CBSE Class 10 Social Science Question Paper 2025 Solved Code 32-1-1

SECTION A

1. Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in 1866? [1 Mark]
(A) Sardinia-Piedmont
(B) Venetia
(C) Sicily
(D) Papal State

Answer: (B) Venetia

Teacher's Note:
a) Venetia joined unified Italy in 1866 after the war with Austria.
b) Remember the sequence: Sardinia-Piedmont as the base state, Sicily and Naples in 1860, Venetia in 1866, and Papal States in 1870.

2. Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
I. Poverty and hunger
II. Slaves for sale
III. Wide spread of diseases
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution
Options:
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (C) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Migration was caused by poverty, disease and religious persecution, not slave trade, which was forced migration of Africans.
b) Eliminate options containing "slaves for sale" quickly to reach the answer.

3. The author of 'Book of Marvels' is: [1 Mark]
(A) Marco Polo
(B) Columbus
(C) Vasco da Gama
(D) Alfred Crosby

Answer: (A) Marco Polo (the marking scheme awarded 1 mark to all candidates who attempted this question due to a lack of a fully correct option)

Teacher's Note:
a) Marco Polo's travel account is popularly linked with introducing pasta to Italy.
b) Always read all four options carefully before finalising your choice.

4. Assume you are doing research on 15th century print culture. Which of the following would be the most significant advantage for your research? [1 Mark]
(A) Easier access to rare manuscripts
(B) Reduced need for libraries
(C) Increase in the ability to copy text by hand
(D) Increased speed and accuracy of print

Answer: (D) Increased speed and accuracy of print

Teacher's Note:
a) The printing press replaced hand-copying, making books faster and more accurate to produce.
b) Do not confuse manuscript culture features with the actual benefits of print culture.

5. Arrange the following categories of forests in India from the largest to the smallest in terms of area and choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
I. Reserved
II. Protected
III. Unclassed
Options:
(A) III, II, I
(B) I, II, III
(C) II, III, I
(D) III, I, II

Answer: (B) I, II, III

Teacher's Note:
a) Reserved forests cover the largest area, followed by Protected and then Unclassed forests.
b) Remember the order Reserved > Protected > Unclassed for quick recall.

6. 'Sariska Tiger Reserve' is located in which one of the following states? [1 Mark]
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

Answer: (B) Rajasthan

Teacher's Note:
a) Sariska is located in the Alwar district of Rajasthan.
b) Do not confuse it with Ranthambore, which is also in Rajasthan.

7. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
Column I (Dam)
a. Hirakud
b. Gandhi Sagar
c. Nagarjuna Sagar
d. Mettur
Column II (River)
i. Chambal
ii. Krishna
iii. Kaveri
iv. Mahanadi
Options:
(A) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(B) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(D) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Answer: (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Hirakud is on the Mahanadi, Gandhi Sagar on the Chambal, Nagarjuna Sagar on the Krishna, and Mettur on the Kaveri.
b) Prepare a dam-river chart for quick revision of such matching questions.

8. Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the Krishna-Godavari issue: [1 Mark]
(A) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat, Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(D) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

Answer: (B) Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

Teacher's Note:
a) These three states share disputes over the Krishna and Godavari river waters.
b) Do not confuse this with the Cauvery water dispute states.

9. Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey? [1 Mark]
(A) Paddy
(B) Maize
(C) Wheat
(D) Jowar

Answer: (C) Wheat

Teacher's Note:
a) Wheat is a rabi crop sown in winter and stands ready in the fields during January.
b) Paddy, maize and jowar are kharif crops, harvested before winter.

10. Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
Assertion (A): Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Reason (R): All living things need minerals.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Minerals are essential for growth in plants and animals, which justifies the assertion.
b) Check whether the reason logically explains the assertion, not just whether both statements are individually true.

11. Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
Column I (Minerals)
a. Iron ore
b. Mica
c. Bauxite
d. Coal
Column II (Major Mines)
i. Gaya
ii. Singarauli
iii. Chandrapur
iv. Maikala
Options:
(A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(B) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(C) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(D) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

Answer: (A) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii

Teacher's Note:
a) Iron ore is mined at Chandrapur, mica at Gaya, bauxite at Maikala and coal at Singarauli.
b) Prepare a mineral-mine location chart for quick revision.

12. Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government? [1 Mark]
(A) Unitary
(B) Presidential
(C) Federal
(D) Parliamentary

Answer: (C) Federal

Teacher's Note:
a) Belgium adopted a federal system with power shared between the centre, regions and communities.
b) Contrast this with Sri Lanka's unitary system, which failed to accommodate diversity.

13. Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: [1 Mark]
(A) Canada - Unitary
(B) Bolivia - Federal
(C) Australia - Unitary
(D) Spain - Federal

Answer: (D) Spain - Federal

Teacher's Note:
a) Spain follows a federal type of arrangement, though not a strict federation.
b) Canada and Australia are federal, not unitary, so eliminate those options first.

14. Which of the following are the main components of a political party? Choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
I. Leaders
II. Active members
III. Followers
IV. Pressure groups
Options:
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, III and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Answer: (A) Only I, II and III are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Leaders, active members and followers form a political party, while pressure groups are separate organisations.
b) Do not confuse pressure groups with the internal components of a party.

15. Study the following table related to 'World Human Development Index' and answer the questions given below: [1 Mark]
S. No.: 1 | 2 | 3 | 4
Country: India | Myanmar | Nepal | Pakistan
HDI Rank in the world: 130 | 148 | 149 | 150
Amongst the given countries, which one of the following countries has the highest rank in 'Human Development Index'?
(A) Pakistan
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Myanmar

Answer: (B) India

Teacher's Note:
a) A lower rank number means a higher position in the HDI ranking.
b) India's rank of 130 is the closest to the top among the given countries.

16. 'X' lives in a town. He cultivates flowers along with animal husbandry. The work of 'X' will fall under which sector of the economy? [1 Mark]
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary

Answer: (A) Primary

Teacher's Note:
a) Activities like cultivation and animal husbandry that use natural resources directly belong to the primary sector.
b) Do not be misled by the fact that 'X' lives in a town.

17. Look at the given picture and answer the question that follow: [1 Mark]

[Figure: Women workers seated at long tables in a workshop, cutting and stitching dark coloured cloth garments.]

The work being done in the picture falls under which sector of the economy?
(A) Primary
(B) Quaternary
(C) Secondary
(D) Tertiary

Answer: (D) Tertiary

Teacher's Note:
a) The marking scheme gives tertiary as the answer for this activity.
b) Note that garment manufacturing is usually treated as secondary sector work, so read the exact task shown carefully in such questions.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 17)

The work of which of the following comes in the secondary sector of the economy? [1 Mark]
(A) Bee-keeper
(B) Moneylender
(C) Basket weaver
(D) Fisherman

Answer: (C) Basket weaver

Teacher's Note:
a) Basket weaving involves making a good from raw material, which is a secondary sector activity.
b) Bee-keeping and fishing are primary sector; moneylending is a tertiary sector activity.

18. Why does it become difficult for farmers in rural areas to take loans from government banks? Read the following reasons and choose the most appropriate option: [1 Mark]
I. Lack of collateral
II. Complicated procedure
III. Higher cost of borrowing
IV. Lack of awareness
Options:
(A) Only I, II and III are correct.
(B) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(D) Only I, III and IV are correct.

Answer: (C) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lack of collateral, complicated procedures and lack of awareness make formal borrowing difficult for rural farmers.
b) Higher cost of borrowing is more typical of informal sources, not formal bank loans.

19. Which of the following groups in urban India depend on informal sources to meet their credit needs? [1 Mark]
(A) Poor households
(B) Households with few assets
(C) Both poor households and households with few assets
(D) Both well-off households and households with few assets

Answer: (C) Both poor households and households with few assets

Teacher's Note:
a) Poor households and those with few assets often lack collateral, so they rely on informal credit.
b) Well-off households usually access formal sources of credit without difficulty.

20. Two statements I and II are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
Statement I: Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process.
Statement II: This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
(A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.
(B) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
(C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(D) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

Answer: (A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Teacher's Note:
a) Technology improvements such as container transport and IT explain how globalisation was stimulated.
b) Always check the logical link between the two statements before choosing the option.

SECTION B

21. (a) Explain the role of anti-colonial movement in the rise of 'modern nationalism' in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. People discovered their unity while struggling together against colonial rule, and the shared experience of oppression created a bond that tied many different groups together.
2. Movements like the Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience and Quit India Movements united diverse classes and regions under the common goal of ending colonial rule, giving rise to modern nationalism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention that experiences of colonialism differed across groups yet created a shared sense of oppression.
b) Name at least one movement as an example to strengthen the answer.

OR

(b) Why did Gandhiji say 'Satyagraha is pure soul-force'? Explain by giving two arguments. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Satyagraha draws its strength from truth and the soul rather than physical force, hence it is called pure soul-force.
2. A satyagrahi does not wish to harm the opponent or seek their destruction; there is no ill-will in the use of satyagraha, unlike violent methods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight truth and non-violence as the twin pillars of Satyagraha.
b) Avoid describing Satyagraha as a form of physical resistance.

22. Explain any two problems of the 'global ecology' arising due to indiscriminate use of resources. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Indiscriminate use of resources has caused global warming due to rising levels of greenhouse gases.
2. It has also led to depletion of the ozone layer, allowing more harmful ultraviolet radiation to reach the earth.

Teacher's Note:
a) Pollution and land degradation are other valid points; use any two clearly.
b) Link the cause, overuse of resources, with the specific ecological problem in each point.

23. Suggest any two measures to remove gender inequality. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Increasing the literacy rate and educational opportunities for girls and women.
2. Increasing the political representation of women and providing legal protection for women in the employment sector.

Teacher's Note:
a) Suggest actual measures rather than just describing the problem.
b) Education and political participation are the value points most commonly expected.

24. How did the process of liberalisation initiated in India in the 1990s, promote globalisation? Explain. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Liberalisation removed government restrictions on trade and investment, allowing Indian producers to compete with global producers and letting multinational companies set up factories in India.
2. Steps like setting up Special Economic Zones and easing import-export rules increased India's foreign trade and integrated the Indian economy with the world economy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link liberalisation directly to increased foreign trade and investment.
b) Mention MNCs and SEZs as concrete examples.

SECTION C

25. "Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of 'Swaraj' in yet another way." Explain the statement in the context of Non-Cooperation Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, a militant guerrilla movement led by Alluri Sitaram Raju spread in the early 1920s, a form of struggle the Congress could not approve of.
2. The colonial government had closed large forest areas, stopping hill people from grazing cattle or collecting fuelwood and fruits, and forced them into begar for road building, which angered them and made them feel their traditional rights were being denied.
3. Raju was inspired by the Non-Cooperation Movement and persuaded people to wear khadi, but he also claimed India could be freed only through force, and the Gudem rebels attacked police stations and British officials before he was captured and executed in 1924.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name Alluri Sitaram Raju and the Gudem Hills for full value points.
b) Highlight that tribal swaraj combined non-cooperation ideas with armed struggle, unlike the Congress's non-violent approach.

26. Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows:

Story of Rinjha
Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diphu in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family's search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.

What type of farming is Rinjha's family doing? Describe any two of its characteristics. [1+2=3 Marks]

Answer:
Type of farming: Primitive subsistence farming.
1. This type of farming is practised on small patches of land using primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks.
2. It depends on family or community labour and relies on monsoon rains and the natural fertility of the soil rather than irrigation or fertilizers.

Teacher's Note:
a) This is also known as shifting cultivation or slash-and-burn agriculture.
b) Mention declining soil fertility as the reason families move to new patches of land each season.

27. "That democratic system of government is considered good in which maximum number of citizens are made stakeholders in political power." Explain the statement with suitable arguments. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. In a democracy, people are the source of all political power and rule themselves through institutions of self-government, ensuring participation and representation.
2. Democracy encourages public debate and allows people's opinions to be used in policy-making, making the government more accountable and transparent.
3. Democratic governments are elected by the people, which gives them legitimacy, helps reduce conflicts between social groups and ensures political stability.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on the phrase "stakeholders in political power" while explaining participation.
b) Mention accountability and legitimacy as key value points.

28. (a) Explain the importance of political parties in democracy. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Political parties contest elections and offer different policies and programmes for voters to choose from.
2. They play a decisive role in making laws, forming and running the government, while losing parties act as opposition by criticising wrong policies.
3. Parties shape public opinion and provide people with access to government machinery and welfare schemes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention at least three distinct functions for full marks.
b) Link parties to representation of society's fundamental political divisions.

OR

(b) Why did India adopt the multiparty system? Explain with suitable arguments. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. A country's party system is not something it can simply choose; it develops according to its social and historical circumstances.
2. India's vast social and geographical diversity could not be adequately represented or absorbed by only two or three parties.
3. The multiparty system allows a variety of interests and opinions from different regions and communities to gain political representation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize social diversity as the main reason.
b) Give an example of a regional or interest-based party if possible.

29. Explain the difference between public and private sector of Indian economy with example. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. In the public sector, the government owns most assets and provides services, for example Railways and Post Office, while in the private sector ownership and service delivery lie with private individuals or companies, for example TISCO and Reliance Industries.
2. The public sector's motive is not just profit, while private sector activities are guided mainly by the profit motive.
3. The government raises funds through taxes to run public sector enterprises, while the private sector arranges its own funds and often charges higher rates for its services than the public sector.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always give one example for each sector to earn full marks.
b) Highlight the profit motive as the key point of difference.

SECTION D

30. (a) Analyse the significance of the 'Napoleonic Code' in making the administrative system rational and efficient. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Napoleonic Code of 1804 abolished all privileges based on birth and established equality before the law for all citizens.
2. It secured the right to property and simplified administrative divisions across the regions under French control.
3. It abolished the feudal system, freeing peasants from serfdom and manorial dues, and removed guild restrictions in towns.
4. Transport and communication systems were improved, giving peasants, artisans, workers and businessmen a new sense of freedom.
5. Businessmen and small producers realised that uniform laws, standard weights and measures, and a common currency made the movement of goods and capital between regions much easier.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention "equality before law" and "abolition of feudal privileges" as key phrases.
b) Link the code to both legal and economic modernisation.

OR

(b) How was liberalism allied to national unity in Europe in the early decades of the 19th century? Analyse. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. For the new middle classes of 19th century Europe, liberalism meant freedom for the individual and equality before the law.
2. Politically, it stood for government by consent, ending autocracy and clerical privileges through a constitution and representative parliament.
3. In the economic sphere, liberalism demanded free markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.
4. The formation of the Zollverein customs union in 1834 abolished tariff barriers and reduced the number of currencies, promoting economic unity among German-speaking regions.
5. This economic integration created powerful sentiments favouring national political unification, linking liberal ideas directly to the movement for nationhood.

Teacher's Note:
a) Zollverein is the key example examiners look for.
b) Connect economic liberalism to the eventual political unification of nations.

31. (a) "Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development of a country." Justify the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. A country's economic strength is measured by the development of its manufacturing industries.
2. Manufacturing industries help modernise agriculture by supplying machines, fertilizers and tools that raise productivity.
3. They provide employment in the secondary and tertiary sectors, helping reduce unemployment and poverty.
4. Export of manufactured goods expands trade and brings much needed foreign exchange to the country.
5. Setting up industries in tribal and backward areas helps reduce regional disparities and brings balanced development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the phrase "backbone of economic development" while explaining.
b) Include the point on regional disparities, as it is often missed.

OR

(b) "Agriculture and industries complement each other." Justify the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Agriculture and industries are not exclusive of each other; they move hand in hand supporting each other's growth.
2. Agro-based industries in India have given a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity.
3. Industries depend on agriculture for raw materials and, in turn, supply farmers with irrigation pumps, fertilizers, pesticides and machinery.
4. The development of manufacturing industries has made agricultural production processes more efficient and competitive.
5. In the era of globalisation, efficient industries further increase the productivity and competitiveness of the agricultural sector.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give the agro-industry example for concrete support.
b) Show the two-way relationship: industries need agriculture and agriculture needs industries.

32. (a) Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Democracy promotes equality among citizens and enhances the dignity of the individual.
2. It improves the quality of decision-making by allowing wider consultation before laws and policies are made.
3. It provides peaceful methods to resolve conflicts and accommodates social diversity among different groups.
4. It allows room to correct mistakes, since governments can be changed through elections if they fail.
5. It produces a government that is accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of citizens.

Teacher's Note:
a) List five distinct bases rather than repeating similar ideas.
b) "Accountable government" and "accommodates diversity" are frequently asked value points.

OR

(b) Explain any five values of democracy. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Democracy ensures equal rights and opportunities for all citizens.
2. It guarantees freedom to express oneself and to choose one's leaders through participation in the political process.
3. It is based on respect, dignity and freedom of the individual.
4. Citizens have the right and means to examine and question the process of decision-making.
5. It accommodates social diversity and produces a government that is accountable and responsive to people's needs.

Teacher's Note:
a) Values and outcomes of democracy overlap, so use the specific keyword "values" like freedom, dignity and equality.
b) Mention the right to question decisions as a distinguishing value.

33. (a) "Recent evidence suggests that overuse of groundwater is becoming a serious threat in many parts of the country." Evaluate the statement in the context of sustainability of development. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Sustainability means development that does not damage the environment and does not compromise the needs of future generations.
2. Groundwater is a renewable resource replenished by nature, but its overuse due to population growth and irrigation needs is depleting it rapidly.
3. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of more than 4 metres in the past 20 years, and nearly one third of the country is over-using its groundwater reserves.
4. If the present pattern continues, about 60 percent of the country may be overusing groundwater within the next 25 years, especially in agriculturally prosperous regions like Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh.
5. Judicious use of water resources and control over the dumping of toxic waste on land are necessary to prevent further depletion and pollution of groundwater.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quote statistics like "300 districts" and "one third of the country" for full marks.
b) Always connect the answer back to the idea of sustainability for future generations.

OR

(b) "The development goals of different categories of people may differ." Evaluate the statement. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Each person seeks different things in life that fulfil their own aspirations and desires.
2. What is development for one group may not be development for another, since the goals of different persons can conflict.
3. For example, a girl may expect the same freedom and opportunities as her brother, along with him sharing household work.
4. Similarly, an industrialist may want more dams for electricity, while displaced people may resent the same project.
5. Therefore, development is a mixed and even contradictory experience for different sections of society, making it important to consider diverse viewpoints while planning development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the boy-girl and industrialist-displaced people examples given in the textbook.
b) End with the idea that development must balance different groups' conflicting goals.

SECTION E

34. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:

Print and Censorship
The power of the printed word is most often seen in the way governments seek to regulate and suppress print. The colonial government kept continuous track of all books and newspapers published in India and passed numerous laws to control the press.
During the First World War, under the Defence of India Rules, 22 newspapers had to furnish securities. Of these, 18 shut down rather than comply with government orders. The Sedition Committee Report under Rowlatt in 1919 further strengthened controls that led to imposition of penalties on various newspapers. At the outbreak of the Second World War, the Defence of India Act was passed, allowing censoring of reports of war-related topics. All reports about the Quit India movement came under its purview. In August 1942, about 90 newspapers were suppressed.

(34.1) Explain the meaning of 'censor'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Censor means controlling or restricting the publication of books, newspapers and other printed material, especially content that criticises government policies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link censorship directly to government control over the press.
b) Keep the definition short and precise for a 1 mark question.

(34.2) Why did the colonial administration keep an eye on books and newspapers? [1 Mark]

Answer: The colonial government watched books and newspapers because many of them criticised British misrule, encouraged nationalist activities and created a sense of unity among Indians, so it wanted to control and suppress such content through various press laws.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention "nationalist activities" as the key reason examiners look for.
b) Link this to numerous laws passed to control the press.

(34.3) Why did Gandhiji start a nationwide Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act? Explain any two reasons. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Rowlatt Act gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and crush the growing nationalist movement.
2. It allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for up to two years, which was seen as a gross violation of civil liberties.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name the Act specifically as giving "enormous powers" to the government.
b) The "detention without trial" point is a frequently expected value point.

35. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:

An Experiment in Brazil
A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

(35.1) Explain the meaning of 'participatory democracy'. [1 Mark]

Answer: Participatory democracy means the direct involvement and participation of ordinary citizens in the process of decision-making, rather than only through elected representatives.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize "direct involvement" as the keyword.
b) Contrast this with representative democracy, where citizens only elect representatives.

(35.2) In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government? [1 Mark]

Answer: The example defines local self-government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Recognise that decentralisation to city or ward level indicates local self-government.
b) Do not confuse this with federal or unitary government types.

(35.3) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the above example of Brazil. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. In India, local self-government is carried out through Panchayati Raj institutions in villages and Municipalities or Municipal Corporations in urban areas.
2. All these local bodies are elected directly by the people, and in the Gram Sabha under the Panchayati Raj system, people of the area can participate directly in decision-making, similar to Porto Alegre's ward meetings.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name Panchayati Raj and Municipality/Municipal Corporation for full marks.
b) Compare Gram Sabha participation with the Brazilian ward meetings for a strong answer.

36. Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:

Loans From Cooperatives
Besides banks, the other major source of cheap credit in rural areas are the cooperative societies (or cooperatives). Members of a cooperative pool their resources for cooperation in certain areas. There are several types of cooperatives possible such as farmers cooperatives, weavers cooperatives, industrial workers cooperatives, etc. Krishak Cooperative functions in a village not very far away from Sonpur. It has 2300 farmers as members. It accepts deposits from its members. With these deposits as collateral, the Cooperative has obtained a large loan from the bank. These funds are used to provide loans to members. Once these loans are repaid, another round of lending can take place.
Krishak Cooperative provides loans for the purchase of agricultural implements, loans for cultivation and agricultural trade, fishery loans, loans for construction of houses and for a variety of other expenses.

(36.1) Cooperative societies come under which source of credit? [1 Mark]

Answer: Cooperative societies come under the formal sources of credit.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember that banks and cooperatives together form the formal sector of credit.
b) Do not confuse cooperatives with informal lenders like moneylenders.

(36.2) Mention any two sources of capital of cooperative societies. [1 Mark]

Answer: Cooperative societies raise capital through deposits collected from their members, and by using these deposits as collateral to obtain larger loans from banks.

Teacher's Note:
a) Member deposits are the primary source examiners expect.
b) Mention bank loans obtained against these deposits as the second source.

(36.3) Explain the role of cooperative societies in increasing the income of farmers. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Cooperative societies provide loans at low interest rates that farmers can use to purchase agricultural implements and increase crop production.
2. They also provide loans for cultivation, agricultural trade, fishery and other needs, which helps raise farmers' income while encouraging small savings through interest paid on deposits.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link low-interest loans directly to increased agricultural productivity and income.
b) Mention the variety of loan purposes cooperatives serve.

SECTION F

37. (a) Two places 'A' and 'B' have been marked on the given political outline map of India (on page 27). Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them: [2 Marks]
A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.
B. The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.

[Figure: Political outline map of India with two points marked A and B. Point A, with an arrow, is located in central India near Nagpur. Point B, with an arrow, is located on the west coast near Sabarmati/Ahmedabad in Gujarat.]

Answer: A - Nagpur; B - Sabarmati

Teacher's Note:
a) The Nagpur session of 1920 adopted the Non-Cooperation programme.
b) The Dandi March began from the Sabarmati Ashram in March 1930.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 37(a))

(a) (i) Name the place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920. [1 Mark]

Answer: Nagpur (the marking scheme also accepts Kolkata/Calcutta)

Teacher's Note:
a) The Nagpur session (December 1920) approved the Non-Cooperation Movement.
b) Remember this is different from the 1885 first Congress session held in Bombay.

(ii) Name the place where Gandhiji started Dandi March. [1 Mark]

Answer: Sabarmati

Teacher's Note:
a) The march started from Sabarmati Ashram near Ahmedabad on 12 March 1930.
b) It ended at Dandi on the coast of Gujarat, where Gandhiji broke the salt law.

(b) On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols: [3 Marks]
(i) Leading state in production of Jute
(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat
(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

[Figure: Political outline map of India requiring symbols to be marked for West Bengal (jute), Kakrapara in Gujarat (atomic power plant), Bokaro/Jamshedpur in Jharkhand (iron and steel plant), and Amritsar in Punjab (international airport).]

Answer: (i) West Bengal; (ii) Kakrapara; (iii) Bokaro/Jamshedpur; (iv) Amritsar

Teacher's Note:
a) West Bengal leads in jute production due to the fertile Ganga-Brahmaputra delta.
b) Remember Kakrapara (Gujarat), Bokaro and Jamshedpur (Jharkhand), and Amritsar for the airport as fixed locations for map practice.

For Visually Impaired Candidates (in lieu of Q. 37(b))

(b) Attempt any three questions. [3 Marks]
(i) Name the leading state in production of Jute.

Answer: West Bengal

Teacher's Note:
a) West Bengal is the top producer due to its humid climate and alluvial soil.
b) Bihar and Assam are other jute-producing states.

(ii) Name the place where an Atomic Power Plant is located in Gujarat.

Answer: Kakrapara

Teacher's Note:
a) Kakrapara is located in Surat district of Gujarat.
b) Other atomic power plants include Tarapur and Kalpakkam.

(iii) Name the place where an Iron and Steel Plant is located in Jharkhand.

Answer: Bokaro (the marking scheme also accepts Jamshedpur)

Teacher's Note:
a) Bokaro is a public sector steel plant, while Jamshedpur (TISCO) is in the private sector.
b) Both are located in Jharkhand near iron ore and coal deposits.

(iv) Name the place where Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport is located.

Answer: Amritsar

Teacher's Note:
a) This airport is located in Amritsar, Punjab.
b) Remember it by its connection to the Golden Temple city.

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