b) Why did Gandhiji say 'Satyagraha is pure soul-force' ? Explain by giving two arguments. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Satyagraha relies on truth, which is the very substance of the soul, so it is a moral and not a physical force.
2. A satyagrahi does not wish to harm or destroy the opponent; there is no ill-will in the use of satyagraha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast satyagraha with physical force to show it is non-violent.
b) Use Gandhiji's own words like "truth" and "non-violence" for scoring keywords.

24. How did improvement in transportation technology stimulate the globalisation process ? Explain. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Faster and cheaper transport made delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
2. People could travel long distances quickly, which facilitated both domestic and international trade.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link transport improvement directly to lower cost and faster delivery.
b) Mention trade facilitation as the outcome for globalisation.

SECTION C

25. "The ideas of nationalism developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore." Explain the statement in the context of the national movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Nationalists in late nineteenth century India began recording folk tales sung by bards and toured villages to collect folk songs and legends.
2. They believed these tales showed the true picture of traditional culture that had been corrupted by outside forces, so preserving folk tradition helped discover national identity.
3. In Bengal, Rabindranath Tagore collected ballads and myths, while in Madras, Natesa Sastri published a four-volume collection of Tamil folk tales, calling folklore the truest expression of people's thoughts.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give at least one regional example, such as Tagore in Bengal or Natesa Sastri in Madras.
b) Connect folklore revival to building a sense of national pride and identity.

26. Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows :

Story of Rinjha
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family's search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.

What type of farming is Rinjha's family doing ? Describe any two of its characteristics. [1+2=3 Marks]

Answer:
Type of farming: Primitive subsistence farming (slash and burn cultivation).
1. It is practised on small patches of land using simple tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks.
2. It depends on family or community labour, monsoon rains and the natural fertility of the soil.

Teacher's Note:
a) The clues "clearing, slashing, burning" point directly to slash and burn/primitive farming.
b) Name the farming type first, then describe features, for full marks distribution.

27. "Political power cannot be divided." Analyse suitable arguments against the statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Power sharing is the essence of democracy, since people are the ultimate source of all political power.
2. Undivided political power leads to dictatorship or totalitarianism, which goes against democratic principles.
3. Division of power ensures accountability, checks and balances, and improves the quality of decision-making.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on why sharing power is valuable, not just describing types of power sharing.
b) Use the keyword "accountability" as an important scoring point.

28. (a) Explain the importance of political parties in democracy. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Political parties contest elections and put forward policies and programmes for voters to choose from.
2. They play a decisive role in making laws, and in forming and running the government.
3. Parties that lose play the role of opposition by voicing different views and shaping public opinion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover both ruling and opposition party functions for a complete answer.
b) Mention "public opinion shaping" as a distinct, often forgotten point.

OR

(b) Why did India adopt the multiparty system ? Explain with suitable arguments. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Party systems are not simply chosen; they develop from a country's own social and historical conditions.
2. India's huge social diversity could not be represented by just two or three parties.
3. India's vast geographical diversity also required a multiparty system so that varied interests and opinions get political representation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the words "social diversity" and "geographical diversity" as key value points.
b) Avoid confusing multiparty system with coalition government, they are related but distinct ideas.

29. Evaluate the contribution of the tertiary sector in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The tertiary sector has emerged as the largest sector in India's GDP, including services like hospitals, transport, banking and insurance that create large-scale employment.
2. As primary and secondary sectors develop, demand for these support services increases further.
3. Rising income levels have increased demand for services like restaurants, tourism and shopping, and new IT-based services have become a major contributor to GDP.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention that tertiary sector is now the largest contributor to India's GDP as the key fact.
b) Give an example like IT services to show recent growth trends.

SECTION D

30. (a) "Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation in 19th century Europe." Evaluate the statement in the context of romanticism. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Art, poetry, stories and music helped express and shape nationalist feelings across Europe.
2. Romanticism was a cultural movement that criticised the glorification of reason and science, focusing instead on emotions and shared collective heritage as the basis of a nation.
3. German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people, or das volk.
4. Folk songs, poetry and dances were seen as expressing the true spirit of the nation, so the Grimm brothers collected folk tales as expressions of authentic German spirit.
5. Language also played a role, as seen in Polish being used for church gatherings as a weapon of resistance against Russian domination, and Karol Kurpinski celebrating national struggle through operas and folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name Herder and the Grimm brothers as key figures linked to romantic nationalism.
b) Use the example of Polish language resistance to show culture-language-nationalism link.

OR

(b) "The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans." Evaluate the statement in the context of Slavic Movement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation, comprising modern Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece and other areas, whose people were broadly called Slavs.
2. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the declining Ottoman Empire.
3. The spread of romantic nationalism combined with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made the region highly explosive, as subject nationalities broke away one by one.
4. Balkan peoples based their claims for independence on nationality and used history to prove they had once been independent before being subjugated by foreign powers.
5. As different Slavic groups struggled to define their identity, the Balkan states became fiercely jealous of each other, each hoping to gain more territory at others' expense, leading to intense conflict.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention that Balkans included Slav-majority regions under Ottoman control.
b) Highlight jealousy between Balkan states as the direct cause of tension.

31. (a) "Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is becoming a serious threat in many parts of the country." Evaluate the statement in the context of sustainability of development. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Sustainability means development should occur without damaging the environment, so that present development does not compromise the needs of future generations.
2. Groundwater is a renewable resource, replenished naturally, but population growth and agricultural practices are causing its overuse in many regions.
3. About 300 districts have reported a groundwater level decline of over 4 metres in the past 20 years.
4. Nearly one third of the country is already overusing its groundwater reserves, and this could rise to 60 percent in 25 years if current practices continue.
5. Overuse is particularly severe in agriculturally prosperous regions like Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh, making judicious use of water resources and pollution control essential.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define "sustainability" clearly before giving examples for full marks.
b) Use the statistic of "one third overusing groundwater" as a strong value point.

OR

(b) "The development goals of different categories of people may differ." Evaluate the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Each person seeks different things in life based on their own needs, aspirations and circumstances.
2. What is development for one group may not be development for another, and their goals may even conflict.
3. For example, a girl may expect the same freedom as her brother and expect him to share household work, showing differing goals within the same family.
4. An industrialist may want more dams for electricity, but people displaced by the dam may resent this development goal.
5. Therefore, development is a mixed concept that varies according to the specific expectations and living conditions of different groups.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give at least two contrasting examples, like gender roles and industrial development, for full marks.
b) Stress that "development" is not a single, fixed idea for everyone.

32. (a) "One distinct feature of democracy is that its scrutiny never ends." Explain the statement with appropriate arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. As democracy passes one test, it produces another, since people always want to make democracy better.
2. As people receive some benefits from democracy, they ask for more and develop higher expectations of the system.
3. This continuous demand can be seen as a testimony to the success of democracy, not its failure.
4. It shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to look critically at power holders, however powerful they may be.
5. This ongoing scrutiny transforms people from passive subjects into active, questioning citizens.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasise that public dissatisfaction is actually a sign of success, not weakness, of democracy.
b) Use the phrase "subject to citizen" transformation as a strong closing point.

OR

(b) "Democratic system is better than other systems." Explain the statement with appropriate arguments. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Democracy promotes equality among citizens and enhances the dignity of the individual.
2. It improves the quality of decision-making through deliberation and negotiation among many stakeholders.
3. It provides a peaceful method to resolve conflicts and allows room to correct mistakes.
4. It is an accountable and responsive form of government, since leaders must answer to the people.
5. It accommodates social diversity and is considered a more legitimate form of government than other systems.

Teacher's Note:
a) Structure the answer around distinct features: equality, accountability, conflict resolution and legitimacy.
b) Avoid simply repeating "democracy is good" without giving specific reasons.

33. (a) "Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development of a country." Justify the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. A country's economic strength is measured by the development of its manufacturing industries.
2. Manufacturing industries help modernise agriculture by providing tools, fertilisers and equipment.
3. They provide jobs directly in the secondary sector and indirectly in the tertiary sector, helping to eradicate unemployment and poverty.
4. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and brings in valuable foreign exchange.
5. Setting up industries in tribal and backward areas also helps reduce regional disparities across the country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link industries to employment, exports and regional balance for a complete justification.
b) Mention "foreign exchange earnings" as a specific value point examiners look for.

OR

(b) "Agriculture and industries complement each other." Justify the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Agriculture and industries are not separate from each other; they move hand in hand in the economy.
2. Agro-based industries in India have boosted agricultural productivity significantly.
3. Industries depend on agriculture for raw materials and, in turn, supply farmers with irrigation pumps, fertilisers, pesticides and machinery.
4. The growth and competitiveness of manufacturing has helped farmers increase production and made the production process more efficient.
5. In the age of globalisation, more competitive industries further increase the productivity of the agricultural sector as well.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give concrete examples of products industries supply to agriculture, like fertilisers and pumps.
b) Emphasise the two-way dependence between agriculture and industry for full marks.

SECTION E

34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

An Experiment in Brazil
A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

(34.1) Explain the meaning of 'participatory democracy'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Participatory democracy means direct involvement or participation of citizens themselves in the decision-making process.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the words "direct involvement of citizens" as the key phrase.
b) Distinguish it from representative democracy where elected leaders decide.

(34.2) In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government ? [1 Mark]

Answer: It defines local self-government.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Porto Alegre example is about decentralisation to the local (city) level.
b) Local self-government is the third tier of government below national and state levels.

(34.3) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the above example of Brazil. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. In India, local self-government works through Panchayati Raj in rural areas and Municipalities/Municipal Corporations in urban areas.
2. All these bodies are elected by the people, and the Gram Sabha allows people of that area to directly participate in decisions, similar to Porto Alegre's ward meetings.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name both rural (Panchayati Raj) and urban (Municipality) structures for full marks.
b) Mention Gram Sabha as the direct-participation equivalent of Brazil's ward meetings.

35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

Loans From Cooperatives
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place.
Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.

(35.1) Cooperative societies come under which source of credit ? [1 Mark]

Answer: They come under the formal source of credit.

Teacher's Note:
a) Formal sources include banks and cooperatives, regulated by the RBI.
b) Do not confuse cooperatives with informal sources like moneylenders.

(35.2) Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Deposits collected from its own members.
2. Large loans obtained from banks using these member deposits as collateral.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Deposits as collateral for bank loans" is the key mechanism described in the passage.
b) Interest earned on loans given out can also be mentioned as an additional source.

(35.3) Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the income of farmers. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Cooperative societies provide loans at low interest rates that farmers can use to increase crop production.
2. They provide loans for purchasing agricultural implements, fisheries and other expenses, which together help raise farmers' overall income.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link low-interest credit directly to higher agricultural productivity and income.
b) Mention variety of loan purposes (implements, trade, housing) as a value point.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

Print and Censorship
The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.
During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

(36.1) Explain the meaning of 'censor'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Censor means the government's control over and tracking of published books and newspapers, especially to restrict content critical of its policies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on "government control of publication" as the core meaning.
b) Give an example, like war-related censorship, to strengthen the answer.

(36.2) Why did the colonial administration keep an eye on books and newspapers ? [1 Mark]

Answer: Many books and newspapers were critical of British misrule and encouraged nationalist activities, so the government wanted to suppress print and passed laws to control the press.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention that vernacular press was strongly nationalist in tone.
b) Connect this surveillance to the government's fear of growing unity among Indians.

(36.3) Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act ? Explain any two reasons. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and crush nationalist movements.
2. The Act allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for up to two years, which Gandhiji saw as a violation of basic rights.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention "detention without trial" as the specific harsh feature of the Act.
b) Link this repression directly to Gandhiji's call for satyagraha.

SECTION F

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them :
A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.
B. The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March. [2 Marks]

[Figure: Political outline map of India with two points marked, A near central-eastern India and B near the Gujarat coast, each with an arrow and blank line for labelling.]

Answer:
A: Nagpur (session of Indian National Congress, 1920).
B: Sabarmati (starting point of Gandhiji's Dandi March).

Teacher's Note:
a) Write place names clearly on the exact marked points, not just nearby.
b) Remember Nagpur session 1920 and Sabarmati Ashram as the Dandi March starting point.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 37(a))

(a)(i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920. [1 Mark]

Answer: Nagpur (also accepted: Kolkata/Calcutta).

Teacher's Note:
a) The marking scheme accepts either Nagpur or Kolkata for this session.
b) Double-check the year given in the question before naming the session city.

(a)(ii) Name the place where Gandhiji started Dandi March. [1 Mark]

Answer: Sabarmati.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sabarmati Ashram in Gujarat was Gandhiji's starting point for the Salt March.
b) The march ended at Dandi on the coast, so do not confuse start and end points.

(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :
(i) Leading state in production of Jute
(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat
(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport [3 Marks]

[Figure: Political outline map of India (same map as in part (a)).]

Answer:
(i) West Bengal (leading jute producing state).
(ii) Kakrapara (Atomic Power Plant in Gujarat).
(iii) Bokaro or Jamshedpur (Iron and Steel Plant in Jharkhand).
(iv) Amritsar (Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport).

Teacher's Note:
a) Use a distinct, labelled symbol for each location and place it accurately on the map.
b) Either Bokaro or Jamshedpur is accepted for the Jharkhand steel plant.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 37(b))

(b) Attempt any three questions. [3 Marks]
(i) Name the leading state in production of Jute.
(ii) Name the place where an Atomic Power Plant is located in Gujarat.
(iii) Name the place where an Iron and Steel Plant is located in Jharkhand.
(iv) Name the place where Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport is located.

Answer:
1. West Bengal is the leading state in jute production.
2. Kakrapara is the location of the Atomic Power Plant in Gujarat.
3. Bokaro/Jamshedpur is the location of the Iron and Steel Plant in Jharkhand.
4. Amritsar is the location of Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport.

Teacher's Note:
a) Answer any three of the four sub-parts as instructed.
b) Learn these location facts as fixed pairs of feature and place for quick recall.

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