CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 32-1-2

SECTION A

1. Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey ? [1 Mark]
(A) Paddy
(B) Maize
(C) Wheat
(D) Jowar

Answer: (C) Wheat

Teacher's Note:
a) Wheat is a rabi crop, sown in winter and visible in fields in January.
b) Paddy, maize and jowar are kharif crops and are not seen standing in January.

2. Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the Krishna - Godavari issue : [1 Mark]
(A) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

Answer: (B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

Teacher's Note:
a) These are the three riparian states of the Krishna and Godavari basins.
b) Remember Krishna and Godavari flow through the Deccan plateau states.

3. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Column I (Dam)
a. Hirakud
b. Gandhi Sagar
c. Nagarjuna Sagar
d. Mettur
Column II (River)
i. Chambal
ii. Krishna
iii. Kaveri
iv. Mahanadi
Options :
(A) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Answer: (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Hirakud is on Mahanadi, Gandhi Sagar on Chambal, Nagarjuna Sagar on Krishna and Mettur on Kaveri.
b) Learn dam-river pairs with the state they are located in for quick recall.

4. 'Sariska Tiger Reserve' is located in which one of the following states ? [1 Mark]
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (B) Rajasthan

Teacher's Note:
a) Sariska is in Alwar district of Rajasthan.
b) Do not confuse it with Ranthambore, also in Rajasthan.

5. Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
I. Reserved
II. Protected
III. Unclassed
Options :
(A) III, II, I
(B) I, II, III
(C) II, III, I
(D) III, I, II

Answer: (B) I, II, III

Teacher's Note:
a) Reserved forests cover the largest area, followed by protected and then unclassed forests.
b) Reserved forests are considered most valuable for conservation of forest and wildlife resources.

6. Assume you are doing research on 15^th century print culture. Which of the following would be the most significant advantage for your research ? [1 Mark]
(A) Easier access to rare manuscripts
(B) Reduced need for libraries
(C) Increase in the ability to copy text by hand
(D) Increased speed and accuracy of print

Answer: (D) Increased speed and accuracy of print

Teacher's Note:
a) The printing press replaced slow and error-prone hand copying of texts.
b) This made mass production of identical texts possible for the first time.

7. The author of 'Book of Marvels' is : [1 Mark]
(A) Marco Polo
(B) Columbus
(C) Vasco da Gama
(D) Alfred Crosby

Answer: (A) Marco Polo

Teacher's Note:
a) Marco Polo, an explorer, wrote an account of his travels which became known as the 'Book of Marvels'.
b) The marking scheme notes that due to a lack of a fully correct option, marks were awarded to all candidates who attempted this question.

8. Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19^th century and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
I. Poverty and hunger
II. Slaves for sale
III. Wide spread of diseases
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Poverty, disease and religious persecution pushed people to migrate from Europe.
b) Slave sale (option II) was not a reason for European migration, it relates to forced African migration.

9. Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in 1866 ? [1 Mark]
(A) Sardinia-Piedmont
(B) Venetia
(C) Sicily
(D) Papal State

Answer: (B) Venetia

Teacher's Note:
a) Venetia was added to unified Italy in 1866 with the help of Prussia.
b) Rome (Papal State) joined in 1870, remember the sequence of unification.

10. Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Statement I : Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process.
Statement II : This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
Options :
(A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(B) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

Answer: (A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Teacher's Note:
a) Technology improvement in transport, communication and IT has speeded up globalisation.
b) Faster and cheaper delivery of goods is a direct result of technological improvement.

11. Which of the following groups in urban India depend on informal sources to meet their credit needs ? [1 Mark]
(A) Poor households
(B) Households with few assets
(C) Both poor households and households with few assets
(D) Both well-off households and households with few assets

Answer: (C) Both poor households and households with few assets

Teacher's Note:
a) Poor and asset-less households cannot offer collateral, so they rely on informal credit.
b) Formal sources prefer well-off households who can pledge assets as collateral.

12. Why does it become difficult for farmers in rural areas to take loans from government banks ? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option : [1 Mark]
I. Lack of collateral
II. Complicated procedure
III. Higher cost of borrowing
IV. Lack of awareness
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lack of collateral, complicated paperwork and low awareness keep small farmers away from banks.
b) Higher cost of borrowing (option III) is more relevant to informal, not formal, sources.

13. Look at the given picture and answer the question that follow : [1 Mark]

[Figure: A group of women workers seated around large tables in a garment/tailoring workshop, sorting, folding and stitching black coloured cloth pieces.]

The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy ?
(A) Primary
(B) Quaternary
(C) Secondary
(D) Tertiary

Answer: (D) Tertiary

Teacher's Note:
a) The marking scheme records the answer as Tertiary for this picture-based question.
b) Stitching and finishing garments in a factory is generally treated as a secondary sector activity, so read the picture and options carefully in the exam.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 13)

Which of the following comes in the secondary sector of the economy ? [1 Mark]
(A) Bee-keeper
(B) Moneylender
(C) Basket weaver
(D) Fisherman

Answer: (C) Basket weaver

Teacher's Note:
a) A basket weaver converts raw material (cane/bamboo) into a finished product, which is a secondary sector activity.
b) Bee-keeping and fishing are primary sector activities, moneylending is tertiary.

14. 'X' lives in a town. He cultivates flowers along with animal husbandry. The work of 'X' will fall under which sector of the economy ? [1 Mark]
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary

Answer: (A) Primary

Teacher's Note:
a) Cultivation of flowers and animal husbandry both use natural resources directly, so they are primary activities.
b) Sector classification depends on the nature of activity, not on rural or urban location.

15. Study the following table related to 'World Human Development Index' and answer the questions given below : [1 Mark]
S. No.: 1 | 2 | 3 | 4
Country: India | Myanmar | Nepal | Pakistan
HDI Rank in the world: 130 | 148 | 149 | 150
Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the highest rank in 'Human Development Index' ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar

Answer: (B) India

Teacher's Note:
a) A lower rank number means a higher position, so rank 130 is better than rank 150.
b) India has the lowest (best) rank number among the given countries.

16. Which of the following are the main components of a political party ? Choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
I. Leaders
II. Active members
III. Followers
IV. Pressure groups
Options :
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (A) Only I, II and III are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Leaders, active members and followers/supporters form the three components of a party.
b) Pressure groups are separate organisations, not components of a political party.

17. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following : [1 Mark]
(Country) (System)
(A) Canada - Unitary
(B) Bolivia - Federal
(C) Australia - Unitary
(D) Spain - Federal

Answer: (D) Spain - Federal

Teacher's Note:
a) Spain has a quasi-federal structure to accommodate its regional diversity.
b) Canada and Australia are federal, not unitary, so options (A) and (C) are wrong.

18. Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government ? [1 Mark]
(A) Unitary
(B) Presidential
(C) Federal
(D) Parliamentary

Answer: (C) Federal

Teacher's Note:
a) Belgium adopted a federal system giving powers to regional and community governments.
b) This power sharing helped manage the Dutch-French-German community differences.

19. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Column I (Minerals)
a. Iron ore
b. Mica
c. Bauxite
d. Coal
Column II (Major Mines)
i. Gaya
ii. Singarauli
iii. Chandrapur
iv. Maikala
Options :
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

Answer: (A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Teacher's Note:
a) Iron ore is mined near Chandrapur, mica near Gaya, bauxite near Maikala and coal near Singarauli.
b) Learn mineral belts along with their state and mine names for such matching questions.

20. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option : [1 Mark]
Assertion (A) : Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Reason (R) : All living things need minerals.
Options :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Minerals are essential for growth and metabolism of all living organisms.
b) This dependence explains why minerals are indispensable to human life.

SECTION B

21. How did the process of liberalisation initiated in India in the 1990s, promote globalisation ? Explain. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Liberalisation removed government barriers and restrictions so that Indian producers could compete with producers around the world.
2. This allowed MNCs to set up factories in India and encouraged foreign trade and investment through steps like Special Economic Zones, integrating India with the world economy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the keywords "removal of barriers" and "integration with world economy".
b) Mention SEZs and foreign investment as concrete examples.

22. Explain any two measures to solve the problem of land degradation. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Afforestation and proper management of grazing lands help restore vegetation cover and reduce soil erosion.
2. Planting shelter belts and stabilising sand dunes with thorny bushes control land degradation in arid areas.

Teacher's Note:
a) Any two relevant measures such as afforestation, controlling mining or proper waste disposal are acceptable.
b) Relate the measure to the specific cause of degradation for full marks.

23. Suggest any two measures to increase the number of women in legislatures of India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ensuring a fair proportion of reserved seats for women in elected bodies increases their representation.
2. Enhancing political education, awareness and skill development among women encourages more women to contest elections.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning laws like the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, 2023 is a good current example.
b) Focus on both legal reservation and social awareness measures.

24. (a) Explain the role of anti-colonial movement in the rise of 'modern nationalism' in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The shared experience of oppression under colonial rule gave people a common bond that united different groups against the British.
2. Movements like the Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India movements brought diverse groups together and fostered a sense of collective national identity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasise "shared bond against colonialism" as the key idea.
b) Naming specific movements strengthens the answer.

OR

(b) Why did Gandhiji say 'Satyagraha is pure soul-force' ? Explain by giving two arguments. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Gandhiji believed truth is the very substance of the soul, so the force based on it is called Satyagraha, a soul-force and not a physical force.
2. A satyagrahi does not wish to harm the opponent or seek their destruction; there is no ill-will in the use of Satyagraha, which shows it works through moral and spiritual strength.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast soul-force with physical force to show understanding.
b) Mention "non-violence" and "no ill-will" as key terms from the text.

SECTION C

25. "Workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj." Support the statement in context of plantation workers of Assam. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. For Assam's plantation workers, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the enclosed space of the tea gardens where they were confined.
2. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, they were not permitted to leave the plantations without permission, which was rarely granted.
3. When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands defied authorities, left the plantations believing that 'Gandhi Raj' was coming and they would get land in their own villages, but many were caught and beaten by the police on the way.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link the answer clearly to plantation workers, not to peasants in general.
b) Mention the Inland Emigration Act as a key fact examiners look for.

26. (a) Explain the importance of political parties in democracy. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Political parties contest elections and put forward different policies and programmes for voters to choose from.
2. They form and run the government, make laws, and the party that loses plays the role of a watchful opposition.
3. Parties shape public opinion and provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover at least three distinct functions for full marks.
b) Use the phrase "most visible face of democracy" to show conceptual clarity.

OR

(b) Why did India adopt the multiparty system ? Explain with suitable arguments. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. A party system is not something a country can choose freely; it develops according to the nature and social conditions of the country.
2. India's huge social diversity of religion, caste, language and region could not be represented by just two or three parties.
3. A multiparty system allows a variety of interests and opinions to enjoy political representation in such a large and diverse country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect "social and geographical diversity" directly to the need for many parties.
b) Avoid confusing multiparty system with coalition government, they are different concepts.

27. "Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy." Support the statement by giving suitable arguments. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Power sharing helps reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups by giving them a stake in governance.
2. It is a good way of ensuring the stability of the political order and is beneficial for the unity of the nation.
3. Since people are the ultimate source of political authority in a democracy, sharing power ensures diverse groups and views are respected.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the prudential and moral reasons for power sharing as separate points.
b) Give any suitable example like Belgium to strengthen the argument if time permits.

28. Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows :

Story of Rinjha
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family's search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.

What type of farming is Rinjha's family doing ? Describe any two of its characteristics. [1+2=3 Marks]

Answer:
Type of farming: Primitive subsistence farming (slash and burn cultivation).
1. It is practised on small patches of land using primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks.
2. It depends heavily on monsoon rains, natural fertility of the soil and family or community labour, and the land is abandoned once fertility declines.

Teacher's Note:
a) Naming the correct type of farming carries the first mark, do not skip it.
b) "Slash and burn" and "shifting cultivation" are alternative acceptable names for this practice.

29. Explain the difference between organised and unorganised sector of economy with example. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The organised sector covers enterprises where employment terms are regular and registered with the government, for example factories with fixed working hours, while the unorganised sector has small, scattered units largely outside government control, for example street vendors.
2. Organised sector workers enjoy job security, fixed working hours with overtime pay, whereas unorganised sector workers have insecure, low-paid jobs with no fixed hours.
3. Organised sector employees get benefits like paid leave, provident fund and gratuity, which are absent in the unorganised sector.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always support each point of difference with a suitable example.
b) Job security and social security benefits are the two most important distinguishing features.

SECTION D

30. (a) Analyse the role of Giuseppe Mazzini in the unification of Italy. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary born in Genoa in 1807 who became a member of the secret society of the Carbonari.
2. As a young man of twenty four, he was exiled in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria.
3. He founded two more underground societies, 'Young Italy' in Marseilles and 'Young Europe' in Berne.
4. He believed nations were the natural units of mankind ordained by God, so Italy could not remain a patchwork of small states and had to be unified into a single republic.
5. He sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian republic, making him one of the key architects of Italian unification.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention 'Young Italy' and 'Young Europe' by name for full credit.
b) Highlight his belief in nations as "natural units of mankind" as his core idea.

OR

(b) "The 1830s were considered the beginning of great difficulties in Europe." Analyse the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The first half of the nineteenth century saw an enormous increase in population all over Europe.
2. In most countries there were more job seekers than available employment.
3. Rural populations migrated to cities and lived in overcrowded slums.
4. Small urban producers faced stiff competition from cheap machine-made imports, especially from England.
5. Peasants in regions where aristocracy still held power struggled under feudal dues, and rising food prices or bad harvests caused widespread pauperism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link population growth, unemployment and urban slums as connected causes.
b) Mention competition from English machine-made goods as a specific value point.

31. (a) Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce air pollution. [2+3=5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Industries release undesirable gases like sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide, and particulate matter such as dust, smoke and mist from chemical, paper factories and brick kilns using fossil fuels.
2. Toxic gas leaks from factories can be hazardous with long-term harmful effects.
3. Fitting smoke stacks and electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters and scrubbers to factories can reduce particulate emissions.
4. Using oil or gas instead of coal in factories reduces smoke emission.
5. Authorities should impose heavy fines on industries that violate emission laws.

Teacher's Note:
a) Divide the answer clearly into causes (2 marks) and measures (3 marks) as per the question.
b) Naming specific pollution control devices like precipitators earns extra credit.

OR

(b) Explain the role of industries in increasing water pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce water pollution. [2+3=5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Industries discharge organic and inorganic waste into rivers; paper, chemical, textile, tanneries and electroplating industries are major culprits.
2. They release dyes, detergents, acids, heavy metals like lead and mercury, pesticides and synthetic chemicals into water bodies.
3. Minimising water use through reuse and recycling in successive stages reduces pollution.
4. Harvesting rainwater helps meet water requirements sustainably.
5. Treating effluents in three phases, primary (mechanical), secondary (biological) and tertiary (chemical/physical) treatment, before releasing water into rivers reduces pollution.

Teacher's Note:
a) List the three-stage treatment of effluents as it is a favourite value point in the marking scheme.
b) Give specific industry names as examples of polluters.

32. (a) "Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is becoming a serious threat in many parts of the country." Evaluate the statement in the context of sustainability of development. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Sustainability means development should occur without damaging the environment and without compromising the needs of future generations.
2. Groundwater is a renewable resource replenished by nature, but population growth and agricultural practices are causing its overuse in many regions.
3. About 300 districts have reported a groundwater level decline of over 4 metres in the past 20 years.
4. Nearly one third of the country is already overusing groundwater reserves, and this could rise to 60 percent in 25 years if the present pattern continues.
5. States like Punjab and western Uttar Pradesh, agriculturally prosperous regions, show particularly high overuse, calling for judicious water use and control of pollution.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the statistics (300 districts, one third, 60 percent) as specific value points.
b) Link the answer back to the concept of sustainability at the start and end.

OR

(b) "The development goals of different categories of people may differ." Evaluate the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Each person seeks different things in life that are important to them and fulfil their own aspirations.
2. At times, the goals of two persons or groups may conflict with each other.
3. For example, a girl may want the same freedom and opportunities as her brother, along with him sharing household work.
4. What is development for one person or group may not be development for another.
5. For example, an industrialist may want more dams for electricity, while displaced people may resent and resist the same project.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always support the answer with at least one concrete example, as shown in the marking scheme.
b) Bring out the idea of "conflicting goals" clearly for full marks.

33. (a) Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Democracy promotes equality among citizens and enhances the dignity of the individual.
2. It improves the quality of decision making through wider consultation.
3. It provides a method to resolve conflicts peacefully and allows room to correct mistakes.
4. It accommodates social diversity among different groups.
5. It produces an accountable and responsive government based on deliberation and negotiation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Number each basis clearly since the question asks for exactly five.
b) "Accountable government" and "accommodating diversity" are the most frequently tested points.

OR

(b) Explain any five values of democracy. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Democracy provides equal rights and opportunities to all citizens.
2. It guarantees freedom to express oneself and choose leaders.
3. It is based on respect, dignity and freedom of the individual.
4. Citizens have the right and means to examine the process of decision making.
5. It accommodates social diversity and is based on deliberation and negotiation rather than force.

Teacher's Note:
a) Do not repeat the same point twice, ensure all five are distinct values.
b) Link each value to citizens' rights for a stronger answer.

SECTION E

34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

Loans From Cooperatives
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place.
Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.

(34.1) Cooperative societies come under which source of credit ? [1 Mark]

Answer: Cooperative societies come under the formal sources of credit.

Teacher's Note:
a) Formal sources include banks and cooperatives, regulated by the RBI.
b) Do not confuse cooperatives with moneylenders, who are informal sources.

(34.2) Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies. [½+½=1 Mark]

Answer: 1. Deposits collected from the members of the cooperative. 2. Large loans obtained from banks using these member deposits as collateral.

Teacher's Note:
a) Interest earned on loans given out is also an acceptable additional source.
b) Remember member deposits act as collateral for bank loans to the cooperative.

(34.3) Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the income of farmers. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Cooperative societies provide loans at low interest rates which can be used to increase crop production and agricultural trade.
2. They provide loans for a variety of expenses like agricultural implements, fisheries and house construction, which help raise farmers' income, while also encouraging small savings through deposits.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link low-interest credit directly to increased production and income.
b) Mention the variety of loan purposes listed in the passage for full marks.

35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

Print and Censorship
The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.
During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

(35.1) Explain the meaning of 'censor'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Censor means controlling and tracking the publication of books and newspapers, especially those critical of government policies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link censorship directly to government control over the press.
b) Remember this was used to suppress nationalist writing during colonial rule.

(35.2) Why did the colonial administration keep an eye on books and newspapers ? [1 Mark]

Answer: Many books and newspapers, especially the vernacular press, were critical of British misrule and encouraged nationalist activities, so the government wanted to suppress print and control such writing.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention "vernacular press" as it is a key term in the marking scheme.
b) Link this to the numerous laws the government passed to control the press.

(35.3) Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act ? Explain any two reasons. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities of Indians.
2. It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for up to two years, which Gandhiji considered unjust.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention "detention without trial" as the key objectionable feature of the Act.
b) Connect this answer to the rise of civil disobedience against colonial repression.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow :

An Experiment in Brazil
A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

(36.1) Explain the meaning of 'participatory democracy'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Participatory democracy means the direct involvement or participation of citizens in the process of making decisions that affect them.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the word "direct involvement" as the key idea in the definition.
b) Contrast it briefly with representative democracy if time allows.

(36.2) In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government ? [1 Mark]

Answer: Local Self Government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Decentralisation of power to local bodies is the key concept tested here.
b) This relates to the third tier of government below the centre and the states.

(36.3) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the above example of Brazil. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. India has a Local Self Government system consisting of Panchayati Raj in rural areas and Municipality/Municipal Corporation in urban areas.
2. All bodies of local self government are elected directly by the people, and the Gram Sabha allows people of the area to participate directly in decisions, similar to the ward meetings in Porto Alegre.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name both Panchayati Raj and Municipal bodies for full marks.
b) Mention the Gram Sabha as the direct participation body comparable to Brazil's example.

SECTION F

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them : [2x1=2 Marks]
A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.
B. The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.

[Figure: Outline political map of India with two points marked A (in central-eastern India) and B (on the western coast near Gujarat), each with a line for writing the answer.]

Answer: A - Nagpur (session of Indian National Congress, 1920). B - Sabarmati (starting point of the Dandi March).

Teacher's Note:
a) Write the name exactly on the line drawn near the marked point, not elsewhere on the map.
b) Nagpur session (1920) approved the Non-Cooperation Movement; Sabarmati Ashram was the starting point of the Dandi March in 1930.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 37(a))

(a)(i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920. [1 Mark]

Answer: Nagpur (also accepted: Kolkata/Calcutta).

Teacher's Note:
a) Nagpur session, 1920, is the primary accepted answer as per the marking scheme.
b) Kolkata/Calcutta is also accepted by the marking scheme as an alternative.

(a)(ii) Name the place where Gandhiji started Dandi March. [1 Mark]

Answer: Sabarmati.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Dandi March began from Sabarmati Ashram in March 1930.
b) It ended at Dandi on the coast of Gujarat, where Gandhiji broke the salt law.

(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols : [3x1=3 Marks]
(i) Leading state in production of Jute
(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat
(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

Answer:
1. Leading state in production of Jute - West Bengal.
2. Atomic Power Plant in Gujarat - Kakrapara.
3. Iron and Steel Plant in Jharkhand - Bokaro / Jamshedpur.
4. Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport - Amritsar.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mark only three of the four options as instructed, marking extra points does not earn extra marks.
b) Use a clear, labelled symbol/dot for each location and write the name beside it.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 37(b))

(b) Attempt any three questions. [3x1=3 Marks]
(i) Name the leading state in production of Jute.
(ii) Name the place where an Atomic Power Plant is located in Gujarat.
(iii) Name the place where an Iron and Steel Plant is located in Jharkhand.
(iv) Name the place where Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport is located.

Answer:
(i) West Bengal.
(ii) Kakrapara.
(iii) Bokaro / Jamshedpur.
(iv) Amritsar.

Teacher's Note:
a) Attempt only three of the four parts as required by the instructions.
b) These are standard locations frequently asked in map-based questions, so memorise them well.

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