ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2023 with Solutions

ISC Class 10 History And Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

PART I (30 Marks)

Question 1

Select the correct answers to the questions from the given options. [16 Marks]

(i) An ordinance has to be approved by the Parliament within __________ weeks. [1 Mark]
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Six
(D) Eight

Answer: (C) Six

An ordinance promulgated by the President must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of its re-assembly.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember that the maximum gap between two sessions of Parliament cannot exceed six months, which is why the ordinance timeframe is linked to six weeks.
b) Students often confuse this with the duration of ordinary bills; be precise with parliamentary timelines.

(ii) The junior category of ministers who assist senior ministers: [1 Mark]
(A) Cabinet Ministers
(B) Ministers of State
(C) Deputy Ministers
(D) Council of Ministers

Answer: (C) Deputy Ministers

Deputy Ministers are junior ministers whose primary role is to assist Cabinet Ministers or Ministers of State in their administrative and parliamentary duties.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Council of Ministers consists of three categories: Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers.
b) Do not confuse Deputy Ministers with Ministers of State who hold independent charge of ministries.

(iii) A major natural calamity has taken place and the opposition wants the house to lay aside all other business and take up this matter of urgent importance.
Which motion should the house move to allow this? [1 Mark]
(A) Adjournment Motion
(B) No-confidence Motion
(C) Confidence Motion
(D) Censure Motion

Answer: (A) Adjournment Motion

An adjournment motion is introduced to draw the attention of the House to a recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.

Teacher's Note:
a) Adjournment motions are considered an extraordinary procedure as they interrupt the normal business of the House.
b) A No-confidence motion leads to the fall of the government if passed, whereas an Adjournment motion is primarily a censure on a specific issue.

(iv) When the Supreme Court reviews any judgement made by it to remove an error, it falls under __________ jurisdiction. [1 Mark]
(A) Advisory
(B) Revisory
(C) Original
(D) Appellate

Answer: (B) Revisory

Under its revisory jurisdiction, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgement or order made by it to correct any patent error.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Supreme Court is not bound by its earlier decision and can review it under Article 137 of the Constitution.
b) Ensure you distinguish clearly between Appellate, Advisory, and Revisory jurisdictions of the Supreme Court.

(v) The __________ has the power to summon the Houses of Parliament. [1 Mark]
(A) Speaker
(B) President
(C) Vice President
(D) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (B) President

The President has the power to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit.

Teacher's Note:
a) Summoning, proroguing, and dissolving Lok Sabha are executive powers exercised by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
b) Students frequently confuse the power to summon with the power to preside over the House, which belongs to the Speaker/Chairman.

(vi) Court of District Judge : Civil Cases : : Sessions Court : __________ Cases [1 Mark]
(A) Advisory
(B) Criminal
(C) Constitutional
(D) Appellate

Answer: (B) Criminal

A Sessions Court deals with criminal cases at the district level, just as a District Judge deals with civil cases.

Teacher's Note:
a) The same judicial officer often presides over both civil cases (as District Judge) and criminal cases (as Sessions Judge).
b) Always read the analogy carefully to establish the correct functional parallel.

(vii) Formation of Congress : 1885 : : Formation of Muslim League : __________ [1 Mark]
(A) 1905
(B) 1906
(C) 1907
(D) 1908

Answer: (B) 1906

The Muslim League was founded in December 1906 at Dacca by Aga Khan, Nawab Salimullah of Dacca, and others.

Teacher's Note:
a) Association of years with major historical bodies and events is crucial for chronological questions.
b) Do not confuse 1906 (formation of Muslim League) with 1905 (Partition of Bengal).

(viii) The plan of Partition of Bengal was proposed by ___________. [1 Mark]
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Ripon

Answer: (C) Lord Curzon

Lord Curzon proposed and executed the Partition of Bengal in 1905, officially citing administrative efficiency as the reason.

Teacher's Note:
a) The real motive behind the Partition of Bengal was to crush the rising nationalist movement in Bengal.
b) Memorize the Viceroys associated with key events in the Indian National Movement.

(ix) People protested against the ___________ because it had seven British members and no Indian representation. [1 Mark]
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Lucknow Pact
(C) Ilbert Bill
(D) Cabinet Mission

Answer: (A) Simon Commission

The Indian Statutory Commission, known as the Simon Commission, was boycotted by Indians because all seven of its members were British, insulting India's capacity for self-rule.

Teacher's Note:
a) The slogan "Simon Go Back" became the rallying cry during widespread protests across India in 1928.
b) Note that the complete exclusion of Indians led to the unanimous decision by political parties to boycott the commission.

(x) The main objective of the Assertive Nationalists was ___________. [1 Mark]
(A) Constitutional agitation
(B) Peaceful protests
(C) Purna Swaraj
(D) Self-government under British Rule

Answer: (C) Purna Swaraj
(Note: The official marking scheme accepts Swaraj / complete independence as the goal, distinguishing them from Early Nationalists who sought self-government within the British Empire.)

Teacher's Note:
a) Assertive (or Radical) Nationalists demanded immediate and complete Swaraj through aggressive resistance.
b) Early Nationalists focused on colonial self-government through constitutional methods.

(xi) Identify the Early Nationalist leader. [1 Mark]
(A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Jyotiba Phule
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a prominent Early Nationalist (Moderate) leader who founded the Servants of India Society.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bipin Chandra Pal and Bal Gangadhar Tilak were prominent Assertive Nationalists, part of the famous Lal-Bal-Pal trio.
b) Categorizing leaders correctly into Early and Assertive nationalists is a frequent board exam requirement.

(xii) The Lucknow Pact was signed between ___________. [1 Mark]
(A) The British and the Congress
(B) The Congress and the Muslim League
(C) The Early and the Assertive Nationalists
(D) The Muslim League and the British

Answer: (B) The Congress and the Muslim League

The Lucknow Pact of 1916 was an agreement reached between the Indian National Congress and the All-India Muslim League.

Teacher's Note:
a) This pact marked a temporary unity between Hindus and Muslims and also united the Moderates and Radicals within the Congress.
b) Pay close attention to the signatories of major historical pacts.

(xiii) ___________ was one of the causes of the Quit India Movement. [1 Mark]
(A) Failure of the Second Round Table Conference
(B) Rowlatt Act
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) Failure of the Cripps Mission

Answer: (D) Failure of the Cripps Mission

The failure of the Cripps Mission in 1942 disillusioned Indians and directly led Mahatma Gandhi to launch the Quit India Movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sir Stafford Cripps offered dominion status after the war, which was rejected by Gandhi as a "post-dated cheque on a crashing bank".
b) Connect chronological cause-and-effect relationships accurately in modern Indian history.

(xiv) The International Court of Justice has ___________ judges. [1 Mark]
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 15

Answer: (D) 15

The International Court of Justice (ICJ), the principal judicial organ of the UN, is composed of 15 judges elected for nine-year terms.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judges are elected by the UN General Assembly and the Security Council voting independently.
b) Do not confuse the number of judges in the ICJ with the permanent or total members of the Security Council.

(xv) Which of these leaders was an architect of the Non-Aligned Movement? [1 Mark]
(A) Joseph Stalin
(B) Abdel Nasser
(C) Winston Churchill
(D) Franklin Roosevelt

Answer: (B) Abdel Nasser

Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt, along with leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru (India), Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia), Sukarno (Indonesia), and Kwame Nkrumah (Ghana), founded the Non-Aligned Movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Non-Aligned Movement aimed to keep developing nations neutral during the Cold War superpower rivalry.
b) Memorize the founding fathers of NAM for objective questions.

(xvi) The immediate cause of the First World War was ___________. [1 Mark]
(A) Imperialism
(B) Alliance System
(C) Sarajevo Crisis
(D) Arms Race

Answer: (C) Sarajevo Crisis

The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria and his wife in Sarajevo on June 28, 1914, served as the immediate trigger for the First World War.

Teacher's Note:
a) Imperialism, secret alliances, and militarism were the long-term underlying causes, whereas Sarajevo was the immediate spark.
b) Distinguish clearly between underlying causes and immediate triggers in world history questions.

Question 2

(i) Mention any two ways in which the Constitution ensures the independence of the Judiciary from the Executive. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Security of tenure: Judges cannot be removed easily before retirement age except through a rigorous impeachment process by Parliament.
2. Salaries and allowances charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and cannot be voted upon by Parliament.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judicial independence is a cornerstone of a democratic constitution ensuring impartial justice.
b) Mentioning prohibition of practice after retirement or security of service fetch full credit.

(ii) State any two legislative powers of the Cabinet. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Formulation of Legislative Proposals: The Cabinet decides legislative policies and drafts all major government bills to be introduced in Parliament.
2. Summoning of Parliament: The Cabinet advises the President on summoning, proroguing, and dissolving Parliament.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Cabinet plays a dominant role in law-making because the ruling party holds a majority in Parliament.
b) Ensure you distinguish executive law-making (ordinances) from the general introduction of bills.

(iii) Mention any two repressive policies of Lord Lytton. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Vernacular Press Act (1878): Imposed severe restrictions on vernacular newspapers to suppress criticism of British policies.
2. Arms Act (1878): Made it illegal for Indians to keep or carry arms without a license, while exempting Europeans.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lord Lytton's reactionary policies alienated Indians and deeply catalyzed national awakening.
b) Another valid point is the lowering of the age limit for the Indian Civil Service exam from 21 to 19 years.

(iv) Give two reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan by the Congress. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The continuous communal riots and bloodshed made partition seem the only practical way to restore peace.
2. The Interim Government was unworkable as the Muslim League obstructed all administrative and policy decisions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Congress accepted partition with heavy hearts to avoid total anarchy and civil war in the country.
b) Mentioning that the principle of Pakistan was inevitable to stop daily violence is a key marking point.

(v) State any two objectives of the Muslim League. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To promote among Indian Muslims feelings of loyalty to the British Government.
2. To protect and advance the political rights and interests of Muslims in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Founded in 1906, its early objectives centered on safeguarding Muslim interests against Hindu majority domination.
b) Ensure you write exact textbook statements to secure full marks.

(vi) Mention any two clauses of the Treaty of Versailles. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Germany was held solely responsible for causing all the loss and damage of the First World War (War Guilt Clause).
2. Germany was forced to pay massive war reparations amounting to billions of pounds.

Teacher's Note:
a) The harshness of the Treaty of Versailles planted the seeds of the Second World War.
b) Mentioning the reduction of the German army size is also an accepted valid point.

(vii) Name the two alliances formed in Europe before the beginning of the First World War. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Triple Alliance (Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy)
2. The Triple Entente (Britain, France, and Russia)

Teacher's Note:
a) Competitive alliance formation created a climate of fear and suspicion leading up to 1914.
b) Ensure you name all core members correctly to receive complete credit.

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A (20 Marks)
(Attempt any two questions from this Section.)

Question 3

The Union Legislature comprises the President and the two houses of the Parliament. With reference to the Parliament, answer the following questions:

(i) Mr. Raj wants to be a member of the Lok Sabha.
Mention any three qualifications required to contest elections for the Lok Sabha. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. He must be a citizen of India.
2. He must be not less than 25 years of age.
3. He must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by Parliament (and not hold any office of profit).

Teacher's Note:
a) Age criteria for Lok Sabha (25 years) and Rajya Sabha (30 years) must be clearly distinguished.
b) Being registered as a voter in any constituency in India is another essential qualification.

(ii) Mention any three legislative powers of the Union Parliament. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Law-making on Union List: Parliament has exclusive power to make laws on subjects enumerated in the Union List.
2. Law-making on Concurrent List: Both Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws on the Concurrent List, with Parliamentary law prevailing in case of conflict.
3. Ordinance approval: Parliament has the power to approve or disapprove ordinances promulgated by the President.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning residuary powers (laws on matters not enumerated in any list) is also a strong legislative power.
b) Keep legislative powers distinct from financial and executive controls.

(iii) The Parliament controls the Executive.
Mention any four ways in which it exercises its control. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Asking questions through Interpellations, such as Question Hour and Zero Hour, to hold ministers accountable.
2. Moving Adjournment Motions to discuss matters of urgent public importance.
3. Moving a No-Confidence Motion; if passed, the entire Council of Ministers must resign.
4. Cutting or reducing budgetary grants and rejecting financial bills during the budget session.

Teacher's Note:
a) Parliamentary control ensures that the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
b) Censure motions and adjournment motions are classic tools of executive accountability.

Question 4

The President is the head of the State and exercises his / her powers on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) What are the three types of emergencies that can be proclaimed by the President? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. National Emergency (Article 352) due to war, external aggression, or armed rebellion.
2. State Emergency / President's Rule (Article 356) due to the failure of constitutional machinery in a state.
3. Financial Emergency (Article 360) due to a threat to the financial stability or credit of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning the corresponding Articles adds academic depth to the answer.
b) Financial Emergency has never been proclaimed in India so far.

(ii) Mention any three legislative powers of the President. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Summoning and Proroguing: The President summons and prorogues the Houses of Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha.
2. Assent to Bills: No bill passed by Parliament can become a law without the assent of the President.
3. Promulgating Ordinances: The President can promulgate ordinances when Parliament is not in session under Article 123.

Teacher's Note:
a) The President also nominates members to both houses (e.g., Rajya Sabha members with special knowledge in literature, science, art, and social service).
b) Always differentiate between executive, legislative, and financial powers.

(iii) Give two reasons to justify the need for indirect election of the President.
What is the composition of the Electoral College which elects the President? [4 Marks]

Answer:
Reasons for indirect election:
1. Direct election would have created a rivalry between the Prime Minister (elected by people) and the President, leading to conflict over executive authority.
2. Since the President is only a constitutional/nominal head, a massive and expensive direct nationwide election would serve no practical purpose.

Composition of the Electoral College:
The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
1. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (and Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry).

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that nominated members of Parliament and State Legislative Councils do not vote in the presidential election.
b) This is a composite question; ensure you answer both parts to secure full marks.

Question 5

The Constitution of India provides for a High Court for each State. With reference to the High Courts and Subordinate Courts, answer the following questions:

(i) Who appoints the judges of the High Court?
Mention any two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a judge of a High Court. [3 Marks]

Answer:
Appointment:
The judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India (in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the State, and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court).

Qualifications:
1. Must be a citizen of India.
2. Must have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least 10 years, OR must have been an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years.

Teacher's Note:
a) Age limit for retirement of High Court judges is 62 years (unlike Supreme Court judges which is 65 years).
b) Make sure you list both appointment authority and two explicit qualifications.

(ii) Mention any three cases that come under the Original Jurisdiction of the High Court. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Disputes relating to fundamental rights (under Article 226).
2. Disputes arising out of maritime and admiralty cases, marriage, divorce, and company law.
3. Election petitions challenging the election of members of Parliament or State Legislative Assemblies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Original jurisdiction means cases that can be directly heard by the High Court in the first instance.
b) High Courts issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights under Article 226.

(iii) What are Lok Adalats?
Mention any three advantages of the Lok Adalats. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Meaning:
Lok Adalats (People's Courts) are alternative dispute resolution forums established to settle pending disputes amicably through compromise and mutual consent outside regular courts.

Advantages:
1. Speedy and inexpensive justice: They provide quick resolution without court fees or legal delays.
2. Reduction of backlog: They significantly reduce the heavy backlog of cases pending in regular courts.
3. Promotes harmony: Since decisions are based on compromise, both parties are satisfied and old enmities are ended.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lok Adalats derive statutory authority from the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
b) The award passed by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and is final and binding.

SECTION B (30 Marks)
(Attempt any three questions from this Section.)

Question 6

The Indian Nationalists described the Great Uprising of 1857 as the First War of Independence. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three policies used by the British to expand their political power in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Doctrine of Lapse: Annexation of states whose rulers died without a natural male heir (e.g., Satara, Jhansi).
2. Subsidiary Alliance: Forcing Indian rulers to maintain British troops and accept a British Resident at their court.
3. Outright Wars and Conquests: Annexing territories through direct military action (e.g., annexation of Punjab and Sindh).

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning "Pretext of Alleged Misrule" (annexation of Awadh) is also a valid expansion policy.
b) Keep the headings crisp and historically accurate.

(ii) The Revolt of 1857 is also known as the Sepoy Mutiny.
Mention any three military causes which led to the uprising. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Ill-treatment and discrimination: Indian soldiers were paid poorly compared to British soldiers and denied high military ranks.
2. General Service Enlistment Act (1856): Compelled new recruits to serve overseas, which violated religious taboos of the time.
3. Introduction of the Enfield rifle: The cartridges were greased with cow and pig fat, which deeply offended the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim soldiers.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Enfield rifle cartridge issue served as the immediate trigger for the military revolt.
b) Disproportionate ratio of Indian to British soldiers in the army also boosted sepoy confidence.

(iii) Mention any four economic causes of the Revolt. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Destruction of Indian handicrafts: Unfair British tariff policies ruined traditional Indian cottage industries and weavers.
2. Heavy land revenue demands: Excessive taxation impoverished peasants and forced them into the clutches of moneylenders.
3. Drain of wealth: Systematic transfer of India's wealth and resources to Britain without any adequate economic return.
4. Unemployment of traditional classes: Annexation of princely states deprived artists, artisans, and courtiers of their royal patronage.

Teacher's Note:
a) Economic exploitation affected every section of society, uniting peasants, artisans, and the middle class against British rule.
b) Make sure you list distinct economic factors rather than social or political ones.

Question 7

Look at the picture given below and answer the following questions:

[Figure: Mahatma Gandhi leading the Dandi March with followers walking behind him, holding walking sticks and wearing traditional attire.]

(i) Name the march being led by Gandhiji in the above picture.
Which movement did this march launch? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Name of the march: Dandi March (Salt March).
2. Movement launched: Civil Disobedience Movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Dandi March began from Sabarmati Ashram to the coast of Dandi to break the salt law.
b) Identifying visual sources correctly is a vital scoring skill in history exams.

(ii) What were the three causes of the Non-Cooperation Movement?
Name the incident which led to the suspension of this movement. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Causes of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
1. Khilafat Movement: Muslims were aggrieved by the harsh treatment meted out to the Caliph of Turkey by the British after World War I.
2. Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh Massacre: Brutal repression and unprovoked firing at Amritsar alienated Indians completely.
3. Economic hardship: Post-war inflation, high taxation, and poverty created extreme public discontent.

Incident leading to suspension:
The Chauri Chaura incident (February 5, 1922), where an angry mob set a police station on fire, killing 22 policemen.

Teacher's Note:
a) Gandhi believed in strict non-violence (Satyagraha) and suspended the movement immediately upon witnessing violence at Chauri Chaura.
b) Clearly segregate causes and the suspension incident to gain full marks.

(iii) Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin signed a pact in 1931.
Mention any two conditions that the Congress agreed to and two conditions that the British Government agreed to according to this pact. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Conditions agreed to by the Congress:
1. To suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement.
2. To participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London.

Conditions agreed to by the British Government:
1. To release all political prisoners not convicted of violence.
2. To permit the making of salt for personal consumption in coastal villages.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact is also known as the Delhi Pact.
b) Ensure you attribute terms accurately between Congress and the British Government.

Question 8

The heroism of the Indians was revealed by the courage of Subash Chandra Bose and the Indian National Army. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three objectives of the Forward Bloc. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Liberation of India with the support of the masses and complete independence from British rule.
2. Establishment of a socialist state after independence.
3. Reorganization of agriculture and industry on socialist lines.

Teacher's Note:
a) Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Forward Bloc in 1939 after resigning from the Congress presidency.
b) Mentioning radical restructuring of society adds high value.

(ii) Mention any three contributions of Subash Chandra Bose. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Revitalized the Indian National Congress as its President in 1938 and 1939 with a dynamic, forward-looking vision.
2. Founded the Forward Bloc to unite leftist and radical forces within the nationalist movement.
3. Reorganized the Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) and rallied thousands of troops with the battle cry "Chalo Delhi" and "Give me blood, and I shall give you freedom".

Teacher's Note:
a) Netaji's leadership of the INA brought a military dimension to the freedom struggle.
b) Keep points concise, distinct, and historically factual.

(iii) Who was the founder of the Indian National Army?
Mention any three of its objectives. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Founder:
Captain Mohan Singh (later revived and led by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose).

Objectives of the INA:
1. To organize an armed revolution and fight the British army for the independence of India.
2. To mobilize all Indian manpower and resources available in Southeast Asia.
3. To establish a provisional government of Free India to conduct the armed struggle.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning Mohan Singh as the original founder along with Rash Behari Bose's role is appreciated by examiners.
b) State the objectives clearly in bullet points.

Question 9

The world wars marked a turning point in the history of the world. With reference to this period, answer the following questions:

(i) Mention any three similarities between the ideologies of Fascism and Nazism. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Totalitarianism: Both ideologies believed in absolute state control over all aspects of public and private life.
2. Opposition to Democracy and Communism: Both strongly rejected democratic principles and communist ideologies.
3. Aggressive Imperialism and Militarism: Both glorified war, violence, and military expansion as instruments of national glory.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fascism (Italy under Mussolini) and Nazism (Germany under Hitler) shared core totalitarian philosophies.
b) Cult of personality and dictatorship of a single supreme leader (Duce/Fuhrer) were also shared features.

(ii) State the three consequences of the Second World War. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Defeat of the Axis Powers (Germany, Italy, and Japan) and division of Germany into occupation zones.
2. Formation of the United Nations Organisation (UNO) in 1945 to maintain international peace and security.
3. Rise of the Cold War and emergence of two global superpowers (USA and USSR), marking the decline of European colonial empires.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Second World War reshaped global geopolitics entirely.
b) Mentioning the dawn of the nuclear age (atomic bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki) is also an accepted consequence.

(iii) Mention any four causes of the Second World War. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Harsh terms of the Treaty of Versailles: Imposed humiliating conditions and crippling war indemnities on Germany, fostering a desire for revenge.
2. Rise of Fascism and Nazism: Aggressive dictatorial regimes in Italy and Germany pursued expansionist foreign policies.
3. Policy of Appeasement: Britain and France tolerated aggressive acts by Hitler (like the annexation of Austria and parts of Czechoslovakia) in hopes of avoiding war.
4. Japanese Aggression: Japan invaded Manchuria and China to expand its empire in Asia without facing effective opposition from the League of Nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Hitler's invasion of Poland on September 1, 1939, served as the immediate cause of the war.
b) Keep each cause distinct with proper historical background.

Question 10

The United Nations Organisation aims to maintain international peace. With reference to its organs and agencies, answer the following:

(i) What is the composition of the Security Council?
What is the term of the non-permanent members? [3 Marks]

Answer:
Composition:
The UN Security Council consists of 15 members: 5 permanent members (USA, UK, France, Russia, and China) and 10 non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly.

Term:
Non-permanent members are elected for a term of two years.

Teacher's Note:
a) The five permanent members possess veto power over substantive resolutions.
b) Ensure you mention both the total strength and the breakdown of permanent and non-permanent members.

(ii) Mention any three functions of the General Assembly. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Deliberative function: Discusses any question relating to international peace and security and makes recommendations.
2. Financial function: Considers and approves the budget of the United Nations and apportions financial contributions among member states.
3. Elective function: Elects non-permanent members of the Security Council, members of the Economic and Social Council, and appoints the UN Secretary-General on the recommendation of the Security Council.

Teacher's Note:
a) The General Assembly is often referred to as the Parliament of the World.
b) Keep functions structured clearly under thematic headings.

(iii) Give the full form of UNESCO.
Mention any three of its functions. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Full Form:
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

Functions:
1. Promotion of education: Eliminating illiteracy and promoting universal primary education across member nations.
2. Preservation of cultural heritage: Identifying, protecting, and preserving World Heritage sites and historical monuments globally.
3. Advancement of science and culture: Promoting scientific research, freedom of expression, and cultural exchange among nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Spelling of specialized agency full forms must be accurate to avoid losing marks.
b) Mentioning protection of monuments and cultural diversity fetches direct credit.