ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2020 with Solutions

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

PART I

Question 1

(a) Name the two Houses of the Indian Parliament. [1]

Answer:
The two Houses of the Indian Parliament are the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).

Teacher's Note:
a) India has a bicameral legislature consisting of these two Houses along with the President.
b) Students should write the formal names clearly to secure full marks.

(b) What is meant by the term 'Session'? [1]

Answer:
A session is the period of time between the first meeting of a House of Parliament and its prorogation or dissolution.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Parliament must meet at least twice a year with a gap of not more than six months between two sessions.
b) Ensure the distinction between a session and a sitting is clear.

(c) How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected? [1]

Answer:
The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves soon after the newly elected House meets.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Speaker remains in office during the life of the Lok Sabha.
b) Mentioning that the election takes place from amongst its own members is essential.

(d) What is the term of office of a Rajya Sabha member? [1]

Answer:
The term of office of a Rajya Sabha member is six years.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution.
b) One-third of its members retire every two years.

(e) Who is the Supreme Commander of the Armed forces of India? [1]

Answer:
The President of India is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) This is one of the executive powers vested in the President by the Constitution.
b) Do not confuse this with the political head or the Chiefs of the respective service staffs.

(f) What is the normal term of office of the Vice President of India? [1]

Answer:
The normal term of office of the Vice President of India is five years.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Vice President can also resign before completing the term or be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
b) Mentioning the exact duration of five years is sufficient.

(g) Who appoints the Prime Minister of India? [1]

Answer:
The President of India appoints the Prime Minister.

Teacher's Note:
a) The President appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as Prime Minister.
b) The President has no personal discretion in this appointment under normal circumstances.

(h) State the body that decides the major policies of the Government? [1]

Answer:
The Cabinet decides the major policies of the Government.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Cabinet is a smaller, core group of senior ministers within the Council of Ministers.
b) Students must specify 'Cabinet' rather than the broad term 'Council of Ministers' for precision.

(i) Name the Courts that are empowered to issue Writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. [1]

Answer:
The Supreme Court and the High Courts are empowered to issue Writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Teacher's Note:
a) Under Article 32, the Supreme Court issues writs, and under Article 226, High Courts do so.
b) Naming both courts is required for full credit.

(j) Mention any one advantage of the Lok Adalat. [1]

Answer:
Lok Adalats provide speedy and inexpensive justice, as there is no court fee involved.

Teacher's Note:
a) They help in reducing the backlog of cases in regular courts.
b) Any valid advantage such as amicable settlement or flexibility of procedure is accepted.

Question 2

(a) Mention any two contributions of Bipin Chandra Pal in promoting Nationalism. [2]

Answer:
1. He was one of the prominent extremist leaders (part of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio) who infused a new spirit of self-reliance and aggressive nationalism among Indians.
2. He used powerful journalism and fiery speeches to propagate the ideas of Swadeshi and Boycott.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight his role as a radical nationalist leader.
b) Mentioning specific methods like Swadeshi or journalism adds clarity.

(b) State any two methods adopted by the Early Nationalists in the National Movement. [2]

Answer:
1. Prayers, petitions, and appeals to the government for redressal of grievances.
2. Holding meetings, passing resolutions, and using press and public speeches to create public awareness.

Teacher's Note:
a) Early Nationalists had immense faith in British sense of justice.
b) Their methods are often termed constitutional agitation.

(c) Why is October 16, 1905 regarded as an important day in the history of the Indian National Movement? [2]

Answer:
October 16, 1905 was the day the Partition of Bengal officially came into force. It was observed as a day of mourning, fasting, and protest across India, marked by the tying of rakhis and singing of Vande Mataram.

Teacher's Note:
a) This day catalyzed the Swadeshi and Boycott movements.
b) Mentioning both the enforcement of partition and the public reaction is essential.

(d) Name any two leaders of the Khilafat Movement. [2]

Answer:
1. Maulana Mohammad Ali
2. Maulana Shaukat Ali

Teacher's Note:
a) Popularly known as the Ali Brothers.
b) Other prominent leaders include Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and Hakim Ajmal Khan.

(e) State any two causes for the Non-Cooperation Movement. [2]

Answer:
1. The Khilafat wrong committed by the British against Muslims by dismembering the Ottoman Empire.
2. The Rowlatt Act and the brutal Jallianwala Bagh Massacre followed by the Hunter Committee report.

Teacher's Note:
a) Economic hardships following World War I also served as a contributing cause.
b) Mentioning Khilafat and Jallianwala Bagh covers the primary triggers.

(f) Mention any two objectives of the Forward Bloc. [2]

Answer:
1. To liberate India from British rule with the help of the Indian masses.
2. To reorganize agriculture and industry on socialist lines after independence.

Teacher's Note:
a) Formed by Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939.
b) Focuses on radical anti-imperialist struggle and socialism.

(g) What was meant by the term 'Imperialism', as a cause for World War I? [2]

Answer:
Imperialism refers to the policy of extending a country's power and dominion through colonization, military force, or economic exploitation over weaker nations, which led to intense rivalries among European powers for colonies in Asia and Africa.

Teacher's Note:
a) Economic competition for raw materials and markets fueled imperialist greed.
b) This scramble for colonies created deep mistrust among European nations.

(h) Give any two reasons for the rise of Fascism. [2]

Answer:
1. Discontent with the Treaty of Versailles, especially in Italy, which felt cheated of its expected gains (the mutilated victory).
2. Severe economic crisis, unemployment, and fear of the spread of communism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mussolini exploited national humiliation and social unrest.
b) Weak democratic governments failed to handle post-war crises.

(i) Name the two International Organisations that were formed, one as a consequences of World War I and the other after World War II. [2]

Answer:
1. The League of Nations (formed after World War I)
2. The United Organization (United Nations, formed after World War II)

Teacher's Note:
a) League of Nations was established in 1920 to prevent future wars.
b) The United Nations was founded in 1945 with broader global objectives.

(j) Give the full form of UNICEF and WHO. [2]

Answer:
UNICEF: United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund (now United Nations Children's Fund)
WHO: World Health Organization

Teacher's Note:
a) Spelling of both acronyms must be accurate.
b) Mentioning either the old or modified official name for UNICEF is accepted.

PART II

SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section

Question 3

Write reference to the Union Legislature, answer the following questions:

(a) Explain any three Legislative powers of the Union Parliament. [3]

Answer:
1. Law-making on Union List and Concurrent List: Parliament has exclusive power to make laws on subjects enumerated in the Union List and can also legislate on Concurrent List subjects.
2. Ordinance approval: It has the power to approve or disapprove ordinances promulgated by the President when Parliament is not in session.
3. Constitutional Amendments: Parliament possesses the constituent power to amend the Constitution of India in accordance with the prescribed procedure.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly distinguish between Union, State, and Concurrent lists.
b) Three distinct powers must be explained with proper headings or points.

(b) State any three exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha that is not enjoyed by the other House. [3]

Answer:
1. Money Bills can only originate in the Lok Sabha.
2. A Motion of No-Confidence against the Council of Ministers can only be moved and passed in the Lok Sabha.
3. Under Article 312, if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution for the creation of an All-India Service, it requires Lok Sabha concurrence, but financial control rests exclusively with the Lok Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that Money Bills and No-Confidence motions are exclusive to the Lower House.
b) Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding financial bills.

(c) List any four functions of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. [4]

Answer:
1. Presiding over the meetings of the Lok Sabha and maintaining order and decorum in the House.
2. Deciding whether a bill is a Money Bill or an ordinary bill.
3. Allowing members to ask questions and permitting the introduction of motions and resolutions.
4. Adjourning or suspending the meeting of the House in the absence of a quorum.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Speaker exercises a casting vote in case of a tie.
b) Impartiality is the hallmark of the Speaker's office.

Question 4

The Executive Power of the Indian Union is vested in the President. In this context, answer the following:

(a) How is the President of India elected?
State the composition of the Electoral College that elects him. [3]

Answer:
The President of India is elected indirectly by an Electoral College in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote, through secret ballot.
The Electoral College consists of:
1. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (and Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry).

Teacher's Note:
a) Note that nominated members of Parliament and State Legislative Councils do not participate in the presidential election.
b) Both indirect election method and composition must be clearly stated.

(b) Explain any three Discretionary Power of the President. [3]

Answer:
1. Appointment of Prime Minister: When no single party gets a clear majority in the Lok Sabha, the President uses discretion in inviting a leader who can command a majority.
2. Dismissal of the Ministry: The President can dismiss the Council of Ministers if it loses majority support in the Lok Sabha and refuses to resign.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha: The President may dissolve the Lok Sabha when the Council of Ministers loses its majority and advises dissolution, or when no alternative government can be formed.

Teacher's Note:
a) Discretionary powers are exercised without the ministerial advice.
b) These situations generally arise during hung parliaments.

(c) Mention any four Executive Powers of the President. [4]

Answer:
1. Appointment of high constitutional authorities, including the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, Governors, Chief Justice, and judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts.
2. Acting as the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India.
3. Power to seek information relating to the administration of affairs of the Union from the Prime Minister.
4. Appointment of administrators or Lieutenant Governors for Union Territories.

Teacher's Note:
a) Executive powers deal with implementation of laws and appointments.
b) Four distinct points should be listed clearly.

Question 5

With reference to the Supreme Court as the Apex Court in our Indian Judiciary, explain the following:

(a) Any three cases that come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [3]

Answer:
1. Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. Disputes between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other.
3. Disputes between two or more States.

Teacher's Note:
a) Original jurisdiction means the power to hear and decide such cases in the first instance.
b) These disputes must involve a question of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

(b) Power of Judicial Review. [3]

Answer:
Judicial Review is the power of the Supreme Court to examine the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders of both Central and State governments. If any law is found to be in contravention of the provisions of the Constitution, the Supreme Court can declare it ultra vires (null and void).

Teacher's Note:
a) This power ensures that the Constitution remains the supreme law of the land.
b) It acts as a crucial check on the legislature and executive.

(c) Supreme Court as a Court of Record. [4]

Answer:
A Court of Record means that all the proceedings, judgments, and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced in any court. Furthermore, the Supreme Court has the power to punish for contempt of itself, whether civil or criminal.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lower courts are bound to follow the decisions and precedents set by the Supreme Court.
b) The contempt power ensures the dignity and authority of the judiciary are maintained.

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section

Question 6

By 1857, conditions were ripe for a mass uprising in the form of the Great Revolt of 1857. In this context, explain the following:

(a) Any three Economic causes for the revolt of 1857. [3]

Answer:
1. Drain of Wealth: British economic policies systematically drained India's wealth to Britain without any adequate economic return.
2. Destruction of Traditional Handicrafts: Influx of cheap machine-made British goods ruined Indian cottage industries and artisans.
3. Land Revenue Systems: Oppressive land revenue settlements like the Permanent, Ryotwari, and Mahalwari systems impoverished the peasantry and drove them into the clutches of moneylenders.

Teacher's Note:
a) Economic exploitation affected artisans, peasants, and traditional nobility alike.
b) Keep explanations concise and focused on economic distress.

(b) Any three Military causes. [3]

Answer:
1. General Service Enlistment Act: Compelled Indian soldiers to serve overseas, which violated their religious taboos.
2. Racial Discrimination: Indian soldiers were poorly paid, treated with contempt, and barred from attaining high military ranks.
3. Disproportionate ratio of Indian to British troops in the British army.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Enfield rifle controversy served as the immediate military trigger.
b) Discrimination in promotions and salary caused widespread resentment.

(c) Any three Political causes of the revolt. [4]

Answer:
1. Lord Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse, through which states like Satara, Jhansi, and Nagpur were annexed.
2. Abolition of titles and pensions of Indian rulers, such as those of the Nana Sahib and the Nawab of Carnatic.
3. The announcement that Lord Dalhousie's successor, Lord Canning, decided that Bahadur Shah Zafar's successors would not be allowed to use the imperial title of 'King'.
4. Misrule in Awadh: The annexation of Awadh in 1856 on the pretext of misgovernance alienated thousands of sepoys who hailed from Awadh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Political annexations created deep insecurity among Indian princes.
b) Provide four clear points as required by the 4-mark allocation.

Question 7

With reference to the Mass phase of the National Movement under the leadership of Gandhi, answer the following:

(a) Briefly explain the Dandi March of 1930. [3]

Answer:
The Dandi March (Salt March) began on March 12, 1930, when Mahatma Gandhi, accompanied by 78 chosen followers, set out on a 240-mile march from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal village of Dandi. On April 6, 1930, Gandhi broke the salt law by picking up salt by the seashore, marking the formal inauguration of the Civil Disobedience Movement across the country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning dates, distance, and the symbolic breaking of the salt law is important.
b) It united Indians against the unjust salt tax.

(b) State any three reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement. [3]

Answer:
1. Failure of the Cripps Mission: The proposals offered no immediate freedom and promised dominion status only after the war.
2. Japanese Threat: Fear of a Japanese invasion of India and Gandhi's belief that the British presence invited Japanese aggression.
3. Popular Discontent: Severe economic hardships, soaring prices of essential goods, and widespread anger against British repression.

Teacher's Note:
a) The movement was launched in August 1942 at Bombay.
b) Gandhi gave the famous slogan 'Do or Die'.

(c) Explain any four significant effects of the Quit India Movement. [4]

Answer:
1. Demonstrated the depth of nationalist feeling and proved that the British could no longer govern India without consent.
2. Marked a spontaneous uprising of the masses, including youth, women, and peasants.
3. Severely shook the foundations of British rule in India.
4. Made India's independence inevitable, leading to post-war negotiations and the transfer of power.

Teacher's Note:
a) Though severely repressed by the British, it was the final major mass movement before independence.
b) Four clear effects must be written for full marks.

Question 8

With reference to the Partition plan, answer the following:

(a) (i) Name the last Victory of India.
(ii) State any two reasons for him to come to India. [3]

Answer:
(i) Lord Mountbatten (Note: 'Victory' in the OCR refers to Viceroy).
(ii) Reasons for his coming:
1. To negotiate and finalize a peaceful transfer of power from British to Indian hands.
2. To resolve the political deadlock between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League regarding the partition of the country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clarify the typo in the question paper where Viceroy was printed as Victory.
b) Lord Mountbatten arrived in March 1947.

(b) Mention any three proposals under his plan. [3]

Answer:
1. Partition of India into two independent dominions: India and Pakistan.
2. The princely states would be free to accede to either India or Pakistan, or remain independent (though urged to join one).
3. A Boundary Commission would be set up to demarcate the boundaries between the two new nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Known as the Mountbatten Plan or June 3 Plan.
b) Clearly state three specific proposals.

(c) State any four reasons for the Congress to finally accept the Plan. [4]

Answer:
1. The widespread communal riots and violence made partition seem the only way to restore peace.
2. The Interim Government was unworkable because the Muslim League adopted a non-cooperative stance.
3. Acceptance of partition was seen as the lesser of two evils compared to total Balkanization or prolonged civil war.
4. It ensured immediate independence for the rest of India with a strong central government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Congress leaders reluctantly accepted the plan to stop ongoing bloodshed.
b) Provide four valid reasons for acceptance.

Question 9

(a) Name the organization associated with the above Emblem. [3]

[Figure: Emblem of the United Nations showing a world map projected from the North Pole, surrounded by olive branches.]

Answer:
The United Nations (UN).

Teacher's Note:
a) The emblem features a polar azimuthal equidistant projection map of the world flanked by olive branches symbolizing peace.
b) Identifying the United Nations correctly earns full marks.

(b) Mention any three functions of WHO, as its agency. [3]

Answer:
1. To help countries improve their health systems and combat major global diseases like malaria, tuberculosis, and HIV/AIDS.
2. To set international standards for food safety, biological products, and pharmaceutical standards.
3. To promote maternal and child health and foster research in reproductive health.

Teacher's Note:
a) WHO stands for World Health Organization.
b) Three distinct functions must be outlined.

(c) Name the Principal Judicial Organ of this organization and explain its composition. [4]

Answer:
The Principal Judicial Organ of the United Nations is the International Court of Justice (ICJ), located at The Hague in the Netherlands.
Composition:
1. It consists of 15 judges.
2. They are elected by the UN General Assembly and the Security Council voting independently.
3. They serve a term of office of nine years and are eligible for re-election.
4. No two judges can be nationals of the same country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Also known as the World Court.
b) Mentioning the number of judges (15) and their term (9 years) is essential.

Question 10

With reference to the Second World War and the Non-Aligned Movement, answer the following:

(a) Explain briefly three reasons for the Dissatisfaction with the Treaty of Versailles. [3]

Answer:
1. Humiliation of Germany: Germany was forced to accept sole war guilt and heavy financial reparations, which crippled its economy.
2. Dictated Peace (Diktat): The treaty was dictated to the defeated nations without any negotiations.
3. Discontent among victors: Italy felt cheated as it did not receive the territories promised to it (mutilated victory).

Teacher's Note:
a) The harsh terms of the treaty planted the seeds for World War II.
b) Germany's resentment was a primary catalyst for the rise of Hitler.

(b) State any three consequences of the Second World War. [3]

Answer:
1. Defeat of the Axis powers (Germany, Italy, and Japan) and the division of Germany.
2. Establishment of the United Nations Organization in 1945 to maintain international peace.
3. Rise of the Cold War and emergence of two rival superpowers: the USA and the USSR.

Teacher's Note:
a) The war led to the decolonization of Asia and Africa.
b) Three clear consequences are required.

(c) Mention any four chief architects of the Non-Aligned Movement. [4]

Answer:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru (India)
2. Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia)
3. Gamal Abdel Nasser (Egypt)
4. Sukarno (Indonesia) / Kwame Nkrumah (Ghana)

Teacher's Note:
a) The Non-Aligned Movement was formally born at the Belgrade Conference in 1961.
b) Listing any four of the founding leaders is sufficient.