ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Paper 2025 with Solutions

PART I

Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options.
(Do not copy the question, write the correct answers only.) [16 Marks]

(i) An ordinance is called a temporary law. Which of the following statements correctly describes the same? [1 Mark]
(a) Only the Cabinet can prepare an ordinance.
(b) It is issued when the Parliament is not functioning.
(c) If the Parliament does not approve it within six weeks it becomes inoperative.
(d) Only the President can promulgate an ordinance.

Answer: (c) If the Parliament does not approve it within six weeks it becomes inoperative.

An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament unless approved earlier.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ordinances have the same force as an Act of Parliament but are promulgated under Article 123.
b) Students must remember the six-week time limit from the date of reassembly.

(ii) Given below are details of a few Indian citizens. Select the person who fulfils the eligibility criteria to become a member of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament. [1 Mark]

(a) W
(b) X
(c) Y
(d) Z

Answer: (c) Y

Candidate Y meets the minimum age requirement of 30 years for Rajya Sabha and has no disqualifications like bankruptcy or criminal conviction.

Teacher's Note:
a) Minimum age for Rajya Sabha is 30 years, while for Lok Sabha it is 25 years.
b) Bankrupt individuals and those convicted with prison sentences are disqualified from holding parliamentary office.

(iii) The opposition feels that the ruling government does not have the majority in the Lok Sabha and wants to bring down the Government. Which of these motions will the Leader of the Opposition move? [1 Mark]
(a) Adjournment Motion
(b) No-confidence Motion
(c) Motion of Thanks
(d) Censure Motion

Answer: (b) No-confidence Motion

A No-confidence Motion is moved to test the majority of the ruling government in the Lok Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) If a No-confidence motion is passed, the government must resign.
b) Do not confuse it with a Censure Motion, which only expresses disapproval of specific policies.

(iv) When the Supreme Court reviews any judgement made by it to remove an error, it falls under __________ jurisdiction. [1 Mark]
(a) Advisory
(b) Revisory
(c) Original
(d) Appellate

Answer: (b) Revisory

Under its revisory jurisdiction, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgement or order made by it to correct any patent error.

Teacher's Note:
a) Article 137 of the Constitution gives the Supreme Court power to review its own judgements.
b) Revisory jurisdiction ensures that judicial errors are rectified.

(v) Identify the officials who form the electoral college for the Presidential elections in India. [1 Mark]
P: elected members of Parliament
Q: nominated members of Parliament
R: elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
S: nominated members of State Legislative Councils
(a) P and Q
(b) R and S
(c) P and R
(d) Q and S

Answer: (c) P and R

The President is elected by the elected members of both houses of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Nominated members of Parliament and State Assemblies do not vote in Presidential elections.
b) Members of Legislative Councils (MLCs) also do not take part.

(vi) Court of District Judge : Civil Cases : : Sessions Court : __________ Cases [1 Mark]
(a) Advisory
(b) Criminal
(c) Constitutional
(d) Appellate

Answer: (b) Criminal

A District Judge deals with civil cases, while a Sessions Judge deals with criminal cases at the district level.

Teacher's Note:
a) This is an analogy-based question testing district court hierarchy.
b) Sessions Court is the highest criminal court in a district.

(vii) Read the two statements given below about the Civil Disobedience Movement and select the option that shows the correct relationship between (A) and (B). [1 Mark]
(A) Gandhi's Civil Disobedience was based on engaging in dialogue and negotiation with the British.
(B) Gandhi believed that violence and aggression are counterproductive to achieve any goal.
(a) (B) contradicts (A).
(b) (B) is the reason for (A).
(c) (A) is true but (B) is false.
(d) (A) and (B) are independent of each other.

Answer: (b) (B) is the reason for (A).

Because Gandhiji believed in non-violence and pacifism, his methods involved dialogue, negotiation, and peaceful satyagraha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Non-violence (Ahimsa) was the core philosophy underpinning all of Gandhiji's movements.
b) Statement B provides the underlying principle that justified statement A.

(viii) The central government of a country named X has decided to enforce a law similar to the Vernacular Press Act, which was enacted by the British in India in 1878 to control and regulate the vernacular press. Based on this information, who among the following is most likely to benefit from the enforcement of the law in X? [1 Mark]
(a) its citizens
(b) the media industry
(c) the opposition party
(d) the ruling political party

Answer: (d) the ruling political party

Censoring the press helps suppress criticism, thereby benefiting the ruling government.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Vernacular Press Act was designed to muzzle nationalist criticism against British rule.
b) Restrictive press laws always favour those in power by silencing dissent.

(ix) In 1856, the British East India Company justified the annexation of Awadh, a princely state in northern India, on what grounds? [1 Mark]
(a) acquire more land for British colonies
(b) stop the rebellion against the British
(c) punish the Nawab of Awadh for opposing British rule
(d) due to alleged misgovernance by the Nawab of Awadh

Answer: (d) due to alleged misgovernance by the Nawab of Awadh

Lord Dalhousie annexed Awadh in 1856 on the pretext of alleged misrule by Nawab Wajid Ali Shah.

Teacher's Note:
a) Annexation of Awadh deeply alienated the sepoys, many of whom hailed from Awadh.
b) It was one of the prime administrative causes of the Revolt of 1857.

(x)
[Figure: Newspaper clipping from Daily Express dated 29th June, 1914 with the headline 'HEIR TO AUSTRIAN THRONE MURDERED' and a portrait of Archduke Franz Ferdinand]
Source: Daily Express, 29th June, Monday 1914
Which of the following is an immediate impact of the above incident? [1 Mark]
(a) It led to the supremacy of America
(b) It led to the First World War
(c) Austria and Hungary became two independent nations.
(d) Democracy replaced monarchy in many countries.

Answer: (b) It led to the First World War

The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand at Sarajevo served as the immediate trigger for World War I.

Teacher's Note:
a) This event triggered the July Crisis of 1914.
b) Students must distinguish between long-term causes and the immediate trigger of WWI.

(xi) Identify the odd one out of the following objectives: [1 Mark]
(a) To promote among Muslims of India, support for the British government
(b) To remove any misconceptions regarding the intention of the government
(c) To protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Muslims
(d) To abolish the zamindari system

Answer: (d) To abolish the zamindari system

Options (a), (b), and (c) were core objectives of the Muslim League when it was founded in 1906.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Muslim League was initially loyalist towards the British.
b) Abolition of the zamindari system was a post-independence socialist reform, not a 1906 objective.

(xii) A college student named Roshni is doing a project on a prominent Indian leader whose core work revolved around Dalit rights. Who is Roshni MOST LIKELY writing about? [1 Mark]
(a) Surendranath Banerjee
(b) Pherozeshah Mehta
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji
(d) Jyotiba Phule

Answer: (d) Jyotiba Phule

Jyotiba Phule was a social reformer renowned for his pioneering work in fighting caste oppression and uplifting Dalits and lower castes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Options (a), (b), and (c) were early moderate nationalist leaders.
b) Jyotiba Phule founded the Satyashodhak Samaj for the rights of lower castes.

(xiii) __________ was the cause for the renewal of the Civil Disobedience Movement. [1 Mark]
(a) Failure of the Second Round Table Conference
(b) Rowlatt Act
(c) Mountbatten Plan
(d) Failure of the Cripps Mission

Answer: (a) Failure of the Second Round Table Conference

Gandhiji returned empty-handed from London after the failure of the Second Round Table Conference, leading to the resumption of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact had suspended the movement earlier.
b) Repressive measures by Viceroy Lord Willingdon upon Gandhi's return further compelled the renewal.

(xiv) The non-permanent members of the Security Council have a term of __________ years. [1 Mark]
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 10

Answer: (a) 2

Non-permanent members of the UN Security Council are elected for a two-year term.

Teacher's Note:
a) There are 10 non-permanent members in total.
b) They are elected by the General Assembly on a regional basis.

(xv) Which of the following policies of a dictator ruling over Country X is MOST aligned with the ideologies of Mussolini during his time in power? [1 Mark]
(a) prioritising military expansion
(b) promoting environmental sustainability
(c) creating a healthcare program for all citizens equally
(d) offering financial aid to support the education of students from poor backgrounds

Answer: (a) prioritising military expansion

Mussolini's Fascist ideology emphasised aggressive nationalism, militarism, and imperial expansion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fascism glorifies war and military strength.
b) Welfare or environmental policies do not align with fascist dictatorial goals.

(xvi) Which of the following scenarios describes the Non-Alignment Policy (NAM)? [1 Mark]
(a) A country forms a military alliance only with the United States.
(b) A country maintains relations with both factions during the Cold War and does not take sides.
(c) A country is part of a religious movement advocating non-violence
(d) A country aligns with Soviet Union and receives military aid

Answer: (b) A country maintains relations with both factions during the Cold War and does not take sides.

NAM meant staying away from formal military blocs led by the USA and USSR during the Cold War.

Teacher's Note:
a) India was a founding member of the Non-Aligned Movement.
b) Non-alignment is not neutrality; it is active participation in international affairs without military alignment.

Question 2

(i) Read the given news carefully.
Headline: Mysuru Lok Adalat settles 53-year-old civil case involving Kannada poets' kin. This case went on for a total of 53 years in various courts and involved 10 advocates and 40 witnesses.
Source: news18.com published on March 14, 2022
State any two advantages of Lok Adalats that can be deduced from the above news headline. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Lok Adalats help in speedy disposal of long-pending cases (settling a 53-year-old case).
2. They reduce the burden and costs of prolonged litigation involving numerous advocates and witnesses.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lok Adalats are alternative dispute resolution mechanisms.
b) Mentioning speed and cost-effectiveness fetches full marks.

(ii) Imagine you were part of the German military in the year 1919, mention any two terms of the Treaty of Versailles which would impact you. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The German army was restricted to a maximum strength of 100,000 troops, leading to massive job losses in the military.
2. Compulsory military service (conscription) was abolished in Germany.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Treaty of Versailles severely crippled Germany's military power.
b) Students must focus on terms directly impacting the military personnel.

(iii) Mention any two contributions of Subash Chandra Bose. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. He reorganised and led the Azad Hind Fauj (Indian National Army) to fight for India's independence from outside.
2. He established the Forward Bloc within the Congress in 1939 to consolidate radical leftist forces.

Teacher's Note:
a) Subhash Chandra Bose gave the famous slogans 'Delhi Chalo' and 'Jai Hind'.
b) His leadership of the INA inspired immense patriotic fervor.

(iv) Give two reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan by the Congress. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Widespread communal violence across the country made partition seem the only way to avoid civil war.
2. The Interim Government was dysfunctional due to the constant obstruction by Muslim League ministers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Congress accepted partition as a painful necessity.
b) A truncated India was preferred over a total descent into chaos.

(v) Mention any two methods of the Assertive Nationalists. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Swadeshi (promoting indigenous goods) and Boycott of foreign goods.
2. Promotion of National Education and Passive Resistance.

Teacher's Note:
a) Assertive (Radical) leaders adopted aggressive and direct action methods.
b) They aimed for 'Swaraj' through self-reliance and agitation.

(vi) Mention any two objectives of the League of Nations. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain international peace and security.
2. To promote international cooperation in economic and social spheres and disarmament.

Teacher's Note:
a) Formed after WWI, the League aimed to prevent future global conflicts.
b) Collective security was its foundational principle.

(vii) Name the two alliances formed in Europe before the beginning of the First World War. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Triple Alliance (Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy)
2. The Triple Entente (Britain, France, and Russia)

Teacher's Note:
a) Alliance systems divided Europe into two armed camps.
b) Precise naming of countries is essential for full marks.

PART II

SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section.

Question 3
The Union Legislature of India is not only the lawmaking body, but the center of all democratic political process. With reference to the Parliament, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three circumstances under which the Lok Sabha can make laws on a subject in the State list. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. During a National Emergency proclaimed under Article 352.
2. If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority declaring a State list subject to be of national importance (Article 249).
3. When two or more states pass a resolution requesting Parliament to make laws on a State list subject for them.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ordinarily, Parliament cannot legislate on subjects in the State List.
b) Article 249 and National Emergency are key constitutional provisions here.

(ii) Mention any three financial powers of the Union Parliament. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Passing the Annual Budget (financial statement) presented by the government.
2. Approval of supplementary grants and votes on account.
3. Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Parliament holds the ultimate purse strings of the nation.
b) Lok Sabha has overriding financial supremacy over Rajya Sabha.

(iii) The Speaker plays a key role in maintaining order and ensuring the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha. Mention any four functions of the Speaker to support this statement. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha and maintains order and decorum during debates.
2. Decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or an ordinary Bill.
3. Allocates time for discussion and decides the admissibility of questions and motions.
4. Votes only in the case of a tie (casting vote) to break deadlocks.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Speaker represents the dignity and authority of the House.
b) The Speaker must act impartially regardless of party affiliation.

Question 4
The President is the nominal head of the executive, the first citizen of the country, as well as the commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed Forces. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three qualifications required for a person to be nominated to the post of the President. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Must be a citizen of India.
2. Must have completed 35 years of age.
3. Must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha and hold no office of profit under the government.

Teacher's Note:
a) These qualifications are laid down under Article 58.
b) Students must mention the age limit and citizenship clearly.

(ii) Mention any three discretionary powers of the President. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Appointment of the Prime Minister when no single party secures a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.
2. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers when it loses the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
3. Seeking information from the Prime Minister regarding administrative and legislative proposals.

Teacher's Note:
a) Discretionary powers are exercised without ministerial aid and advice.
b) These powers are critical during hung parliaments.

(iii) Describe the procedure of impeachment of the President. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Impeachment can be initiated in either House of Parliament for violation of the Constitution.
2. A resolution must be signed by at least one-fourth of the total members of that House, giving 14 days' advance notice.
3. The resolution must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total membership of the House.
4. The other House investigates the charges; if sustained and passed by a two-thirds majority there too, the President stands removed.

Teacher's Note:
a) Impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure.
b) Emphasise the two-thirds majority requirement in both houses.

Question 5
The Supreme Court of India is the supreme judicial authority and the highest court of the Republic of India. It is the final court of appeal for all civil and criminal cases . With reference to the Supreme Court, answer the following questions:

(i) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? Mention any two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
2. Must have been a judge of a High Court for at least 5 years, or an advocate of a High Court for 10 years, or a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.

Teacher's Note:
a) Appointment is made in consultation with the collegium of Supreme Court judges.
b) Citizenship of India and upper age limits are also implied rules.

(ii) Explain the term Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court with any two examples. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Original jurisdiction means the power of the Supreme Court to hear certain disputes directly in the first instance, without an appeal.
2. Example 1: Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
3. Example 2: Disputes between two or more States.

Teacher's Note:
a) Federal disputes fall exclusively under original jurisdiction.
b) Clear examples ensure full marks.

(iii) Name any four writs issued by the Supreme Court. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Habeas Corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Prohibition
4. Quo-Warranto (or Certiorari)

Teacher's Note:
a) Writs are issued under Article 32 for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
b) Students must spell the Latin writ names correctly.

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section.

Question 6
The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was a major uprising against the rule of the British East India Company, which functioned as a sovereign power on behalf of the British Crown. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three administrative changes made in India as a consequence of the Revolt. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Government of India was transferred from the East India Company directly to the British Crown (Queen Victoria's Proclamation of 1858).
2. The office of the Secretary of State for India was created in London, assisted by a 15-member India Council.
3. The Governor-General was given the additional title of Viceroy, acting as the direct representative of the Crown.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Act for the Better Government of India, 1858 brought these changes.
b) Company rule officially ended in India.

(ii) How did the failure of this Revolt impact the Mughals and the Peshwas? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Mughal dynasty was formally ended, with Bahadur Shah Zafar exiled to Rangoon.
2. The office of the Peshwa was abolished, ending the Maratha regency line.
3. Nana Saheb, the adopted son of the last Peshwa, fled to Nepal.

Teacher's Note:
a) This extinguished the symbols of past native imperial authority.
b) British power became unchallenged across India.

(iii) Mention any four changes made in the army after the Revolt. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The proportion of European soldiers to Indian soldiers was increased to prevent future mutinies.
2. Strategic military positions and artillery units were placed exclusively under European control.
3. Recruitment policy shifted towards martial races (like Sikhs, Gurkhas, and Pathans) while reducing Awadh sepoys.
4. Soldiers were discouraged from communal mixing; separate regiments based on caste and religion were created (divide and rule).

Teacher's Note:
a) The Peel Commission recommended these military reorganisations.
b) The army was re-engineered to be fiercely loyal to the British Crown.

Question 7
Nationalism refers to the feeling of oneness that emerges when people consider themselves as one nation. With reference to the growth of nationalism, answer the following:

(i) Name the founder of the Indian National Congress. Mention any two of its objectives. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Founded by Allan Octavian Hume (A.O. Hume) in 1885.
2. Objective 1: To promote friendly relations among nationalist political workers from different parts of the country.
3. Objective 2: To formulate popular demands and present them before the government.

Teacher's Note:
a) W.C. Bonnerjee was the first president of the INC.
b) Early objectives reflected Moderate political methods.

(ii) How did the press contribute to the growth of nationalism? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Newspapers like 'Amrita Bazar Patrika' and 'Kesari' exposed British exploitative economic and social policies.
2. Promoted national unity by facilitating exchange of ideas and political awareness across distant regions.
3. Criticised unjust laws and inspired Indians with ideals of liberty and self-government.

Teacher's Note:
a) The press acted as the mouthpiece of the national movement.
b) Vernacular papers played a crucial role in reaching the masses.

(iii) Mention any four repressive policies of Lord Lytton. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Enactment of the Vernacular Press Act (1878) to censor Indian language newspapers.
2. Passing of the Arms Act (1878), making it illegal for Indians to keep arms without a license.
3. Lowering the maximum age limit for the Indian Civil Service (ICS) examination from 21 to 19 years.
4. Holding the extravagant Delhi Durbar in 1877 while millions suffered from severe famine.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lord Lytton's reactionary policies alienated Indians and spurred nationalism.
b) These formed the backdrop for the formation of the INC.

Question 8
Read the excerpt given below and answer the questions that follow
The movement had generated worldwide publicity, and British were looking for a way to end it. Gandhiji was released from custody in January 1931, and the two men began negotiating the terms of the pact. For many conservatives in England, the meetings and talks seemed unacceptable. They thought it was inappropriate for the Viceroy, who was the representative of the British Monarch, to receive their arch-enemy. Gandhiji was authorised by the then President of the Congress, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel, to negotiate with the Viceroy. He advised the nation to wait, watch, pray and hope for a better prospect for India. He was full of admiration for the people, their heroic struggle and hard suffering.
Source: The Hindu

(i) Who was the Viceroy who negotiated with Gandhiji? Name any two causes of the movement being discussed above. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Lord Irwin was the Viceroy who negotiated with Gandhiji.
2. Cause 1: Imposition of the Salt Tax and British monopoly over salt production.
3. Cause 2: Failure of the British government to accept the Nehru Report recommendations for Dominion Status.

Teacher's Note:
a) The excerpt refers to the Civil Disobedience Movement and the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
b) The Salt March was the symbolic launch of this movement.

(ii) Mention any three impacts of this movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It shook the foundations of British rule and demonstrated the mass appeal of nationalism.
2. Women participated in large numbers for the first time, picketing liquor shops and foreign cloth stores.
3. It attracted international attention and sympathy towards India's freedom struggle.

Teacher's Note:
a) Civil Disobedience widened the social base of the freedom struggle.
b) Mass participation was a hallmark of Gandhian movements.

(iii) As a consequence of this meeting, a pact was signed. Mention any four conditions that the Congress and the British Government agreed to according to this pact. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The government agreed to release all political prisoners not convicted of violence.
2. Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement.
3. Congress agreed to participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London.
4. The government permitted people living near coasts to manufacture salt for personal use.

Teacher's Note:
a) This pact is known as the Delhi Pact or the Gandhi-Irwin Pact (1931).
b) Students must list both concessions made by Gandhi and those by the British.

Question 9
Look at the picture given and answer the following questions:

[Figure: Adolf Hitler giving the Nazi salute in front of a building adorned with swastika flags]

(i) Identify the leader in the above picture. Mention any two of his ideologies. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Adolf Hitler.
2. Ideology 1: Belief in the racial supremacy of the Aryan race.
3. Ideology 2: Extreme aggressive nationalism and rejection of the Treaty of Versailles.

Teacher's Note:
a) Hitler led the Nazi party in Germany.
b) Nazism propagated totalitarianism and anti-Semitism.

(ii) Mention any three causes for his rise to power. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Discontent with the humiliating Treaty of Versailles and the economic ruin caused by the Great Depression.
2. Fear of communism and the rise of the working class, leading industrialists to back Hitler.
3. Hitler's exceptional oratorical skills and charismatic leadership.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Weimar Republic's political instability facilitated Hitler's rise.
b) He was appointed Chancellor in January 1933.

(iii) What was the immediate cause of the Second World War? Mention any three reasons given by this leader to justify his action. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Immediate Cause: German invasion of Poland on September 1, 1939.
2. Reason 1: To reclaim the Polish Corridor and the free port of Danzig.
3. Reason 2: To undo the 'unjust' territorial mutilations imposed by the Treaty of Versailles.
4. Reason 3: To secure 'Lebensraum' (living space) for the expansion of the German master race.

Teacher's Note:
a) Britain and France declared war on Germany following the invasion of Poland.
b) Hitler's aggressive expansionist policies made war inevitable.

Question 10
The United Nations Organisation aims to maintain international peace. With reference to its organs and agencies, answer the following:

(i) What is the composition of the International Court of Justice? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It consists of 15 judges.
2. Judges are elected jointly by the UN General Assembly and the Security Council.
3. They serve a term of 9 years and are eligible for re-election.

Teacher's Note:
a) The ICJ is located at The Hague in the Netherlands.
b) No two judges can be nationals of the same country.

(ii) Mention any three functions of the Security Council. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain international peace and security in accordance with UN principles.
2. To investigate international disputes or situations that might lead to friction.
3. To recommend methods of peaceful settlement or apply economic and military sanctions against aggressor states.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Security Council is the primary executive organ of the UN.
b) Permanent members possess veto power.

(iii) Give the full form of UNICEF. Mention any three of its functions. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Full form: United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (now United Nations Children's Fund).
2. Function 1: Providing emergency food, nutrition, and healthcare to children in developing countries.
3. Function 2: Promoting child welfare, maternal health, and primary education.
4. Function 3: Assisting governments in planning and executing child-centric development programmes during emergencies and natural disasters.

Teacher's Note:
a) UNICEF works globally for the rights and well-being of children.
b) Accurate full form is mandatory for marks.