ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Paper 2022 with Solutions

ICSE SEMESTER 2 EXAMINATION
SPECIMEN QUESTION PAPER
HISTORY & CIVICS
H.C.G. - Paper - 1

Maximum Marks: 40
Time allowed: One and a half hours

PART I

Question 1

Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.) [10]

(i) The procedure to remove the President is called __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Impeachment
(B) Interpellation
(C) Resolution
(D) Prorogation

Answer: (A) Impeachment

The President of India can be removed from office before the expiry of the term through the process of impeachment for violation of the Constitution.

Teacher's Note:
a) Impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure that can be initiated in either House of Parliament.
b) Students must remember that the grounds and procedure are strictly defined under Article 61 of the Constitution.

(ii) The term of office of the Vice President is __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Five years
(B) Six years
(C) Two years
(D) Ten years

Answer: (A) Five years

The Vice-President holds office for a normal term of five years from the date on which they enter upon office.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Vice-President can also resign before the completion of the term by addressing the resignation to the President.
b) Do not confuse the Vice-President's term with that of members of the Rajya Sabha, of which the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman.

(iii) The ___________ is considered to be the Leader of the Lok Sabha. [1 Mark]
(A) President
(B) Speaker
(C) Vice President
(D) Prime Minister

Answer: (D) Prime Minister

The Prime Minister is the Leader of the House in the Lok Sabha if they are a member of it (or designates another minister who is a member).

Teacher's Note:
a) The Prime Minister acts as the chief spokesperson and leader of the ruling majority in the lower house.
b) Avoid confusing the political leadership of the house with the neutral constitutional office of the Speaker.

(iv) The power of the Supreme Court to review laws passed by Union Legislature is __________. [1 Mark]
(A) Revisory Jurisdiction
(B) Advisory Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction
(D) Judicial Review

Answer: (D) Judicial Review

Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders.

Teacher's Note:
a) If any law violates the provisions of the Constitution, the Supreme Court can declare it null and void.
b) This power acts as a vital check and balance under the Indian federal system.

(v) The High Court judges are appointed by the _______________. [1 Mark]
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (A) President

Judges of the High Courts are appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the state.

Teacher's Note:
a) Appointment of other High Court judges also requires consultation with the Chief Justice of the respective High Court.
b) Students must note that appointment power vests in the President, even though the oath is administered by the Governor.

(vi) Which of the following was not a common ideology of the dictators? [1 Mark]
(A) Faith in totalitarian rule
(B) One party and One Leader
(C) Faith in Communism
(D) Aggressive Nationalism and Imperialism

Answer: (C) Faith in Communism

Dictatorships like Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany opposed communism, whereas communism was a distinct political ideology.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fascism and Nazism relied heavily on extreme nationalism, totalitarian control, and anti-communism.
b) Read the question carefully to spot negative phrasing like 'was not'.

(vii) The International Court of Justice consists of __________ judges. [1 Mark]
(A) 9
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 20

Answer: (B) 15

The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected for nine-year terms by the UN General Assembly and Security Council.

Teacher's Note:
a) The judges are elected regardless of their nationality but must represent the main legal forms of the world.
b) No two judges can be nationals of the same country.

(viii) The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the members of _________. [1 Mark]
(A) General Assembly
(B) International Court of Justice
(C) The Trusteeship Council
(D) The Secretariat

Answer: (A) General Assembly

The ten non-permanent members of the UN Security Council are elected by the General Assembly for a two-year term.

Teacher's Note:
a) Elections are held annually for five non-permanent seats to ensure geographical representation.
b) Retiring members are not eligible for immediate re-election.

(ix) The Treaty of Versailles mandated Germany to pay a war reparation of __________. [1 Mark]
(A) 35 billion dollars
(B) 40 billion dollars
(C) 33 billion dollars
(D) 50 million pounds

Answer: (C) 33 billion dollars

Germany was held responsible for the losses and damages caused by the war and was ordered to pay financial reparations amounting to 33 billion dollars.

Teacher's Note:
a) The enormous reparation sum crippled the German economy during the inter-war period.
b) Memorize exact historical figures associated with the Treaty of Versailles.

(x) Which of these countries was not part of the Berlin-Rome-Tokyo Axis? [1 Mark]
(A) Germany
(B) Italy
(C) Japan
(D) France

Answer: (D) France

France was part of the Allied powers, whereas Germany, Italy, and Japan formed the Axis powers during the Second World War.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Tripartite Pact formally cemented the alliance between Berlin, Rome, and Tokyo.
b) Do not confuse World War I alliances with World War II axis powers.

PART II

SECTION A

(Attempt any one question from this Section.)

Question 2
The executive power of the Indian Union is vested in the President of India. In this context, answer the following questions:

(i) Give any two reasons for the indirect election of the President. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The President is only a nominal executive and real powers are vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister; direct election would be anomalous without giving real executive powers.
2. Direct election of the President would be very costly and time-consuming due to the vast size of the Indian electorate, which is unwarranted for a symbolic head.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the parliamentary nature of the Indian Constitution where the cabinet holds real authority.
b) State both constitutional reasoning points clearly to secure full marks.

(ii) Mention any two discretionary powers of the President. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The President has the right to be informed of all important decisions and deliberations of the Council of Ministers, and the Prime Minister is bound to furnish such information.
2. In case no single party secures a clear majority in the Lok Sabha after an election, the President uses discretion in inviting a leader who can form a stable coalition government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Discretionary powers are exercised independently without ministerial advice in specific crisis or transitional situations.
b) Mention clear scenarios such as hung parliaments for accuracy.

(iii) Mention any three legislative powers of the President. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The President can summon or prorogue the sessions of Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
2. The President addresses both Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.
3. The President can send messages to either House of Parliament with respect to a bill pending in Parliament or otherwise.

Teacher's Note:
a) Legislative powers involve the President's role as an integral component of Parliament.
b) List any three distinct powers clearly with appropriate terminology like summon, prorogue, and dissolve.

(iv) Name the three kinds of emergencies that can be proclaimed by the President. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. National Emergency: Proclaimed under Article 352 due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
2. State Emergency: Proclaimed under Article 356 due to the failure of constitutional machinery in a state (President's Rule).
3. Financial Emergency: Proclaimed under Article 360 when the financial stability or credit of India is threatened.

Teacher's Note:
a) Always quote the correct corresponding Articles for complete credit.
b) Distinguish clearly between national, state, and financial crises.

Question 3
The Supreme Court is the head of the entire system of judiciary. In this context, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any two qualifications required by a person to be the judge of the Supreme Court. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The person must be a citizen of India.
2. The person must have been a judge of a High Court (or two or more such Courts in succession) for at least five years, or an advocate of a High Court for 10 years, or a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.

Teacher's Note:
a) Citizenship is a mandatory prerequisite for all constitutional posts.
b) Students need to write at least two distinct alternative criteria under judicial experience correctly.

(ii) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? What is their term of office? [2 Marks]

Answer:
The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President of India. They hold office until they attain the age of 65 years.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention both the appointing authority and the retirement age limit clearly.
b) Supreme Court judges cannot be removed except by an impeachment motion passed by Parliament.

(iii) Mention any three cases which come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Any dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. Any dispute between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other.
3. Any dispute between two or more States involving any question on which the legal right depends.

Teacher's Note:
a) Original jurisdiction refers to cases that can be heard directly by the Supreme Court in the first instance.
b) Do not confuse original jurisdiction with writ jurisdiction or appellate jurisdiction.

(iv) Why is the Supreme Court called the Court of Record? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The judgements, proceedings, and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony.
2. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court.
3. The Supreme Court has the power to punish for its contempt.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judgments serve as legal precedents that are binding on all subordinate courts across India.
b) Ensure all three core aspects of a Court of Record are mentioned to secure full marks.

SECTION B

(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 4
With reference to the First World War, answer the following questions:

(i) Name the two alliances formed in Europe during the First World War. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Triple Alliance: Comprising Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy.
2. Triple Entente: Comprising Britain, France, and Russia.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the exact member nations for each alliance.
b) These rival alliances created an atmosphere of suspicion and tension leading up to the war.

(ii) Name the two countries which came under dictatorship after the First World War. Name the dictators. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Germany - Adolf Hitler
2. Soviet Russia - Joseph Stalin (Italy under Benito Mussolini is also acceptable).

Teacher's Note:
a) Post-war economic distress and political instability paved the way for totalitarian dictatorships.
b) Clearly pair each country with its respective dictator.

(iii) Explain the Sarajevo Crisis. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Sarajevo Crisis refers to the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, heir to the Austro-Hungarian throne, and his wife Sophie by a Serbian nationalist on June 28, 1914.
2. Austria blamed Serbia for the assassination and issued an ultimatum containing humiliating demands.
3. Serbia's failure to accept all terms led Austria-Hungary to declare war, triggering the system of alliances and causing the First World War.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the exact date, victims, and location of the incident.
b) Explain how this localized event served as the immediate spark for the global conflict.

(iv) Mention any three ways in which the Treaty of Versailles benefited France. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Alsace and Lorraine were returned by Germany to France.
2. France was given ownership of the rich coal mines in the Saar basin for 15 years as compensation for wartime destruction.
3. France received substantial financial reparations and a share of Germany's confiscated overseas colonies and territories.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on territorial and economic gains secured by France under the treaty.
b) Avoid general statements and be specific about Alsace-Lorraine and the Saar coal mines.

Question 5
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:

[Figure: Emblem of the United Nations showing a world map projected from the North Pole, surrounded by two olive branches]

(i) Which organization does this emblem represent? [2 Marks]

Answer:
This emblem represents the United Nations Organisation (UNO). Its headquarters is located in New York City.

Teacher's Note:
a) The olive branches symbolize peace, and the world map represents all people of the world.
b) Students should be able to identify major international organization emblems visually.

(ii) Mention any two objectives of this organization. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain international peace and security.
2. To develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples.

Teacher's Note:
a) Objectives form the foundational purpose outlined in the UN Charter.
b) Write precise points covering security and international cooperation.

(iii) Mention any three functions of the General Assembly. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To consider and approve the United Nations budget and establish financial assessments of member states.
2. To elect non-permanent members of the Security Council and members of other UN organs, and appoint the Secretary-General on the recommendation of the Security Council.
3. To discuss any questions relating to international peace and security and make recommendations.

Teacher's Note:
a) The General Assembly acts as the deliberative and policymaking organ of the UN.
b) List any three distinct functions clearly using proper terminology.

(iv) What is the composition of the Security Council? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Security Council consists of 15 member states of the United Nations.
2. There are 5 permanent members: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.
3. There are 10 non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention total members along with the breakdown of permanent and non-permanent seats.
b) Highlight the veto power held by the five permanent members.

Question 6
(i) Give the full form of UNICEF and UNESCO. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. UNICEF: United Nations Children's Fund.
2. UNESCO: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Memorize exact full forms of specialized UN agencies without spelling errors.
b) Note that UNICEF was originally United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund, but the current accepted full form is United Nations Children's Fund.

(ii) Mention any two functions of WHO. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Providing leadership on global health matters and engaging in partnerships where joint action is needed.
2. Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation, and dissemination of valuable health knowledge.

Teacher's Note:
a) WHO is the directing and coordinating authority for health within the United Nations system.
b) Write concise points highlighting leadership and research facilitation.

(iii) What is meant by the term Non-Alignment? Name any two founders of the Non-Aligned Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Non-Alignment refers to the policy of states not formally aligning with or against any major power bloc during the Cold War, maintaining independence in foreign policy.
2. Two founders of the Non-Aligned Movement:
- Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (India)
- Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia) [President Kwame Nkrumah or President Sukarno are also accepted].

Teacher's Note:
a) Clarify that non-alignment is not neutrality, but an active policy of judging issues on their own merits.
b) Name two prominent founding figures correctly along with their nations.

(iv) Mention any three objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To eliminate all causes that could lead to war and promote world peace.
2. To strengthen the United Nations as an effective organ of world peace.
3. To oppose colonialism, imperialism, and racial discrimination in all forms.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on anti-imperialism, peaceful coexistence, and strengthening multilateral organizations.
b) Write three clear, distinct bullet points to score full marks.