ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Paper 2018 with Solutions

PART I (30 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1

(a) Name the two types of authority in a federal set up in India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The two types of authority in a federal set up in India are the Central Government (Union Government) and the State Governments.

Teacher's Note:
a) Federalism involves a dual system of government with division of powers between the centre and the regions.
b) Ensure both levels of government are explicitly named to secure full marks.

(b) What is the term of the Lok Sabha? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The normal term of the Lok Sabha is five years, unless dissolved earlier by the President.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students should mention the condition of prior dissolution by the President for complete accuracy.
b) The term can be extended during a Proclamation of Emergency.

(c) How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves soon after the newly elected House meets for the first time.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that election happens from within the sitting members of the House.
b) Do not confuse the election of the Speaker with that of the President or Vice-President.

(d) Name the procedure for the removal of the President of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Impeachment is the procedure for the removal of the President of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure carried out under Article 61 of the Constitution.
b) The ground for impeachment is violation of the Constitution.

(e) Who presides over the sessions of the Rajya Sabha in the absence of its Chairman? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides over its sessions in the absence of the Chairman.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
b) The Deputy Chairman is elected by the Rajya Sabha from amongst its members.

(f) Mention one important function of the Vice-President of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Another key function is to act as President when a vacancy occurs due to death, resignation, or removal.
b) Mentioning the ex-officio Chairperson role is the most direct and standard answer.

(g) On whose advice and by whom is the Council of Ministers appointed? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Council of Ministers is appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Teacher's Note:
a) Both the appointing authority (President) and the advising authority (Prime Minister) must be stated.
b) Ministers are formally administered oaths of office and secrecy by the President.

(h) Mention one legislative function of the Council of Ministers. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Ministers introduce most of the important Bills and pilot them through the Parliament.

Teacher's Note:
a) This includes introduction of Government Bills (Money Bills and Ordinary Bills).
b) They also advise the President on the promulgation of Ordinances when Parliament is not in session.

(i) On what grounds can a judge of the Supreme Court be removed? [1 Mark]

Answer:
A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Both grounds must be mentioned together as specified in the Constitution.
b) Removal requires an address passed by each House of Parliament by a special majority.

(j) Which is the highest criminal court in a district? Who presides over it? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Court of the Sessions Judge is the highest criminal court in a district, and it is presided over by the Sessions Judge.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly name both the court and the presiding officer.
b) Note that Sessions Judges can award any sentence authorized by law, including capital punishment subject to confirmation by the High Court.

Question 2

(a) When and why was Oudh annexed by Lord Dalhousie? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Oudh was annexed in the year 1856.
2. It was annexed on the pretext of alleged misgovernance by Nawab Wajid Ali Shah under the Doctrine of Lapse / subsidiary alliance framework.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the exact year (1856) and the specific reason (misrule / misgovernment).
b) This annexation deeply alienated the sepoys, as a majority of them hailed from Oudh.

(b) Give two factors that gave rise to Nationalism in India in the 19th century. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Economic exploitation of India by the British, leading to widespread poverty and ruin of traditional industries.
2. Impact of Western education and socio-religious reform movements that fostered ideas of liberty, equality, and democracy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Any two valid socio-economic or political factors are accepted.
b) Clear heading-based points ensure full credit.

(c) Mention any two objectives of the Muslim League. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To promote among Indian Muslims feelings of loyalty to the British Government.
2. To protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Muslims of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Muslim League was founded in 1906 under the leadership of Aga Khan and Nawab Salimullah of Dhaka.
b) Students must write the precise aims formulated at its inception.

(d) Mention the significance of the Lucknow Pact of 1916. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It brought about unity between the Early Nationalists and the Radical Nationalists (Congress reunion).
2. It led to the Hindu-Muslim accord as the Congress and the Muslim League signed a joint pact for political reforms.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Lucknow Pact marked a milestone in the Indian national movement due to inter-party and intra-party unity.
b) Highlight both Congress factions uniting and the Congress-League pact.

(e) Give any two contributions of Subhash Chandra Bose. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. He reorganized and revitalized the Indian National Army (INA / Azad Hind Fauj) to fight for India's independence.
2. He established the Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind) in Singapore in 1943.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning the INA and the Forward Bloc or Azad Hind Government covers expected value points.
b) Keep descriptions precise and historically accurate.

(f) Mention any two provisions of the Indian Independence Act 1947. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. India was partitioned into two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, effective from August 15, 1947.
2. The office of the Viceroy was abolished, and each dominion was to have a Governor-General appointed by the British King on the advice of the dominion cabinet.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on key structural changes brought by the Act.
b) Mentioning creation of dominions and lapse of paramountcy are standard points.

(g) State any two objectives of the Forward Bloc. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Liberation of India with the support of workers, peasants, youth, and all other radical organizations.
2. Establishment of a socialist state in India after attaining independence.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Forward Bloc was formed by Subhash Chandra Bose in 1939 after resigning from the Congress presidentship.
b) Objectives centered on complete independence and socialist reconstruction.

(h) Give any two causes of the First World War. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Division of Europe into two hostile armed camps (Triple Alliance and Triple Entente).
2. Aggressive nationalism and intense imperialistic colonial rivalry among European powers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other acceptable causes include the Sarajevo crisis or militarism.
b) Clear and distinct points ensure maximum marks.

(i) What is understood by the Policy of Appeasement followed by Britain and France towards Germany? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It was a diplomatic policy of making concessions to aggressive powers like Nazi Germany in order to maintain peace.
2. Britain and France acquiesced to Hitler's repeated territorial violations (such as the annexation of Austria and parts of Czechoslovakia) hoping to avoid another major war.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain appeasement as a policy of conciliation in the face of aggression.
b) Highlight that it ultimately failed to stop Hitler and paved the way for World War II.

(j) Mention any two objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To pursue an independent foreign policy free from the domination of major power blocs (USA and USSR).
2. To oppose colonialism, imperialism, and racism, and to support national liberation movements.

Teacher's Note:
a) NAM aimed at maintaining world peace and security during the Cold War era.
b) Mentioning independence from power blocs and anti-colonialism covers core objectives.

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A (CIVICS)

Attempt any two questions from this Section

Question 3

With reference to the Union Parliament:
(a) Give three reasons as to why the Lok Sabha is considered more powerful than the Rajya Sabha. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha has no power to reject or amend them.
2. A motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers can only be moved and passed in the Lok Sabha.
3. In case of a deadlock between the two Houses on an ordinary bill, a joint sitting is convened where the numerical strength of the Lok Sabha ensures its dominance.

Teacher's Note:
a) Financial supremacy and executive control are the strongest arguments for Lok Sabha's dominance.
b) Clearly state all three points with legal backing (Articles 109, 110, etc., are implied).

(b) State three exclusive powers of the Rajya Sabha. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution by a two-thirds majority empowering Parliament to make laws on a matter enumerated in the State List.
2. Under Article 312, it can recommend the creation of new All-India Services common to both the Union and the States.
3. It has the exclusive power to initiate a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Exclusive powers highlight the federal character and utility of the Upper House.
b) Ensure exact references to legislation and All-India Services.

(c) Mention any four functions of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Speaker presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha and maintains order and decorum in the House.
2. The Speaker decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or an ordinary Bill, and their decision is final.
3. The Speaker allows members to ask questions and permits the introduction of motions and resolutions.
4. The Speaker casts a casting vote in the event of a tie (equality of votes) on any issue in the House.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Speaker is the principal spokesperson and constitutional head of the Lok Sabha.
b) Maintain neutrality as an essential attribute of the office.

Question 4

With reference to the Union Executive:
(a) What is the composition of the Electoral College for the election of the President of India? [3 Marks]

Answer:
The Electoral College consists of:
1. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha).
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies (Vidhan Sabha) of all the States.
3. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that only *elected* members participate, not nominated members.
b) Mentioning Delhi and Puducherry assemblies completes the constitutional composition.

(b) State three reasons to justify the indirect election of the President. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. A direct election would make the President a rival center of power to the Prime Minister and Cabinet, upsetting the parliamentary system.
2. Since the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are responsible to the Lok Sabha, a directly elected President with enormous powers could lead to administrative friction.
3. Direct election of the President in a vast country like India would involve colossal expenditure of time, money, and energy, rendering it practically unnecessary since the President's role is largely constitutional and ceremonial.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain why indirect election preserves the primacy of the cabinet system.
b) Frame points clearly to reflect parliamentary principles.

(c) Mention four functions of the Union Cabinet. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Policy Formulation: The Cabinet decides major internal and external policies of the government.
2. Legislative Control: It frames legislative proposals, drafts bills, and steers them through Parliament.
3. Financial Control: It prepares the annual budget and controls national finance and taxation proposals.
4. Appointments: It advises the President on important high-level appointments such as Governors, Ambassadors, and judges.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Cabinet is the core steering body within the Council of Ministers.
b) List distinct functional domains such as legislative, executive, and financial.

Question 5

With reference to the Judiciary:
(a) What are the qualifications required for the appointment of judges of the Supreme Court? [3 Marks]

Answer:
To be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court, a person must:
1. Be a citizen of India.
2. Have been at least for 5 years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession; OR have been for at least 10 years an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession.
3. Be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

Teacher's Note:
a) State all mandatory citizenship and professional experience criteria accurately.
b) Note that the professional criteria are alternative conditions.

(b) Explain the term Judicial Review of the High Court. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Judicial Review is the power of the High Court to examine the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders of both central and state governments.
2. If any law or executive order is found to be in violation of the provisions of the Constitution, the High Court can declare it ultra vires (null and void).
3. This power ensures that the supremacy of the Constitution is upheld.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define Judicial Review clearly as a constitutional safeguard.
b) Mention the consequence of declaration (null and void).

(c) What do you mean by Lok Adalat? State any three advantages of the Lok Adalat. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Lok Adalat means People's Court, which is an alternative dispute resolution mechanism set up to settle disputes amicably through compromise and conciliation.
Three advantages of Lok Adalat are:
1. It provides speedy and inexpensive justice as there are no court fees.
2. It reduces the backlog of cases pending in formal courts.
3. The awards passed by Lok Adalats are final and binding, and no appeal lies against them in any court.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define Lok Adalat and list three distinct procedural advantages.
b) Emphasize that finality of awards prevents protracted litigation.

SECTION B (HISTORY)

Attempt any three questions from this Section

Question 6

With reference to the First War of Independence, 1857:
(a) Give three causes for the resentment of the sepoys against the British. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. General Service Enlistment Act of 1856 mandated that Indian soldiers could be sent overseas for service, which hurt their religious beliefs.
2. Racial discrimination and low pay compared to British soldiers, with bleak prospects for promotion.
3. Introduction of the Enfield rifle using greased cartridges made of cow and pig fat, which offended Hindu and Muslim sentiments.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on military grievances including religious and service-related issues.
b) The Enfield cartridge is a classic immediate/trigger cause.

(b) Mention three economic causes that caused unrest among Indians. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Destruction of traditional Indian handicrafts and cottage industries due to cheap machine-made British imports.
2. Impoverishment of the peasantry due to heavy and oppressive land revenue systems (Zamindari, Ryotwari, Mahalwari).
3. Drain of wealth from India to Britain without any adequate economic return.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight economic exploitation policies of the East India Company.
b) Ensure distinct categories like trade, agriculture, and wealth drain are covered.

(c) State four changes introduced in the organization of the Army after the First War of Independence. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The strength of European troops in India was increased, while the number of Indian troops was reduced.
2. Strategic military positions and artillery units were placed exclusively in the hands of the British.
3. To prevent unity among Indian soldiers, the army was organized on the policy of divide and rule by recruiting from diverse communities and castes.
4. Indians were barred from holding higher military ranks and officer positions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Detail post-1857 military reorganization measures.
b) Focus on European dominance and communal balancing/segregation.

Question 7

With reference to the growth of Nationalism:
(a) Mention two associations which served as the forerunners (precursors) of the Indian National Congress. Who were the founders of the two associations? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. East India Association - Founded by Dadabhai Naoroji.
2. Indian Association - Founded by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other acceptable precursors include the British Indian Association or Pune Sarvajanik Sabha.
b) Accurately pair the association names with their respective founders.

(b) Differentiate between the methods adopted by the Early Nationalists and the Radical Nationalists. [3 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Use a comparative table for clear differentiation.
b) Focus on ideology, methods, and goals.

(c) State two contributions of Gopal Krishna Gokhale and Lala Lajpat Rai. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Contributions of Gopal Krishna Gokhale:
1. He founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to train Indians dedicated to national service.
2. He voiced Indian grievances in the Imperial Legislative Council with moderation and profound economic insight.
Contributions of Lala Lajpat Rai:
1. He popularized the Swadeshi movement and boycott of British goods in Punjab.
2. He founded institutions like the Servants of the People Society and led protests against the Simon Commission.

Teacher's Note:
a) Group contributions distinctly for each leader.
b) Highlight Gokhale as an Early Nationalist and Lajpat Rai as a Radical leader.

Question 8

The advent of Mahatma Gandhi on the Indian political scene gave a new direction to the freedom struggle. In this context, answer the following:
(a) What were the causes which led to the launching of the Non-Cooperation Movement? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Outrage over the Rowlatt Act and the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
2. Widespread economic distress caused by World War I, including high prices and heavy taxation.
3. The Khilafat grievance regarding the mistreatment of Turkey by the British after World War I.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the three major contributory causes: Rowlatt/Jallianwala, economic hardships, and Khilafat issue.
b) Clear points ensure complete coverage.

(b) Why did Gandhi withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mahatma Gandhi withdrew the movement due to the outbreak of violence at Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur district on February 5, 1922.
2. An enraged mob set fire to a police station, resulting in the death of 22 policemen.
3. Gandhi believed that the Indian people were not yet ready for a non-violent mass movement and called off the campaign.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the specific incident (Chauri Chaura) and date/location.
b) Emphasize Gandhi's unflinching commitment to non-violence (*Ahimsa*).

(c) What was the impact of the Non-Cooperation Movement? [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. It transformed the national movement into a mass movement by drawing peasants, workers, students, and women into the political mainstream.
2. It fostered Hindu-Muslim unity through active cooperation during the Khilafat-Non-Cooperation phase.
3. It promoted indigenous industries, Swadeshi goods, and national educational institutions.
4. It demonstrated to the British that their rule depended on Indian cooperation, which could be withdrawn.

Teacher's Note:
a) Summarize political, social, and economic impacts.
b) Highlight mass awakening and psychological liberation from fear.

Question 9

[Figure: Historical photograph showing a massive mushroom cloud billowing into the sky following an atomic bomb detonation.]

(a) Identify the above picture and with which war was it associated? Mention the year of the incident. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The picture depicts the atomic bombing of Hiroshima/Nagasaki.
2. It was associated with the Second World War.
3. The year of the incident was 1945.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the mushroom cloud as the atomic bomb attack.
b) Link it directly to the Second World War and the year 1945.

(b) Mention three causes that led to the war. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Humiliating terms of the Treaty of Versailles imposed on Germany after World War I.
2. Rise of aggressive fascism and Nazism in Italy and Germany under Mussolini and Hitler.
3. Failure of the League of Nations to check acts of aggression by fascist powers (such as invasion of Abyssinia and Poland).

Teacher's Note:
a) State major underlying causes of World War II.
b) Ensure distinct points covering the Treaty of Versailles, totalitarian regimes, and the League of Nations' failure.

(c) State any two consequences of the war. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Defeat of the Axis powers (Germany, Italy, Japan) and the destruction of fascism and Nazism.
2. Establishment of the United Nations Organization (UNO) in October 1945 to maintain international peace and security.
3. Beginning of the Cold War era and division of the world into two rival power blocs led by the USA and the USSR.
4. Acceleration of the decolonization process, leading to independence for several Asian and African nations including India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give clear political and structural outcomes of World War II.
b) Mentioning the formation of the UN and the onset of the Cold War covers vital syllabus content.

Question 10

With reference to the United Nations:
(a) Write the full form of UNESCO. Mention two of its functions in the field of education. [3 Marks]

Answer:
Full form of UNESCO: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
Two functions in the field of education:
1. Elimination of illiteracy by promoting primary education and adult education programs globally.
2. Financial and technical assistance for the improvement of teacher training, science education, and curriculum development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Spell UNESCO correctly and provide accurate educational functions.
b) Avoid mixing educational functions with cultural heritage preservation points.

(b) What is the composition of the International Court of Justice? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) consists of 15 judges.
2. They are elected by the UN General Assembly and the Security Council voting independently.
3. They hold office for a term of nine years and are eligible for re-election, with no two judges belonging to the same country.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the total number of judges, election procedure, and tenure.
b) Note that the ICJ is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations located at The Hague.

(c) What is meant by Veto power? Give three functions of the Security Council. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Veto power is the negative vote exercised by any of the five permanent members (USA, UK, France, Russia, China) of the UN Security Council, which has the power to block any substantive resolution even if it has majority support.
Three functions of the Security Council are:
1. To maintain international peace and security in accordance with the principles of the United Nations.
2. To investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction.
3. To recommend methods of adjusting such disputes or terms of settlement, and to apply economic sanctions or military action against aggressor nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define Veto power precisely with reference to permanent members.
b) List primary peacekeeping and enforcement functions of the Security Council.