ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Paper 2023 with Solutions

PART I

Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1
Choose the correct option: [16 Marks]

(i) The interval between two sessions of the Parliament should not be more than __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Two months
(B) Three months
(C) Four months
(D) Six months

Answer: (D) Six months

Under Article 85 of the Indian Constitution, six months shall not intervene between two consecutive sessions of Parliament.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember that Parliament must meet at least twice a year according to this constitutional provision.
b) Students often confuse this with the minimum number of sessions held, which is normally three.

(ii) The maximum composition of the Lok Sabha is: [1 Mark]
(A) 530
(B) 540
(C) 550
(D) 556

Answer: (C) 550

The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 550 members (530 from States and 20 from Union Territories, following the removal of Anglo-Indian reserved seats).

Teacher's Note:
a) Know the exact breakdown of the maximum strength: 530 elected representatives from the states and up to 20 from Union Territories.
b) Do not confuse maximum strength with current strength.

(iii) Lok Sabha member term       5 years
Rajya Sabha member term       ? [1 Mark]
(A) 1 year
(B) 2 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 6 years

Answer: (D) 6 years

Rajya Sabha is a permanent body where each member has a term of six years, with one-third of its members retiring every two years.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always distinguish between the term of the House (Rajya Sabha is permanent and never dissolves) and the term of its individual members (6 years).
b) Students often mistakenly write that the Rajya Sabha has a 5-year term like the Lok Sabha.

(iv) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President

Answer: (A) Lok Sabha

Article 75(3) of the Constitution explicitly states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha).

Teacher's Note:
a) Collective responsibility means that if a no-confidence motion is passed in the Lok Sabha, the entire ministry must resign.
b) Note that ministers are individually responsible to the President, but collectively to the Lok Sabha.

(v) A house has 350 members on a given day 25 members are present. For which of the following reasons does the Speaker adjourn the session for the day? [1 Mark]
(A) Indiscipline in the House
(B) Lack of quorum
(C) Business of the day is over
(D) There are no questions to admit

Answer: (B) Lack of quorum

The quorum to constitute a meeting of the Lok Sabha is one-tenth of the total members of the House (i.e., 55 members for a 550-member house). Since only 25 members are present, there is a lack of quorum.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quorum is the minimum number of members required to transact business in Parliament.
b) Students must remember that the quorum is one-tenth of the total membership of the House.

(vi) When a case comes from a Subordinate Court, the High Court deals with it under __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Revisory Jurisdiction
(B) Advisory Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Appellate Jurisdiction

Answer: (D) Appellate Jurisdiction

Appellate jurisdiction allows the High Court to hear appeals against the judgements and orders of subordinate courts in civil and criminal cases.

Teacher's Note:
a) Appellate jurisdiction means the power to review and alter the verdicts of lower courts.
b) Do not confuse appellate jurisdiction with revisory jurisdiction, which involves calling for records of subordinate courts to check legality.

(vii) Which of these was NOT an aim of the Indian National Congress? [1 Mark]
(A) To train and organise public opinion in the country.
(B) To promote friendly relations between nationalists political workers.
(C) To make the world aware of the true nature of the British.
(D) To formulate popular demands and present them before the government

Answer: (C) To make the world aware of the true nature of the British.

Early Nationalists primarily focused on presenting demands to the British government through constitutional means rather than making the entire world aware of British misrule.

Teacher's Note:
a) Review the foundational aims of the INC established in 1885 during its first session in Bombay.
b) Early leaders had immense faith in British justice and believed in loyalty to the Crown.

(viii) __________ announced that the successors of Bahadur Shah could not use imperial titles. [1 Mark]
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Wellesley
(C) Lord Dalhousie
(D) Lord Ripon

Answer: (A) Lord Canning

Lord Canning announced in 1856 that after the death of Bahadur Shah Zafar, his successors would not be permitted to use imperial titles or reside in the Red Fort.

Teacher's Note:
a) This declaration deeply hurt the religious and political sentiments of Muslims and the royal family.
b) Lord Canning was the Governor-General of India during the Revolt of 1857.

(ix) Which of these is NOT a repressive policy of Lord Lytton? [1 Mark]
(A) Arms Act
(B) Ilbert Bill
(C) Vernacular Press Act
(D) Grand Delhi Durbar

Answer: (B) Ilbert Bill

The Ilbert Bill was introduced during the tenure of Lord Ripon, not Lord Lytton, to allow Indian judges to try criminal cases involving Europeans.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lord Lytton's repressive measures included the Vernacular Press Act (1878) and the Arms Act (1878).
b) Lord Ripon repealed the Vernacular Press Act and introduced progressive measures.

(x) Jyotiba Phule: Satya Shodhak Samaj : : Raja Rammohan Roy : : __________ [1 Mark]
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Satya Shodhak Samaj
(D) Prarthana Samaj

Answer: (B) Brahmo Samaj

Jyotiba Phule founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj, just as Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj.

Teacher's Note:
a) Memorise social reformers and the respective reform organizations they founded.
b) Raja Rammohan Roy established the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 in Calcutta.

(xi) The Khilafat Movement was started in India by __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Ali Brothers
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jinnah
(D) Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan

Answer: (A) Ali Brothers

The Khilafat Movement in India was spearheaded by Maulana Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali (known as the Ali Brothers).

Teacher's Note:
a) The movement protested against the dismemberment of the Ottoman Empire and the mistreatment of the Caliph after World War I.
b) Mahatma Gandhi supported the movement to foster Hindu-Muslim unity during the freedom struggle.

(xii) The Non Cooperation Movement was suspended due to the __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Gandhi - Irwin pact
(B) Chauri-Chaura Incident
(C) Cripps Mission
(D) Rowlatt Act

Answer: (B) Chauri-Chaura Incident

Mahatma Gandhi suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement following the violent clash at Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur district on February 5, 1922.

Teacher's Note:
a) Gandhi insisted on absolute non-violence; the police station burning led to the death of 22 policemen.
b) The suspension disappointed many nationalist leaders like Subhas Chandra Bose and C.R. Das.

(xiii) Which of the following clauses was NOT part of the Indian Independence Act of 1947? [1 Mark]
(A) There would be a Governor General for each Dominion.
(B) The country would be divided into two Dominions.
(C) The British Parliament had legislative control over India.
(D) There would be a division of army and assets.

Answer: (C) The British Parliament had legislative control over India.

The Indian Independence Act ended British legislative control, declaring that the British Parliament would have no jurisdiction over the new dominions.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Act granted complete independence and dominion status to India and Pakistan from August 15, 1947.
b) Read all provisions of the 1947 Act carefully as questions frequently test negative clauses.

(xiv) Which of the following is a common ideology of Fascism and Nazism? [1 Mark]
(A) To believe in democracy
(B) To encourage political systems
(C) To uphold One party and one leader
(D) To support communism.

Answer: (C) To uphold One party and one leader

Both Italian Fascism (Mussolini) and German Nazism (Hitler) rejected democracy, upheld total totalitarian control, and believed in a single party led by a supreme dictator.

Teacher's Note:
a) Both ideologies were fiercely anti-communist and anti-democratic.
b) Emphasize the traits of totalitarianism common to both Mussolini's Italy and Hitler's Germany.

(xv) Hitler attacked Poland because he wanted to __________. [1 Mark]
(A) seize the coal mines
(B) militarise the Rhine valley
(C) regain the Danzing port
(D) control the trade

Answer: (C) regain the Danzing port

Hitler wanted to recapture the Polish Corridor and the port of Danzig, which separated East Prussia from the rest of Germany, prompting the invasion on September 1, 1939.

Teacher's Note:
a) The attack on Poland served as the immediate trigger for the Second World War.
b) Britain and France had pledged support to Poland, leading to their declaration of war against Germany.

(x) Identify the founders of Non Aligned Movement. [1 Mark]
(A) Nasser, Tito, Nehru
(B) Naseer, Nehru, Stalin
(C) Churchill, Stalin, Tito
(D) Tito, Sukarno, Roosevelt

Answer: (A) Nasser, Tito, Nehru

The Non-Aligned Movement was founded by Gamal Abdel Nasser (Egypt), Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia), and Jawaharlal Nehru (India), along with Sukarno (Indonesia) and Kwame Nkrumah (Ghana).

Teacher's Note:
a) NAM was established during the Cold War era to maintain independence from both power blocs (USA and USSR).
b) The first NAM summit was held in Belgrade in 1961.

Question 2

(i) Mr. Koushal is 26 yrs of age, Which House of Parliament can he be a member of? Why? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mr. Koushal can only be a member of the Lok Sabha.
2. The minimum age required to contest elections and become a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years, whereas for the Rajya Sabha, the minimum age requirement is 30 years.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always state both the eligible house and the age criteria to secure full marks.
b) Students must remember: Lok Sabha is 25 years, Rajya Sabha is 30 years, President/Governor is 35 years.

(ii) Ms. Anita wants to approach the Lok Adalat regarding a case. Mention any two advantages she will have by taking her case to the Lok Adalat. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Lok Adalats provide speedy justice and ensure quick disposal of cases without undue delays.
2. There is no court fee, and if any court fee has been paid, it is refunded in the Lok Adalat.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lok Adalats promote amicable settlement of disputes through compromise.
b) Mentioning cost-effectiveness and speed are key value points for this question.

(iii) Mention any two ways in which the British ill-treated the Indian soldiers. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Indian soldiers were paid poorly and denied prospects of promotion compared to British soldiers of equivalent rank.
2. They were forced to serve overseas, which violated their religious beliefs and customs (General Service Enlistment Act).

Teacher's Note:
a) Discriminatory treatment in salaries and promotions created intense resentment among sepoys.
b) Cultural and religious insensitivity by British officers acted as a major catalyst for the 1857 revolt.

(iv) State any two objectives of the Muslim League. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To protect and advance the political rights and interests of Muslims in India.
2. To prevent the rise of feelings of hostility between Muslims of India and other communities.

Teacher's Note:
a) The All-India Muslim League was founded in 1906 at Dacca.
b) Ensure accurate representation of the original objectives framed by its founders.

(v) What are the causes of the Quit India Movement? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The failure of the Cripps Mission, which offered no concrete promise of immediate self-government.
2. Growing public discontent and fear of a Japanese invasion of India due to British reverses in World War II.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement in August 1942 with the slogan "Do or Die".
b) Highlight the frustration caused by the rejection of the Cripps proposals.

(vi) Mention any two objectives of the Indian National Army. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To organize an armed revolution and fight the British army to liberate India from colonial rule.
2. To establish a Provisional Government of Free India (Ar Azad Hind) to direct the independence struggle.

Teacher's Note:
a) The INA was revitalized under the leadership of Subhas Chandra Bose (Netaji).
b) The slogan "Dilli Chalo" motivated INA soldiers to march towards India.

(vii) Mention any two objectives of the United Nations Organisation. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain international peace and security through collective measures.
2. To develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination.

Teacher's Note:
a) The UN Charter outlines these primary goals to prevent future global conflicts.
b) Mentioning international cooperation in solving economic and social problems is also acceptable.

PART II

SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section.

Question 3
The Legislature makes the laws which govern the country. With reference to the Union Legislature answer the following questions:

(i) What is the maximum composition of the Rajya Sabha? Why is it called a Permanent House? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The maximum composition of the Rajya Sabha is 250 members (238 representing States and Union Territories, and 12 nominated by the President).
2. It is called a Permanent House because it is not subject to dissolution as a whole.
3. One-third of its members retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill those vacancies, ensuring continuous functioning.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly state both the numerical composition (250) and the nomination quota (12 members for distinguished service).

b) Explain the rotation of members clearly to justify why the House never dissolves.

(ii) Mention any three exclusive powers of the Rajya Sabha. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It can declare a subject in the State List as of national importance by a two-thirds majority (Article 249).
2. It can pass a resolution recommending the creation of one or more All-India Services common to the Union and the States (Article 312).
3. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved before or after the declaration of a National Emergency, the Rajya Sabha assumes sole legislative powers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Exclusive powers are those powers that belong only to the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha.
b) Quote Article numbers or clear constitutional provisions for higher credit.

(iii) Mention any four legislative powers of the Parliament. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Making laws on subjects enumerated in the Union List and Concurrent List.
2. Passing ordinary, money, financial, and constitutional amendment bills.
3. Power to legislate on State List subjects during a National Emergency or President's Rule.
4. Control over ordinances promulgated by the President during a parliamentary recess.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on law-making authority across different legislative lists.
b) List distinct legislative functions clearly to secure all 4 marks.

Question 4
The President of India is the nominal head of the Union Administration. With reference to the President, answer the following questions:

(i) What is the term of the President? Give two reasons for the indirect election of the President. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The term of the President of India is 5 years.
2. Reason 1: Direct election of the President would make him a rival center of power to the Prime Minister and Cabinet, violating parliamentary democracy.
3. Reason 2: Since India is a vast country, a direct election would involve enormous expenditure of time, money, and energy, turning it into a plebiscite.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the tenure clearly (5 years) and explain the rationale behind indirect election through an electoral college.
b) Avoid confusing direct vs indirect electoral mechanisms.

(ii) Name the three kinds of emergencies which the President can declare. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. National Emergency (Article 352) arising from war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
2. State Emergency / President's Rule (Article 356) due to the failure of constitutional machinery in a State.
3. Financial Emergency (Article 360) when the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.

Teacher's Note:
a) List all three types of emergencies precisely with their corresponding names.
b) Mentioning articles is appreciated but naming them correctly is mandatory.

(iii) State any four legislative powers of the President. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The President summons, prorogues, and dissolves the Lok Sabha.
2. The President addresses both Houses of Parliament assembled together at the commencement of the first session each year.
3. No bill passed by Parliament can become law without the assent and signature of the President.
4. The President can promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish legislative powers from executive and judicial powers.
b) Mentioning the power to nominate members to Parliament is also valid.

Question 5
An independent judiciary is a feature of federal governance. With reference to the Supreme Court, answer the following questions:

(i) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? What is the composition of the Supreme Court? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President of India (consulting the Chief Justice of India and senior judges via the collegium system).
2. The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and such other judges as prescribed by Parliament (currently 34 judges including the Chief Justice).

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention both the appointing authority (President) and the current strength (34 judges).
b) Students should note that the maximum strength is determined by Parliament legislation.

(ii) Mention the three kinds of cases which come under the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Constitutional Cases: Appeals against judgements of High Courts involving substantial questions of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution.
2. Civil Cases: Appeals from High Court judgements certified to involve a substantial question of general importance.
3. Criminal Cases: Appeals against High Court judgements involving capital punishment or reversal of acquittal orders.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly categorize appellate jurisdiction into Constitutional, Civil, and Criminal appeals.
b) Explain the criteria required for an appeal to reach the apex court under each category.

(iii) Explain the terms: [4 Marks]
(a) Revisory Jurisdiction.
(b) Advisory Jurisdiction.

Answer:
(a) Revisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court has the power to review any judgement or order made by it to correct any patent error or miscarriage of justice.
(b) Advisory Jurisdiction: Under Article 143, the President can refer any question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its advisory opinion, which is not binding on the President.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish clearly between judicial review, revisory jurisdiction, and advisory jurisdiction.
b) Emphasize that the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is merely consultative and non-binding.

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section.

Question 6
The culmination of discontent against the British rule came with the Great Revolt of 1857. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) What was the Doctrine of Lapse? Name the queen who became a victim of this policy. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy introduced by Lord Dalhousie.
2. According to this policy, if an Indian ruler of a dependent state died without a natural male heir, his kingdom would 'lapse' and automatically annexed by the British East India Company.
3. Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi became a victim of this policy as her adopted son was not recognized as a legal heir.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the core principle of the Doctrine of Lapse and name its architect (Lord Dalhousie).
b) Mention Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi as the prominent victim.

(ii) Mention any three economic causes of the Revolt. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Destruction of traditional Indian handicrafts and cottage industries due to cheap British machine-made goods.
2. Excessive land revenue demands and oppressive taxation policies, ruining peasants and forcing them into debt.
3. Drain of wealth from India to Britain without any adequate economic return.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on economic exploitation by the British East India Company.
b) Mentioning rural indebtedness and destruction of native trade industries earns full credit.

(iii) Mention any four administrative changes made by the British after the Revolt. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Transfer of power from the East India Company to the British Crown, administered through the Secretary of State for India.
2. The post of Governor-General was designated as the Viceroy of India.
3. Reorganization of the army by reducing the proportion of Indian soldiers and increasing European troops.
4. Queen Victoria's Proclamation of 1858 promised non-interference in religious matters and equal treatment for Indians.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the structural changes in governance resulting from the Government of India Act 1858.
b) Mentioning military reorganization and the Queen's Proclamation completes the answer.

Question 7
With reference to first and second phase of the Indian National Movement, answer the following:

(i) What was the objective of the Assertive Nationalists? Mention any two contributions of Bal Gangadhar Tilak. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Objective: The Assertive (Radical) Nationalists aimed at achieving complete independence (Swaraj) rather than mere colonial self-government.
2. Contribution 1: Tilak popularized the nationalist movement by organizing traditional festivals like Ganpati and Shivaji festivals.
3. Contribution 2: He boldly declared "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it" and roused public awakening through his newspapers 'Kesari' and 'Maratha'.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly state the ultimate goal of the Assertive Nationalists (Swaraj).
b) Attribute Tilak's famous slogan and media contributions accurately.

(ii) Who partitioned Bengal? State any two actual reasons behind the Partition. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Lord Curzon partitioned Bengal in 1905.
2. Reason 1 (Official): To improve administrative efficiency in the vast and populous province of Bengal.
3. Reason 2 (Real): To curb the rising tide of nationalism and implement the "Divide and Rule" policy by creating a communal divide between Hindus and Muslims.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always distinguish between the stated administrative pretext and the actual political motive.
b) Mentioning Lord Curzon and the year 1905 is essential.

(iii) Mention any four methods used by the Early Nationalists. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Prayers, petitions, and appeals submitted to the government for the redressal of grievances.
2. Holding public meetings and discussions to create political awareness among the masses.
3. Sending deputations of Indian leaders to Britain to influence the British Parliament and public opinion.
4. Using newspapers, journals, and speeches to propagate liberal and democratic ideas.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the peaceful and constitutional nature of Early Nationalist methods (often criticized as political mendicancy).
b) List all four distinct methods clearly.

Question 8
The mass phase of the National Movement led to the freedom of India. With reference to this phase, answer the following questions:

(i) What were the causes of the Civil Disobedience Movement? Name the march which marked the beginning of this movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The failure of the Simon Commission to recommend any substantial constitutional reforms.
2. The rejection of the Nehru Report by the British government and economic distress caused by the Great Depression.
3. The Dandi March (Salt March) marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect the political frustration over the Simon Commission and Nehru Report with the launch of the movement.
b) Name the Dandi March specifically as the starting event.

(ii) Mention any three causes of the Non Cooperation Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Resentment against the Rowlatt Act and the brutal Jallianwala Bagh massacre in Amritsar.
2. Economic hardships, high taxation, and inflation following the First World War.
3. The Khilafat grievance regarding the mistreatment of Turkey by the British after World War I.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy and the Khilafat issue as twin causes.
b) Mention post-war economic distress to complete the three points.

(iii) Mention any four clauses of the Mountbatten Plan. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Partition of India into two independent dominions: India and Pakistan.
2. The princely states would have the option to join either India, Pakistan, or remain independent.
3. A Boundary Commission would be established to demarcate the exact boundaries between the two new nations.
4. Transfer of power to take place on August 15, 1947.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the provisions of the June 3 Plan clearly.
b) Mentioning the fate of princely states and the partition of Punjab and Bengal secures full marks.

Question 9
Look at the picture given and answer the following questions:

[Figure: Historical photograph depicting the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria and his wife in an open car in Sarajevo on June 28, 1914, which triggered the First World War.]

(i) Identify and briefly explain the above incident. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The incident shown is the Sarajevo Assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, heir to the Austro-Hungarian throne.
2. He and his wife were assassinated on June 28, 1914, by Gavrilo Princip, a Serbian nationalist.
3. This event served as the immediate spark that ignited the First World War.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the event (Sarajevo Assassination) and name the perpetrator (Gavrilo Princip).
b) State its historical significance as the immediate cause of World War I.

(ii) Mention any four conditions imposed on Germany in the Treaty of Versailles. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Germany was declared solely responsible for causing the First World War (War Guilt Clause).
2. Germany was forced to pay massive reparations to the Allied powers for war damages.
3. The German army was drastically reduced, and the air force was banned.
4. Alsace-Lorraine was returned to France, and German colonies were distributed among the Allies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the punitive nature of the Treaty of Versailles signed in 1919.
b) Mentioning territorial losses and military restrictions is vital.

(iii) Name the organization established to maintain peace after the First World War. Mention any three of its objectives. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The organization established was the League of Nations.
2. Objective 1: To prevent future wars through collective security and peaceful settlement of international disputes.
3. Objective 2: To promote international cooperation in economic and social spheres.
4. Objective 3: To uphold disarmament and respect for territorial integrity among member nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name the League of Nations formed after the 1919 Paris Peace Conference.
b) List three clear aims focused on peace and international cooperation.

Question 10
The United Nations Organisation was established to maintain peace in the world. With reference to this organization, answer the following questions:

(i) What is the composition of the Security Council? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The UN Security Council consists of 15 members in total.
2. It has 5 permanent members: USA, UK, France, Russia, and China.
3. It has 10 non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly for a two-year term.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly distinguish between permanent and non-permanent members.
b) Mention the total strength (15) and the veto power held by permanent members.

(ii) Mention any three functions of the International Court of Justice. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It settles legal disputes submitted to it by member states in accordance with international law.
2. It gives advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized UN organs and specialized agencies.
3. It interprets international treaties and conventions when requested by disputing parties.

Teacher's Note:
a) State judicial and advisory roles of the ICJ located in The Hague.
b) Ensure clarity on state-to-state dispute adjudication.

(iii) What is the full form of UNESCO? Mention any three of its functions. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Full form: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
2. Function 1: Promotion of education, eradication of illiteracy, and expansion of technical training worldwide.
3. Function 2: Preservation and protection of world cultural and natural heritage sites.
4. Function 3: Encouraging scientific research and free exchange of scientific knowledge among nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write the exact full form of UNESCO without spelling errors.
b) List functions touching upon education, science, and cultural heritage conservation.