ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2026 with Solutions

ICSE Class 10 History And Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

PART I (30 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this Part.)

Question 1
Select the correct answers to the questions from the given options.
(Do not copy the questions, write the correct answer only.) [16]

(i) Choose the correct option to replace the underlined word: [1 Mark]
The collection of State Revenue falls under the Consultative Jurisdiction of the High Court.
(A) Advisory
(B) Revisory
(C) Original
(D) Appellate

Answer: (B) Revisory

The High Court has powers of revision over subordinate courts regarding cases involving the collection of state revenue or interpretation of laws related to revenue.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students often confuse revisory jurisdiction with original or appellate jurisdiction; revisory powers allow the High Court to correct errors of jurisdiction subordinate to it.
b) Pay close attention to underlined keywords in such assertion-based MCQs.

(ii) Which session of the Parliament is most associated with this picture? [1 Mark]
[Figure: A coin with the Rupee symbol wearing a top hat and holding bundles of cash in both hands]
(A) Budget Session
(B) Summer Session
(C) Winter Session
(D) Monsoon Session

Answer: (A) Budget Session

The budget session is the financial session of the Parliament where the Annual Financial Statement (Budget) is presented and discussed.

Teacher's Note:
a) Visual interpretation questions require linking symbols like currency and finance directly to the Budget Session.
b) Remember that the Budget Session is the longest and most important session of the Indian Parliament.

(iii) Given below are the details of a few Indian Citizens. [1 Mark]

Select the one who is eligible to be a Vice President.
(A) X
(B) W
(C) Y
(D) Z

Answer: (D) Z

The minimum age requirement for election as Vice President of India is 35 years. Person Z is 69 years old, making him eligible, whereas W, X, and Y are below 35 years of age.

Teacher'sNote:
a) Qualifications for Vice President include being a citizen of India, not less than 35 years of age, and qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
b) Always check age eligibility criteria carefully before selecting an option in qualification-based tabular questions.

(iv) The rule mentioned in the headline below can be proclaimed in a state on the recommendation of ___________. [1 Mark]
[Figure: Newspaper clipping titled "INDIAN EXPRESS" with headline "Punjab is in for President's rule"]
(A) The President
(B) The Vice President
(C) The Governor
(D) The Chief Justice of India

Answer: (C) The Governor

President's Rule (Article 356) is proclaimed by the President on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State or otherwise.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Governor acts as the vital link and reports to the President when the constitutional machinery in a state breaks down.
b) Do not confuse the proclaiming authority (President) with the recommending or reporting authority (Governor).

(v) Mr. Anand has been illegally detained by the police, and his family has not been able to meet him. The family members have approached the High Court for help. Which writ will the court issue in this case? [1 Mark]
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Quo Warranto
(C) Mandamus
(D) Certiorari

Answer: (A) Habeas Corpus

Habeas Corpus literally means "to have the body of" and is issued to secure the release of a person who has been detained unlawfully or illegally.

Teacher's Note:
a) Habeas Corpus is a powerful safeguard against arbitrary police or state detention.
b) Memorize the specific definitions and literal meanings of all five writs for objective and subjective questions.

(vi) Identify the correct statements about the Lok Sabha. [1 Mark]
P. Has no nominated members.
Q. Term can be extended during emergency.
R. Has two members nominated by the President.
S. Can be dissolved by the Speaker.
(A) P and Q
(B) R and S
(C) Q and R
(D) P and S

Answer: (A) P and Q

Following the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, Anglo-Indian reserved seats were abolished, leaving Lok Sabha with no nominated members (P is correct). Its normal term can be extended by law of Parliament for up to one year at a time during a national emergency (Q is correct).

Teacher's Note:
a) Statement R is incorrect because Anglo-Indian nomination has ended, and Statement S is incorrect because the Lok Sabha is dissolved by the President, not the Speaker.
b) Keep yourself updated with recent constitutional amendments regarding nominated seats in legislatures.

(vii) Assertion (A): Hitler attacked Poland to capture the Danzing Port. [1 Mark]
Reason (R): Poland was accused of committing atrocities against the Germans.
(A) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(B) (A) is false and (R) is true.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Hitler attacked Poland to regain the Danzig corridor and port, using the pretext that ethnic Germans living in Poland were facing atrocities and persecution.

Teacher's Note:
a) The invasion of Poland on September 1, 1939, marked the immediate trigger for World War II.
b) Understand the distinction between actual expansionist motives and diplomatic pretexts used by dictators.

(viii) Identify the option which shows the correct chronology of the following events: [1 Mark]
1. The Lucknow Pact
2. The Surat Split
3. The establishment of the Muslim League
(A) 1-2-3
(B) 1-3-2
(C) 3-2-1
(D) 2-1-3

Answer: (C) 3-2-1

Establishment of the Muslim League occurred in 1906, the Surat Split happened in 1907, and the Lucknow Pact was signed in 1916.

Teacher's Note:
a) Chronological order questions require precise year recall: Muslim League (1906) < Surat Split (1907) < Lucknow Pact (1916).
b) Practice timelines of Indian National Movement milestones extensively.

(ix) Identify the odd one out of the following signatories of the Triple Entente. [1 Mark]
(A) France
(B) Russia
(C) Japan
(D) England

Answer: (C) Japan

The Triple Entente consisted of France, Russia, and Great Britain (England). Japan was not a member of the Triple Entente.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish clearly between the Triple Alliance (Germany, Austria-Hungary, Italy) and the Triple Entente (Britain, France, Russia).
b) Read alliance names carefully to avoid confusion with allied powers of later conflicts.

(x) In the town of Sundar Nagar, the local government decided to cut down a large number of trees to build a shopping mall. The children were upset because the trees provided a place to play. A group of school students, decided to take action based on the lesson they had studied about the Early Nationalists. Which of the following actions are they NOT likely to adopt? [1 Mark]
(A) Hold placards with the message 'Save Our Trees'.
(B) Write letters to the local newspapers expressing their concerns.
(C) Plant saplings to show their commitment to the environment.
(D) Forcibly prevent workers sent by the Government.

Answer: (D) Forcibly prevent workers sent by the Government.

Early Nationalists believed in constitutional and peaceful methods such as petitions, prayers, and public meetings, and strictly avoided violent or forcible obstruction.

Teacher's Note:
a) Methods of Early Nationalists included constitutional agitation within the law, peaceful persuasion, and press appeals.
b) Forcible prevention of workers constitutes radical or assertive action, which contradicts early nationalist philosophy.

(xi) Under which policy of expansion was the place marked in the map annexed by the British? [1 Mark]
[Figure: Outline map of India highlighting Awadh region in black]
(A) The Doctrine of Lapse
(B) The Subsidiary Alliance
(C) Pretext of misgovernance
(D) Outright wars

Answer: (C) Pretext of misgovernance

Awadh was annexed by Lord Dalhousie in 1856 on the pretext of alleged misgovernance by Nawab Wajid Ali Shah.

Teacher's Note:
a) Awadh's annexation under the pretext of maladministration deeply alienated the sepoys and nobility, fueling the 1857 Revolt.
b) Map-based historical identification questions test regional annexation policies precisely.

(xii) Identify the correct pair of words from the given options: [1 Mark]
(A) Doctrine of Lapse - Lord Canning
(B) Subsidiary Alliance - Lord Wellesley
(C) Arms Act - Lord Curzon
(D) Vernacular Press Act - Lord Dalhousie

Answer: (B) Subsidiary Alliance - Lord Wellesley

Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance system. The Doctrine of Lapse was associated with Lord Dalhousie, the Vernacular Press Act with Lord Lytton, and the Arms Act with Lord Lytton.

Teacher's Note:
a) Matching governors-general with their specific policies is a standard testing area in modern Indian history.
b) Double-check every pairing to eliminate common distractor Governor-Generals.

(xiii) Which of the following is NOT a consequence of the Second World War? [1 Mark]
(A) Cold War
(B) Defeat of the Axis Powers
(C) Formation of the United Nations
(D) Formation of the League of Nations

Answer: (D) Formation of the League of Nations

The League of Nations was formed after the First World War (1920), not the Second World War. The United Nations was formed after the Second World War.

Teacher's Note:
a) The failure of the League of Nations led to the creation of the United Nations Organization (UN) in 1945.
b) Read negative qualifiers like NOT very carefully in exam questions.

(xiv) Read the description and choose the correct option: [1 Mark]
He was an Early Nationalist leader who presided over the second session of the Indian National Congress.
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Bipin Chandra Pal
(D) Lokmanya Tilak

Answer: (A) Dadabhai Naoroji

Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India, presided over the second session of the INC held in Calcutta in 1886.

Teacher's Note:
a) Key INC sessions and their presidents are frequently tested factual data.
b) Remember that Dadabhai Naoroji was a prominent Early Nationalist leader and economist.

(xv) Which organ of the United Nations Organisation gives this special power to its permanent members? [1 Mark]
[Figure: Cartoon of a person standing at a podium marked "UNITED STATES", holding a paper flying away, with a sign overhead saying "I VETO"]
(A) The General Assembly
(B) The International Court of Justice
(C) The Security Council
(D) The Trusteeship Council

Answer: (C) The Security Council

The veto power is exercised by the permanent members of the UN Security Council.

Teacher's Note:
a) The veto power belongs exclusively to the five permanent members of the Security Council (USA, UK, France, Russia, China).
b) Visual political cartoons effectively test institutional powers and functions.

(xvi) The International Court of Justice has _________ judges. [1 Mark]
(A) 15
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 5

Answer: (A) 15

The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is composed of 15 judges elected for terms of office of nine years by the UN General Assembly and the Security Council.

Teacher's Note:
a) ICJ judges are elected from different nations to ensure global representation.
b) Memorize composition numbers and terms for all major UN organs.

Question 2

(i) Mention any two reasons for the indirect election of the President. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Since the President is only a constitutional head with nominal executive powers, direct election involving enormous expenditure and administrative machinery would be unnecessary.
2. Indirect election prevents conflict between the Prime Minister (who commands a direct mandate in the Lok Sabha) and the President, thereby avoiding a potential clash of authority.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain that direct election would give the President competing authority with the Cabinet, violating the parliamentary system.
b) Mention the economic and administrative burden as a secondary reason.

(ii) Imagine you were part of the Indian National Army. Mention any two objectives of the army. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To organize an armed revolution and overthrow British rule in India.
2. To secure Indian independence with the help of foreign powers (such as Japan) and through the armed forces.

Teacher's Note:
a) The INA (Azad Hind Fauj) aimed at liberating India through military action.
b) Mentioning the slogan "Chalo Delhi" or the goal of armed struggle fetches full credit.

(iii) Look at the picture given and answer the question that follow: [2 Marks]
[Figure: Map showing partition of Bengal highlighting regions of Bengal, Eastern Bengal, and Assam]
In which year did this Partition happen? Who was responsible for this Partition?

Answer:
1. Year: 1905.
2. Responsible official: Lord Curzon (Viceroy of India).

Teacher's Note:
a) The Partition of Bengal was officially announced and implemented in 1905 under the pretext of administrative efficiency, though its real motive was to curb nationalism.
b) Ensure both the year and the correct name of the Viceroy are explicitly stated.

(iv) Mention any two objectives of the Muslim League. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To promote among Indian Muslims feelings of loyalty to the British Government and remove any misunderstanding regarding government intentions.
2. To protect and advance the political rights and interests of Muslims in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The All-India Muslim League was founded in Dacca in 1906.
b) Highlighting loyalty to the British and safeguarding Muslim political interests are the core objectives.

(v) UNESCO provides protection for great cultural institutions. Mention any two ways in which it works towards the preservation of cultural heritage. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. By identifying, protecting, and preserving cultural and natural heritage sites of outstanding universal value through the World Heritage List.
2. By providing financial assistance, expert advice, and emergency support for the restoration of damaged historical monuments and monuments in danger.

Teacher's Note:
a) UNESCO plays a pivotal global role in heritage conservation.
b) Mentioning World Heritage sites and financial/technical assistance forms the ideal answer.

(vi) Mention any two causes for the Second World War. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The humiliating and harsh terms of the Treaty of Versailles imposed on Germany after the First World War.
2. The rise of aggressive fascism and totalitarian dictatorships in Germany (Hitler) and Italy (Mussolini), coupled with their policy of aggressive expansionism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other valid causes include the failure of the League of Nations and the policy of appeasement.
b) State causes clearly with precise historical examples.

(vii) President Ramnath Kovind promulgates an Ordinance which will legally allow the farmers to sell their produce without restrictions across the country. - The Times of India, 5th June 2020 [2 Marks]
When can the President introduce an Ordinance? When does an Ordinance become inoperative?

Answer:
1. The President can promulgate an Ordinance when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and the President is satisfied that immediate action is necessary.
2. An Ordinance becomes inoperative upon the expiry of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament, or if disapproved earlier by both Houses, or if replaced by an act.

Teacher's Note:
a) Under Article 123, the President exercises ordinance-making power during the recess of Parliament.
b) Emphasize the six-week reassembly deadline for validity.

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A (20 Marks)

(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 3
The Union Parliament comprises the President and the two houses. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three powers which are common to both the houses of the Parliament. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Legislative Powers: Ordinary bills must be passed by both Houses before being presented to the President for assent.
2. Constitutional Amendment Powers: Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha must pass constitutional amendment bills by a special majority.
3. Electoral Powers: Both Houses participate in the election of the President and Vice President of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Common powers refer to areas where both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha share equal legislative or constitutional authority.
b) Financial powers and motions of no-confidence are exclusive to Lok Sabha and must not be written here.

(ii) Who elects the members of the Rajya Sabha? Mention any two exclusive powers to analyse the advantages of the Rajya Sabha. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Election: Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (MLAs) using the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
2. Exclusive Power 1: It can empower Parliament to make laws on a matter enumerated in the State List by passing a resolution supported by a two-thirds majority (Article 249).
3. Exclusive Power 2: It can recommend the creation of new All-India Services common to the Union and the States (Article 312).

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that Rajya Sabha members represent the states of the federal union.
b) Articles 249 and 312 represent classic exclusive federal powers of the Upper House.

(iii) The Parliament controls the functioning of the Executive. Mention any four ways in which it exercises control. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Question Hour: Members ask questions to ministers regarding government policies and administration, holding them accountable.
2. Adjournment Motion: It is moved to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance, leading to censure of the government.
3. No-Confidence Motion: If passed by the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers must resign collectively.
4. Cut Motions: Members can move cut motions to reduce budgetary allocations, reflecting dissatisfaction with government policies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Parliamentary control ensures the executive remains responsible to the legislature in a parliamentary democracy.
b) Give clear headings for each control mechanism (e.g., Question Hour, No-Confidence Motion) to score full marks.

Question 4
The Prime Minister is the executive head of the country. With reference to the Prime Minister and his Cabinet, answer the following questions:

(i) On whose advice are the Cabinet Ministers appointed? Name the other two categories of the Council of Ministers. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Cabinet ministers and other ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
2. Other two categories of the Council of Ministers:
- Ministers of State
- Deputy Ministers

Teacher's Note:
a) The Prime Minister is the pivot around whom the entire Council of Ministers revolves.
b) Clearly list the three tiers: Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers.

(ii) What is meant by the term collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Collective responsibility means that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha for all acts and policies of the government.
2. They swim and sink together, implying that a vote of no-confidence against one minister or a policy failure results in the resignation of the entire ministry.
3. Ministers must defend government policies publicly, even if they had internal differences during cabinet discussions.

Teacher's Note:
a) This is a cornerstone principle of parliamentary democracy.
b) Ensure keywords like "swim and sink together" and "responsible to Lok Sabha" are included.

(iii) The Prime Minister is central to the life of the Cabinet. Justify this statement by mentioning any four powers of the Prime Minister with reference to the Cabinet. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Formation of the Cabinet: The Prime Minister decides who will be ministers and allocates portfolios among them.
2. Head of the Cabinet: The Prime Minister summons and presides over cabinet meetings and determines the agenda.
3. Coordinator and Supervisor: The Prime Minister supervises the work of different ministries and resolves inter-departmental disputes.
4. Power of Dismissal: The Prime Minister can ask any minister to resign or advise the President to dismiss them.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Prime Minister is described as "primus inter pares" (first among equals) and the Keystone of the Cabinet arch.
b) State distinct cabinet-related powers rather than general executive powers.

Question 5
The single integrated system of judiciary has the Supreme Court at the apex. With reference to the Supreme Court, answer the following questions:

(i) What is the term of the Supreme Court Judge? Mention any two qualifications required for a person to be a Supreme Court Judge. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Term of Office: A Supreme Court judge holds office until they attain the age of 65 years.
2. Qualification 1: Must be a citizen of India.
3. Qualification 2: Must have been a judge of a High Court (or two or more such Courts in succession) for at least 5 years OR an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years OR a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judges can also resign earlier by writing to the President or be removed through impeachment.
b) State qualifications precisely with exact years (5 years High Court judge or 10 years advocate).

(ii) Mention any three ways in which the Constitution ensures the independence of the Judiciary. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Security of Tenure: Judges cannot be removed easily except through a rigorous impeachment process by Parliament for proved misbehavior or incapacity.
2. Salaries and Allowances: Salaries, allowances, and pensions of judges are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India and cannot be varied to their disadvantage during their term.
3. Prohibition on Practice: Once retired, Supreme Court judges are barred from practicing law in any court or before any authority in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judicial independence is vital to uphold the rule of law and protect fundamental rights.
b) Highlight financial security and tenure protection as key pillars of independence.

(iii) Explain the following terms: [4 Marks]
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction
(b) Judicial Review

Answer:
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction: Under Article 143, the President can refer any question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its opinion and advice, though such advice is not binding on the President.
(b) Judicial Review: It is the power of the Supreme Court and High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both central and state governments, and declare them null and void if they violate the Constitution.

Teacher's Note:
a) Advisory jurisdiction is consultative; the Supreme Court gives its opinion, but the President is not bound to follow it.
b) Judicial review acts as a crucial check on the legislature and executive to prevent violation of fundamental rights or constitutional provisions.

SECTION B (30 Marks)

(Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Question 6
The 1857 Revolt is also referred to as the Sepoy Mutiny by the British. With reference to the role played by the soldiers, answer the following questions:

(i) What was the General Service Enlistment Act? Why were soldiers unhappy with it? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. General Service Enlistment Act (1856): Passed by Lord Canning, it required Indian recruits to serve wherever required by the British government, including overseas service.
2. Cause of unhappiness: Crossing the sea (Kala Pani) was taboo according to orthodox Hindu beliefs, and soldiers feared loss of caste and religion upon undertaking sea voyages.

Teacher's Note:
a) Religious sentiments played a major role in alienating Hindu sepoys in the Bengal army.
b) Clearly distinguish the Act's mandate from the cultural beliefs of the sepoys.

(ii) How did the introduction of the new Enfield Rifle become an immediate cause of the revolt? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Enfield rifle introduced greased cartridges that had to be bitten off before loading into the rifle.
2. Rumors spread that the grease was made from the fat of cows (sacred to Hindus) and pigs (abhorred by Muslims).
3. This deeply offended the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim sepoys, leading to widespread outrage and mutiny.

Teacher's Note:
a) The cartridge issue served as the immediate spark that ignited pent-up grievances.
b) Mention both cow and pig fat rumors to provide a complete explanation.

(iii) The British reformed the army after the revolt ended. Mention any four changes made in the army. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ratio of European to Indian troops was increased (kept 1:2 in Bengal and 2:5 in Bombay and Madras) to prevent future rebellions.
2. Strategic and vital military positions (like artillery and arsenals) were placed exclusively in the hands of European soldiers.
3. The army was organized on the policy of "divide and rule" by recruiting soldiers from diverse castes, regions, and communities (e.g., Sikhs, Gurkhas) to prevent unity.
4. Regiments were mixed with different castes and communities so that national feeling would not develop among sepoys.

Teacher's Note:
a) Post-1857 military reorganization was aimed at ensuring absolute British dominance and preventing another mutiny.
b) Highlight the increase in European troops and the divide-and-rule policy clearly.

Question 7
Mahatma Gandhi with his principle of Non-violence, changed the direction of the freedom movement. With reference to the Gandhian Movements, answer the following:

(i) Who launched the Khilafat Movement in India? Mention two other causes of the Non-Cooperation Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Launched by: Ali Brothers (Maulana Mohammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali), Maulana Azad, and Hakim Ajmal Khan.
2. Cause 1: Dissatisfaction with the Government of India Act 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms), which failed to grant self-government (Swaraj).
3. Cause 2: Economic distress, inflation, high taxation, and heavy burden on the masses following World War I.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Khilafat movement merged with the Non-Cooperation movement, showcasing Hindu-Muslim unity.
b) Mention the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre as other prominent causes if applicable.

(ii) Mention any three points to analyse the impact of the Non-Cooperation Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It transformed the national movement into a mass movement by drawing in peasants, workers, students, and women across India.
2. It promoted indigenous industries and Swadeshi while encouraging the boycott of British goods, schools, courts, and foreign cloth.
3. It instilled immense self-confidence and fearlessness among Indians, making them challenge British authority openly through non-violent means.

Teacher's Note:
a) Non-Cooperation made nationalism a truly mass-based phenomenon rather than an elitist affair.
b) Focus on mass participation, promotion of Swadeshi, and psychological impact.

(iii) Mention any four clauses of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Government agreed to immediately release all political prisoners who were not convicted of violence.
2. The Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference.
3. The Government agreed to withdraw all ordinances issued to curb the Congress and restore confiscated properties.
4. People living in coastal areas were permitted to manufacture salt for personal consumption without tax.

Teacher's Note:
a) Signed in March 1931, the Gandhi-Irwin Pact paved the way for Congress participation in the Round Table Conference.
b) List specific points like release of prisoners, suspension of CDM, and salt manufacture.

Question 8
Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

India's last Viceroy released a plan on the country's independence from the British on June 3, 1947. The plan came to be celebrated as the 'last plan for independence'. He was appointed Viceroy of India to speed up the process of transfer of power by the then British Prime Minister Clement Attlee.

(i) Identify the Viceroy. Mention any two terms of his plan with reference to the Princely States. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Viceroy: Lord Mountbatten.
2. Term 1: Princely states would be free to choose whether to accede to India or Pakistan, or remain independent (though encouraged to join either dominion).
3. Term 2: Paramountcy of the British Crown over Princely states would lapse, and treaties with them would come to an end.

Teacher's Note:
a) The June 3 Plan is also known as the Mountbatten Plan.
b) State clearly that paramountcy lapsed, allowing states to make their sovereign choice of accession.

(ii) Mention any three reasons given by the Congress to justify the acceptance of the plan. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Large-scale communal riots and violence across the country made partition seem inevitable to stop bloodshed.
2. Acceptance of partition prevented further Balkanization and fragmentation of India into multiple independent principalities.
3. A smaller, united India could be governed effectively and rapidly led towards economic and social progress without Muslim League obstructionism in the interim government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Congress accepted partition with deep sorrow as a practical necessity to restore peace.
b) Highlight communal violence and administrative viability as core justifications.

(iii) Mention any four provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. India was partitioned into two independent dominions: India and Pakistan, effective from August 15, 1947.
2. The office of the Viceroy was abolished, and a Governor-General was to be appointed for each dominion.
3. The Constituent Assemblies of both dominions were empowered to frame their respective constitutions and act as sovereign legislative bodies.
4. British suzerainty and paramountcy over princely states lapsed with effect from August 15, 1947.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Indian Independence Act gave legal effect to the Mountbatten Plan.
b) Ensure key points like creation of two dominions, lapse of paramountcy, and sovereign constituent assemblies are included.

Question 9
Look at the picture given and answer the following questions:

[Figure: Newspaper clipping headlined "GERMANY DECLARES WAR; ALL EUROPE IS IN ARMS"]

(i) Explain the immediate cause of the war associated with this headline. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The immediate cause of the First World War was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand (heir to the Austro-Hungarian throne) and his wife by a Serbian nationalist in Sarajevo on June 28, 1914.
2. Austria-Hungary held Serbia responsible and served an ultimatum with harsh conditions.
3. When Serbia rejected some terms, Austria-Hungary declared war on Serbia on July 28, 1914, triggering the system of secret alliances and leading to a world war.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sarajevo assassination is the textbook immediate trigger for World War I.
b) Trace the chain reaction from Austria's declaration to the activation of alliances.

(ii) According to the Treaty of Versailles, mention the following: [3 Marks]
(a) The war reparation to be paid by Germany.
(b) Two ways in which France benefitted from the Treaty.

Answer:
(a) Germany was burdened with massive war reparations amounting to 33 billion dollars to compensate Allied powers for losses.
(b) France benefited in the following ways:
1. France recovered the lost provinces of Alsace and Lorraine from Germany.
2. France was given ownership of the rich coal mines in the Saar basin for 15 years.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Treaty of Versailles imposed humiliating terms on Germany, laying the groundwork for World War II.
b) Clearly distinguish reparations from territorial gains like Alsace-Lorraine.

(iii) Name the two dictators who rose in Europe after this war. Mention any two common causes for the rise of dictatorship. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dictators: Benito Mussolini (Italy) and Adolf Hitler (Germany).
2. Common Cause 1: Discontent and humiliation caused by the Treaty of Versailles (especially in Germany and Italy, which felt cheated despite victory or defeat).
3. Common Cause 2: Economic crises, massive unemployment, poverty, and failure of democratic governments to solve post-war economic problems.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany emerged as a direct response to post-war instability.
b) Mention economic distress and treaty humiliation as primary catalysts.

Question 10
The United Nations Organisation and the Non-Aligned Movement emerged after the Second World War. With reference to these, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three objectives of the United Nations Organisation. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain international peace and security and take collective measures to prevent and remove threats to peace.
2. To develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples.
3. To achieve international cooperation in solving international economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian problems and promoting human rights.

Teacher's Note:
a) UN objectives form the core mandate outlined in the UN Charter.
b) Focus on peace, friendly relations, and global cooperation.

(ii) The General Assembly is the deliberative organ of the United Nations. Mention any three functions of the General Assembly to analyse this statement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Deliberation and Recommendation: Discussing any questions or matters within the scope of the UN Charter and making recommendations to member states or the Security Council.
2. Budgetary Powers: Considering and approving the budget of the United Nations and apportioning financial contributions among member states.
3. Elective Functions: Electing non-permanent members of the Security Council, members of the Economic and Social Council, and (jointly with the Security Council) the judges of the International Court of Justice.

Teacher's Note:
a) The General Assembly is often called the 'world parliament' due to universal representation.
b) List distinct functions covering debate, budget, and elections.

(iii) With reference to the Non-Aligned Movement, mention: [4 Marks]
(a) any two architects
(b) any two objectives

Answer:
(a) Two Architects of NAM:
1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (India)
2. Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia) *(Note: Other architects include Gamal Abdel Nasser, Sukarno, and Kwame Nkrumah)*
(b) Two Objectives of NAM:
1. To maintain national independence, sovereignty, and territorial integrity of member states.
2. To stay away from military alliances (such as NATO and Warsaw Pact) and pursue independent foreign policies during the Cold War.

Teacher's Note:
a) NAM was founded during the Cold War to provide a 'third force' for newly decolonized nations.
b) Mentioning any two founding leaders and core anti-bloc objectives satisfies full criteria.