ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2024 with Solutions

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

PART - I (30 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Part.

Q1. Select the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the questions. Write the correct answer only.)

1.1. The salaries and allowances of the ministers are decided by the ______.
1. Parliament
2. Finance Minister
3. President
4. Prime Minister

Answer: (1) Parliament

Teacher's Note:
a) The Constitution vests the power to determine the salaries, allowances, and privileges of ministers in the Parliament.
b) Students often confuse this power with the executive discretion of the Prime Minister or President.

1.2. Civil Cases : Court of District Judge :: Criminal Cases : ______
1. Revenue Court
2. Family Court
3. Sessions Court
4. Commissioner's Court

Answer: (3) Sessions Court

Teacher's Note:
a) At the district level, civil disputes are handled by the District Judge's Court, while criminal cases are tried in the Sessions Court.
b) Remember that the same presiding judicial officer often functions as both District and Sessions Judge depending on the nature of the case.

1.3. The Lok Adalat has many advantages. Which of the following statements about the advantages of the Lok Adalat is best described in the picture given above?
1. It is inexpensive.
2. It is organised in various parts of the country.
3. It works in the spirit of compromise.
4. It reduces the burden of the higher courts.

[Figure: Cartoon showing two figures shaking hands in mutual agreement and reconciliation]

Answer: (3) It works in the spirit of compromise.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lok Adalats promote amicable settlements through compromise and mutual consent rather than formal adversarial litigation.
b) Carefully observe pictorial cues in source-based questions to link visual actions with core legal principles.

1.4. Given below are details of Indian citizens. Select the ones who are eligible for appointment as a High Court Judge:

1. P and R
2. Q and S
3. R and P
4. Q and R

Answer: (2) Q and S

Teacher's Note:
a) A High Court judge must be a citizen of India, under 62 years of age, and have held judicial office for 10 years or practiced as a High Court advocate for 10 years.
b) Candidate P exceeds the age limit and Candidate R lacks the required 10 years of advocacy experience.

1.5. The strength of the house is 550. On a particular day, 50 members are present. The speaker decides to adjourn the house. Identify the MOST LIKELY reason for the adjournment.
1. Disorder in the house
2. Lack of quorum
3. Breach of privilege
4. Contempt of the House

Answer: (2) Lack of quorum

Teacher's Note:
a) The quorum to transact business in either House of Parliament is one-tenth (10%) of the total members, which is 55 for a house of 550.
b) Since only 50 members are present, the House lacks a quorum, forcing the Speaker to suspend proceedings.

1.6. During a hung assembly when no party gets the majority, the President appoints the Prime Minister. What power is the President exercising?
1. Legislative
2. Executive
3. Discretionary
4. Judicial

Answer: (3) Discretionary

Teacher's Note:
a) Discretionary powers are exercised by the President independently without ministerial advice when no clear majority emerges in Parliament.
b) Students must distinguish between normal executive powers and constitutional discretion during political uncertainty.

1.7. Read the two statements given below and select the option that shows the correct relationship between (A) and (R):
Assertion (A): Forward Bloc had the objective of abolishing Zamindari System.
Reason (R): Subhash Chandra Bose wanted to establish a socialist state.
1. A is true but R is false.
2. R is the reason for A.
3. Both A and R are false.
4. Only R is true, A is false.

Answer: (2) R is the reason for A.

Teacher's Note:
a) Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Forward Bloc with leftist and socialist ideals, aiming to eliminate feudal exploitation like the Zamindari system.
b) Verify that the reason logically explains the ideological foundation behind the assertion.

1.8. The ______ aimed to introduce equality between British and Indian Judges.
1. Vernacular Press Act
2. Gagging Act
3. Indian Universities Act
4. Ilbert Bill

Answer: (4) Ilbert Bill

Teacher's Note:
a) Introduced in 1883 by Sir C.P. Ilbert, the bill sought to allow Indian magistrates to try European offenders in criminal sessions.
b) Opposition from the European community led to a compromised bill, highlighting racial discrimination under colonial rule.

1.9. The Rowlatt Act was called the Black Act because the Indians ______.
1. could not possess any arms
2. could not export any goods
3. could be arrested without a warrant
4. could be sent overseas on duty

Answer: (3) could be arrested without a warrant

Teacher's Note:
a) The Rowlatt Act suspended habeas corpus and empowered police to detain suspects without trial or warrant.
b) This repressive measure violated fundamental civil liberties and united Indians in widespread protests.

1.10. Who organised the Grand Delhi Durbar?
1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Canning
3. Lord Lytton
4. Lord Dalhousie

Answer: (3) Lord Lytton

Teacher's Note:
a) Lord Lytton organized the lavish Delhi Durbar in 1877 while millions suffered from famine, causing deep public resentment.
b) Do not confuse Lord Lytton's Durbar with the 1911 Delhi Durbar organized during Lord Hardinge's tenure.

1.11. Tina is inspired by the methods of the Early Nationalists and wants to follow them. She notices that the road leading to her school is damaged and has many potholes. Which of the following methods is she MOST LIKELY to follow to solve this problem?
1. Boycott the civic authorities
2. Gather a group of students and protest
3. Write a petition to the authorities highlighting the problem
4. Block the entrance to the road

Answer: (3) Write a petition to the authorities highlighting the problem

Teacher's Note:
a) Early Nationalists relied on constitutional methods like petitions, prayers, and appeals to seek redressal of grievances.
b) Direct action and agitations were characteristic of Assertive Nationalists rather than the Moderates.

1.12. Given below are the objectives of the Indian National Army. Identify the odd one out of the following:
1. To organise a provisional government of Free India
2. Total mobilisation of Indian manpower and money
3. Unity, faith and sacrifice
4. To train and organise public opinion in the country

Answer: (4) To train and organise public opinion in the country

Teacher's Note:
a) Organizing public opinion was an objective of political bodies like the early Congress, whereas INA focused on armed struggle and mobilization for liberation.
b) Read all options carefully to distinguish between moderate political methods and military-nationalist objectives.

1.13. Tahir is preparing to give a speech about the Sati system in India. Which of the following Indian leader's contributions MUST he mention in his speech?
1. Raja Rammohan Roy
2. W. C. Banerjee
3. Bipin Chandra Pal
4. Jyotiba Phule

Answer: (1) Raja Rammohan Roy

Teacher's Note:
a) Raja Rammohan Roy campaigned relentlessly against Sati, leading to its formal abolition by Lord William Bentick in 1829.
b) He is rightly regarded as the pioneer of modern Indian social reform movements.

1.14. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the Second World War?
1. Austria and Hungary became separate states
2. Defeat of the Axis powers
3. Beginning of the Cold War
4. Formation of the United Nations

Answer: (1) Austria and Hungary became separate states

Teacher's Note:
a) The division of the Austro-Hungarian Empire into separate states was a direct consequence of the First World War and the Treaty of St. Germain.
b) The other three options are major geopolitical outcomes resulting from the conclusion of World War II.

1.15. Identify the principle of panchsheel.
1. Mutual non-aggression
2. Regulate armaments
3. Take action against aggressor
4. Recommend admission of members

Answer: (1) Mutual non-aggression

Teacher's Note:
a) Panchsheel comprises five principles of peaceful coexistence, including mutual respect, non-aggression, and non-interference.
b) These principles were agreed upon between India and China in 1954 to guide international relations.

1.16. Which incident depicted in the above cartoon led to the beginning of the Second World War?
1. Hitler's policy of Imperialism
2. Hitler's attack on Poland
3. Hitler's annexation of Austria
4. Hitler's attack on Czechoslovakia

[Figure: Political cartoon showing Hitler holding a globe labeled DANZIG with aggressive posture]

Answer: (2) Hitler's attack on Poland

Teacher's Note:
a) The dispute over the Danzig Corridor led to the German invasion of Poland on September 1, 1939, triggering World War II.
b) Visual source questions require connecting historical symbols (like Danzig) to immediate causes of global conflicts.

Q2.

2.1. Mention any two writs issued by the High Court. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Writ of Habeas Corpus.
2. Writ of Prohibition.

Teacher's Note:
a) High Courts issue writs under Article 226 for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and other legal purposes.
b) Students can also mention Mandamus, Quo-Warranto, or Certiorari as valid alternatives.

2.2. Imagine you are an Indian ruler who has signed the Subsidiary Alliance. Mention any two conditions of this agreement which will affect you. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The ruler had to maintain a British contingent within their territory and pay for its maintenance.
2. The ruler could not employ any European in their service without prior permission of the Company.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Subsidiary Alliance effectively stripped Indian rulers of their independent military and foreign policy powers.
b) Failure to pay the subsidiary subsidy often resulted in annexation of territory by the British.

2.3. Mention any two causes of the Quit India Movement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The failure of the Cripps Mission, which left Indians disillusioned with British sincerity regarding self-government.
2. Fear of Japanese invasion and anger over wartime hardships such as severe shortages of essential commodities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Gandhiji gave the call for 'Do or Die' as British refusal to grant immediate independence created intense nationwide frustration.
b) Ensure both political and economic factors are highlighted when asked about causes.

2.4. (a) In which year did the Surat Split happen? [1 Mark]

Answer: The Surat Split occurred in 1907.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Congress session at Surat witnessed a formal ideological break between Early Nationalists and Assertive Nationalists.
b) State the exact year clearly without ambiguity.

2.4. (b) What was the result of the Surat split? [1 Mark]

Answer: The Indian National Congress was divided into two factions, namely the Moderates and the Radicals (Assertive Nationalists), significantly weakening the national movement for a period.

Teacher's Note:
a) This split allowed the British government to pursue a policy of repression followed by conciliation.
b) The two factions reunited later at the Lucknow Session in 1916.

2.5. Mention any two common ideologies of Fascism and Nazism. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Both ideologies advocated totalitarian state control over all aspects of public and private life.
2. Both were fiercely anti-communist and opposed democratic parliamentary systems.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany shared aggressive nationalism and dictatorial leadership cults.
b) Mentioning suppression of opposition adds completeness to the answer.

2.6. Name the two cities of Japan which were bombed by America in the year 1945. [2 Marks]

Answer: The two Japanese cities bombed by America in August 1945 were Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

Teacher's Note:
a) The atomic bombing of these cities led to the unconditional surrender of Japan and ended World War II.
b) Spelling of both city names must be accurate.

2.7. Read the given news carefully and answer the question that follows:
Govt's power to promulgate, repromulgate Ordinances - why and how
An Ordinance "shall have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament". But the government is required to bring an Ordinance before Parliament for ratification - and failure to do so will lead to its lapsing "at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament".
(Source: The Indian Express - May 25, 2023)
Mention any two points regarding an ordinance that can be deduced from the above news. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. An ordinance holds the same legal force and effect as an Act passed by Parliament.
2. An ordinance lapses automatically if not approved by Parliament within six weeks from its reassembly.

Teacher's Note:
a) Source-based questions require precise extraction of facts directly presented in the provided excerpt.
b) Students should avoid adding outside historical knowledge unless explicitly instructed.

PART - II SECTION - A (20 Marks)

Attempt any two questions from this Section.

Q3.

3.1. The Union Parliament is the supreme legislative body in the country. With reference to the Indian Parliament answer the following question:
The Rajya Sabha is called a Permanent House. Explain this statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution like the Lok Sabha.
2. One-third of its members retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill those vacant seats.
3. This continuous rotation ensures the permanent functioning of the upper house.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that individual members have a fixed tenure of six years, but the house itself never dissolves.
b) Contrast this clearly with the five-year tenure and dissolution provision of the Lok Sabha.

3.2. Explain the composition of the Rajya Sabha. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength of 250 members.
2. Out of these, 238 members represent the States and Union Territories, elected indirectly.
3. The remaining 12 members are nominated by the President from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.

Teacher's Note:
a) State both the maximum strength and the breakdown between elected and nominated members.
b) Mention the specific fields of distinction for nominated members to score full marks.

3.3. (a) Mention any two exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
2. A vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers can only be moved and passed in the Lok Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Financial supremacy rests with the Lok Sabha as it represents the direct electorate.
b) Mentioning control over the executive via no-confidence motions highlights its political significance.

3.3. (b) Mention any two powers exclusive to the Rajya Sabha. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rajya Sabha can declare a subject of the State List to be of national importance by a two-thirds majority, enabling Parliament to legislate on it.
2. It can pass a resolution empowering Parliament to create one or more All India Services common to the Union and States.

Teacher's Note:
a) These exclusive federal powers protect the rights of states in the bicameral legislature.
b) Quote the two-thirds majority requirement accurately for full credit.

Q4.

4.1. The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister is the most powerful institution in the Indian polity. In this context, answer the following:
Distinguish between the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet. [3 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Tabular distinction is the best way to answer comparison questions clearly.
b) Highlight size, composition, and policy-making authority as key differentiating points.

4.2. (a) Who appoints the Cabinet Ministers? [1 Mark]

Answer: The President appoints Cabinet Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

Teacher's Note:
a) Formal appointment is done by the President, but real selection authority rests with the Prime Minister.
b) Keep the answer concise and precise.

4.2. (b) Mention any two administrative powers of the Cabinet. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Cabinet formulates major domestic and foreign policies of the government.
2. It coordinates the functioning of various government departments to ensure smooth implementation of policies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Administrative powers involve policy formulation and executive coordination across ministries.
b) Distinguish these clearly from legislative and financial powers.

4.3. The President is the nominal head of the Indian Union. Mention any four functions of the Prime Minister with reference to the President. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Prime Minister is the principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers.
2. He advises the President on the appointment of ministers and allocation of portfolios.
3. He recommends dates for summoning and proroguing of Parliament sessions to the President.
4. He advises the President on key appointments such as judges, governors, and ambassadors.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Prime Minister acts as the vital link connecting the executive head with the legislature and cabinet.
b) State all four distinct advisory roles clearly with proper keywords.

Q5.

5.1. (a) What is the composition of the Supreme Court? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and a specified number of other judges.
2. The Parliament determines the strength of judges by law (currently comprising a Chief Justice and up to 33 other judges).

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention both the Chief Justice and the strength of other judges.
b) Note that Parliament holds the authority to increase the number of judges.

5.1. (b) Why is the Supreme Court called the Court of Record? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Its judgments and proceedings are preserved as permanent records for historical and legal reference.
2. These recorded precedents can be cited in all subordinate courts across the country during legal arguments.

Teacher's Note:
a) A Court of Record also possesses the inherent power to punish for its contempt.
b) Both evidentiary value and binding nature of precedents are essential points.

5.2. Explain the power of Judicial Review. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders.
2. If any law violates the provisions of the Constitution or infringes upon Fundamental Rights, the Supreme Court can declare it null and void.
3. This power ensures the supremacy of the Constitution and protects citizens' rights against legislative overreach.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judicial review acts as a crucial check and balance in India's federal democratic framework.
b) Emphasize unconstitutionality and violation of Fundamental Rights as grounds for review.

5.3. (a) What is meant by the term 'Original Jurisdiction'? [1 Mark]

Answer: Original jurisdiction refers to the power of the Supreme Court to hear certain types of disputes directly in the first instance without requiring an appeal from a lower court.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that cases under original jurisdiction are filed directly in the Supreme Court.
b) Keep the definition precise.

5.3. (b) Mention any three cases which come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. Disputes between two or more States.
3. Disputes concerning the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Teacher's Note:
a) Federal disputes involving centre-state or inter-state issues fall exclusively under original jurisdiction.
b) List at least three distinct categories for full marks.

PART - II SECTION - B (30 Marks)

Attempt any three questions from this Section.

Q6.

6.1. The Revolt of 1857 was the beginning of the independence struggle against the colonial rule of the British. With reference to the consequences of the Revolt, answer the following:
Mention any three changes made in the administration with the end of the Company's Rule. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The governance of India was transferred from the East India Company directly to the British Crown.
2. The post of Governor-General was designated as the Viceroy of India, acting as the Crown's direct representative.
3. A Secretary of State for India was appointed in London, assisted by a 15-member India Council, to oversee Indian administration.

Teacher's Note:
a) This marked the formal beginning of direct British imperial rule in India.
b) Ensure all administrative shifts—Crown, Viceroy, and Secretary of State—are clearly stated.

6.2. Mention any four changes made in the army after the Revolt. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The proportion of European troops to Indian soldiers was substantially increased.
2. Strategic and vital military positions, including artillery units, were placed exclusively in the hands of European soldiers.
3. Recruitment was reorganized on the basis of caste, region, and religion to prevent nationalist unity.
4. Newspapers and nationalist publications were banned from military barracks to isolate soldiers from political agitation.

Teacher's Note:
a) The British adopted the 'divide and rule' policy rigorously within the armed forces after 1857.
b) Listing four distinct structural changes ensures maximum marks.

Q7.

7.1. (a) Who was responsible for the partition of Bengal? [1 Mark]

Answer: Lord Curzon, the Viceroy of India, was responsible for the partition of Bengal in 1905.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the name of the Viceroy and the year clearly.
b) Do not confuse Lord Curzon with other Viceroys.

7.1. (b) Mention any two points to explain the perspective of the Nationalists regarding the actual motive behind the decision of partition. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Nationalists believed it was a deliberate attempt to cripple the nerve center of Indian nationalism.
2. It was seen as a malicious 'divide and rule' policy to foster communal friction between Hindus and Muslims.

Teacher's Note:
a) The British claimed administrative convenience, but nationalists rightly saw it as political suppression.
b) Mentioning suppression of nationalism and communal division covers all expected value points.

7.2. (a) What was the objective of the Assertive Nationalists? [1 Mark]

Answer: The primary objective of the Assertive Nationalists was the attainment of Poorna Swaraj or Complete Independence.

Teacher's Note:
a) Unlike Early Nationalists who sought administrative reforms, Assertive Nationalists demanded complete freedom.
b) Mentioning 'Poorna Swaraj' is essential.

7.2. (b) Mention any two contributions of Bal Gangadhar Tilak. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. He transformed the anti-partition agitation into a mass movement by popularizing the use of Swadeshi and Boycott.
2. He founded the Home Rule League in Maharashtra in 1916 to agitate for self-government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tilak popularized the famous slogan 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it'.
b) Mentioning his role in Swadeshi or Home Rule demonstrates clear historical understanding.

7.3. (a) In which year was the Muslim League formed? [1 Mark]

Answer: The All India Muslim League was formed in 1906.

Teacher's Note:
a) The League was established in Dacca under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah.
b) Keep the answer concise.

7.3. (b) Mention any three objectives of the Muslim League. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To promote feelings of loyalty among Indian Muslims towards the British Government.
2. To protect and advance the political and other rights of Muslims in India.
3. To prevent the rise of hostility between Muslims and other communities in the country.

Teacher's Note:
a) The initial objectives focused on loyalty to the Crown and safeguarding minority rights.
b) List three points clearly as requested by the marks allocation.

Q8.

8.1. (a) Look at the picture given and answer the following question:
Name the Viceroy who announced the plan for a smooth transfer of power. [1 Mark]

[Figure: Front page newspaper clipping from The Times of India announcing the Mountbatten Plan and Indian independence]

Answer: Lord Mountbatten announced the plan for transfer of power.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lord Mountbatten arrived as Viceroy in 1947 specifically to oversee the partition and independence of India.
b) Link the newspaper headline visual directly with Mountbatten's Plan.

8.1. (b) Mention any two clauses of the Mountbatten Plan with reference to the Princely States. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Paramountcy of the British Crown over Princely States lapsed.
2. Princely States were given the freedom to join either India or Pakistan, or remain independent.

Teacher's Note:
a) This clause created massive challenges for the integration of states handled later by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
b) Ensure both lapsing of paramountcy and option to join dominions are mentioned.

8.2. Mention any three reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan by the Congress. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Widespread communal riots across the country convinced Congress leaders that partition was the only practical way to avoid civil war.
2. Experience in the Interim Government proved that sharing power with the Muslim League was unworkable.
3. A smaller, united India with a strong central authority was preferable to a larger federation crippled by a weak centre and perpetual paralysis.

Teacher's Note:
a) Congress accepted partition reluctantly as a lesser of two evils.
b) Highlight communal violence and unworkability of coalition governance as primary reasons.

8.3. Mention any four provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. British India was partitioned into two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, effective August 15, 1947.
2. The office of the Secretary of State for India was abolished.
3. The Constituent Assemblies of both dominions were empowered to frame their respective constitutions and act as legislatures.
4. Princely States were freed from all treaty relations with the British Crown.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Act formally implemented the Mountbatten Plan into British statute law.
b) List four clear provisions without omitting key terms.

Q9.

9.1. Read the passage and answer the following question:
The final act of the long-drawn-out negotiations took place at Versailles on Saturday afternoon and to-day Germany and the Allies - always with the exception of America - are at peace. Peace is a blessed word and both the word and the fact are welcome to-day. So far as Germany is concerned, there is for the present, an end of strife and at least a formal return to the decent relations of civilised states.
(Source: Editorial - Peace in force, 12 January 1920, The Guardian)
Mention any three causes of the World War which ended with the signing of the treaty being discussed in the passage above. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Aggressive nationalism and intense imperialist rivalry among European powers.
2. Secret alliances and the division of Europe into two hostile armed camps.
3. The intense armaments race, particularly naval competition between Germany and Britain.

Teacher's Note:
a) The passage refers to the Treaty of Versailles ending World War I.
b) Connect passage context (Versailles Treaty) to underlying causes of World War I.

9.2. (a) Name the organization which was established in 1920 to maintain peace after this war. [1 Mark]

Answer: The League of Nations was established in 1920 to maintain international peace.

Teacher's Note:
a) Proposed by U.S. President Woodrow Wilson, the League was created as part of the post-WWI peace settlement.
b) Keep the name exact.

9.2. (b) Mention any two objectives of the League of Nations. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To preserve international peace and security.
2. To promote international cooperation and peaceful settlement of disputes.

Teacher's Note:
a) The League aimed to prevent future global conflicts through collective security.
b) State two clear aims for full marks.

9.3. Mention any four clauses of the Treaty which affected Germany. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Germany was declared solely guilty for starting the war and forced to accept full war guilt.
2. It was ordered to pay a massive war indemnity of 6.5 billion pounds to the Allies.
3. Its military strength was severely restricted, limiting the army to 100,000 men and abolishing submarines and air force.
4. Alsace-Lorraine was returned to France, and the rich coal-mining Saar Valley was placed under League administration for 15 years.

Teacher's Note:
a) The harsh terms of the Versailles Treaty created deep resentment in Germany, sowing seeds for World War II.
b) Listing war guilt, financial reparations, military restrictions, and territorial losses covers all key points.

Q10.

10.1. Explain any three functions of the Security Council. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain international peace and security in accordance with the principles of the United Nations.
2. To investigate any dispute or situation that might lead to international friction or conflict.
3. To recommend peaceful methods for settling disputes or apply economic and military sanctions against aggressor nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Security Council is the principal executive body of the UN.
b) Mentioning investigation, peaceful settlement, and enforcement actions ensures full credit.

10.2. Mention any three functions of the World Health Organisation (WHO). [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To help countries improve their public health systems and medical infrastructure.
2. To launch global campaigns for the prevention and eradication of major communicable and epidemic diseases.
3. To set international standards for the purity of food, biological, and pharmaceutical products.

Teacher's Note:
a) WHO functions as the directing and coordinating authority on international health within the UN.
b) Highlight disease eradication and health standards as core functions.

10.3. (a) Name any two founders of the Non-Aligned Movement. [1 Mark]

Answer: Two prominent founders of the Non-Aligned Movement were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (India) and Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia).

Teacher's Note:
a) NAM was founded in 1961 at the Belgrade Conference.
b) Mentioning leaders like Nasser, Tito, or Nehru is acceptable.

10.3. (b) State the three basic objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain national independence, sovereignty, and territorial integrity of member states.
2. To oppose colonialism, imperialism, and racial discrimination.
3. To stay out of military alliances led by superpowers and promote global peace and disarmament.

Teacher's Note:
a) NAM allowed newly independent nations to pursue independent foreign policies during the Cold War.
b) List three clear objectives reflecting anti-colonialism, sovereign independence, and neutrality.