ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2019 with Solutions

ICSE Board Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

PART - I (30 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this part)

Question 1

(a) What is the normal term of the Lok Sabha? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The normal term of the Lok Sabha is 5 years.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students must remember that the Lok Sabha can be dissolved earlier by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
b) Avoid writing indefinite terms; specify the exact duration of 5 years as mandated by the Constitution.

(b) State the meaning of the term Question Hour. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The first hour of sitting in both Houses of Parliament is allotted for asking and answering of questions unless otherwise decided by the Speaker. This hour is known as Question Hour which usually starts at 11 a.m.

Teacher's Note:
a) Question Hour is an important parliamentary mechanism used by members to hold the executive accountable.
b) Mentioning that it is the 'first hour' of the parliamentary sitting is a key keyword for examiners.

(c) Name the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The presiding officer of the Lok Sabha is the Speaker.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Speaker maintains order and decorum in the House and conducts its proceedings.
b) Do not confuse the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha with that of the Rajya Sabha, which is the Vice-President of India.

(d) State any one condition when the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the state list. [1 Mark]

Answer:
During the Proclamation of a National Emergency.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other conditions include a Rajya Sabha resolution passed by a two-thirds majority or when two or more states request the Parliament to make laws.
b) Keep the answer concise and specific to the condition asked.

(e) Write any one circumstance when the President can declare a National Emergency. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The President can declare a National Emergency when there is a danger of foreign aggression or armed rebellion threatening the security of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) The 44th Amendment replaced the term 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'.
b) Ensure accurate terminology is used while writing grounds for emergencies.

(f) What happens when a motion of 'No-Confidence' is passed against a Minister? [1 Mark]

Answer:
If a motion of No-Confidence is passed against a minister, he has to resign. If it is passed against the Prime Minister, the entire Government has to resign.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
b) Students must clearly distinguish between a motion against an individual minister versus the Prime Minister/Cabinet as a whole.

(g) On whose advice can the President appoint the Council of Ministers? [1 Mark]

Answer:
On the Prime Minister's advice, the President appoints the Council of Ministers.

Answer:
Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court means that an appeal lies to the Supreme Court from any judgment, decree, or final order of a High Court in the country in constitutional, civil, and criminal cases.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in the country.
b) Keywords like 'highest court of appeal' and 'appeals against High Court judgments' must be included.

(i) On what grounds can a Supreme Court Judge be removed from office? [1 Mark]

Answer:
A Supreme Court Judge can be removed by the President only on the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Removal requires an address supported by a special majority in each House of Parliament.
b) Both terms 'proved misbehavior' and 'incapacity' should be mentioned together.

(j) State one point of distinction between a District Judge and a Sessions Judge. [1 Mark]

Answer:
A District Judge deals with civil cases, whereas a Sessions Judge deals with criminal cases.

Teacher's Note:
a) The same judicial officer often acts as both by presiding over civil matters as a District Judge and criminal matters as a Sessions Judge.
b) Clearly demarcate civil jurisdiction versus criminal jurisdiction.

Question 2

(a) What was the General Service Enlistment Act? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Passed by the British Parliament in 1856, the General Service Enlistment Act required every new recruit in the Indian army to serve overseas if required.
2. It hurt the religious sentiments of upper-caste Hindu soldiers, who believed that crossing the seas (kala pani) led to a loss of caste, contributing to widespread resentment before the 1857 Revolt.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the year 1856 and the condition of overseas service.
b) Connect it directly to the religious beliefs and discontent of the Indian sepoys.

(b) Name the two books that Dadabhai Naoroji authored explaining the 'Drain of India's Wealth'. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India
2. England's Debt to India

Teacher's Note:
a) Dadabhai Naoroji is famously known as the Grand Old Man of India.
b) Spelling of book titles must be accurate without omissions.

(c) Name each of the organizations founded by Jyotiba Phule and Raja Rammohan Roy. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Jyotiba Phule founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj.
2. Raja Rammohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj.

Teacher's Note:
a) Match each founder with their exact organization correctly.
b) Spelling errors in proper nouns like 'Satya Shodhak Samaj' and 'Brahmo Samaj' will lead to loss of marks.

(d) Write any two contributions of Lala Lajpat Rai to the National Movement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. He transformed the freedom struggle into a mass agitation and presided over the special session of the Congress in Calcutta in 1920 where the Non-Cooperation resolution was adopted.
2. He led the historic anti-Simon Commission protest in Lahore, during which he suffered brutal police lathi charges that eventually led to his martyrdom.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight his role as an Extremist leader and his leadership during the Simon Commission boycott.
b) Mentioning his presidency of the 1920 Calcutta session adds high value.

(e) State any two provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 that was to decide the fate of the Princely States. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. All treaties and agreements made by the British Crown with the Princely States lapsed from August 15, 1947.
2. The Princely States were given the freedom to accede to either of the two new Dominions (India or Pakistan) or remain independent.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus strictly on provisions concerning Princely States, not the general partition terms.
b) Emphasize the lapsing of paramountcy and freedom of choice.

(f) Write any two reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan by the Congress. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Large-scale communal riots across the country convinced the Congress leaders that partition was the only practical way to avoid civil war.
2. The experience of working with the Muslim League in the Interim Government proved that a joint administration was unworkable as the League adopted an obstructive policy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the communal violence and administrative deadlock in the Interim Government.
b) Avoid writing vague political points; stick to historical causes.

(g) State any two objections imposed by the Treaty of Versailles on the German military power. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The German army was restricted to a maximum force of 1,00,000 soldiers, and the navy was limited to 15,000 men and 36 ships.
2. The air force and submarines of the German army were completely banned.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention specific numbers regarding military and naval restrictions.
b) State the total ban on submarines and air force clearly.

(h) Name the Signatory countries of the Triple Alliance. [2 Marks]

Answer:
The signatory countries of the Triple Alliance were Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Do not confuse the Triple Alliance with the Triple Entente (Britain, France, and Russia).
b) List all three countries accurately.

(i) What is meant by the term 'Veto' power? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Veto power refers to the negative vote exercised by any of the five permanent members of the UN Security Council.
2. A substantive decision is blocked if even a single permanent member casts a negative vote (veto), rendering the Council powerless to act on that matter.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain that it belongs exclusively to the permanent members of the Security Council.
b) Clearly state its blocking effect on decisions.

(j) Why was the League of Nations established? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The League of Nations was established as a consequence of the devastation caused by the First World War.
2. Its primary objective was to prevent future wars, promote international peace and security, and foster international cooperation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link its formation directly to the aftermath of World War I.
b) Mention 'international peace' and 'preventing war' as core objectives.

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section

Question 3
The Parliament is the body of people's representatives who have Supreme power in a democracy. With reference to the Union Legislature answer the following:
(a) How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The representatives of each State in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
2. The election is conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
3. Additionally, 12 members are nominated by the President from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the electoral college consisting of elected MLAs.
b) Include the method of proportional representation and the nominated members to secure full marks.

(b) Why is it called a Permanent house? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Rajya Sabha is called a permanent house because it is not subject to dissolution like the Lok Sabha.
2. One-third of its members retire after every two years, and new members are elected to fill the vacant seats, ensuring continuity.
3. Each member has a fixed tenure of six years, making the existence of the House continuous.

Teacher's Note:
a) State clearly that it cannot be dissolved.
b) Explain the rotation of members retiring every two years.

(c) State any two Financial and any two Legislative Powers of the Indian Parliament. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Financial Powers:
1. The Parliament passes the Union Budget containing estimates of receipts and expenditure of the Government for a financial year.
2. No tax can be levied or collected and no expenditure can be incurred without the approval of Parliament.

Legislative Powers:
1. The Parliament has exclusive powers to make laws on matters enumerated in the Union List and residuary subjects.
2. In case of a conflict between Union and State laws on items in the Concurrent List, the law made by Parliament shall prevail.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly separate financial powers from legislative powers using headings or bullet points.
b) Mention budget approval and supremacy on Union and Concurrent list matters.

Question 4
The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, is the most Powerful Institution in the Indian Polity. In this context, answer the following:
(a) State briefly the position of the Prime Minister in the Parliamentary system of Government. State any two powers the Prime Minister has as a leader of the Nation. [3 Marks]

Answer:
Position of the Prime Minister:
The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers, the chief advisor to the President, and the real executive head of the Indian Union, wielding vast authority in legislation, administration, and finance.

Two powers as a leader of the Nation:
1. The Prime Minister represents the nation on international platforms and speaks on behalf of the entire country.
2. During national crises, such as war or external aggression, the Prime Minister rallies the entire nation and commands support across party lines.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define the Prime Minister's position as the real executive and head of government.
b) Clearly state both national leadership roles during peace and crisis situations.

(b) Distinguish between the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet. [3 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Present differences clearly in tabular form covering size, composition, and authority.
b) Ensure all three distinct comparative points are accurately detailed.

(c) Write any four functions of the 'Cabinet'. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Policy Making: The Cabinet formulates both domestic and foreign policies of the government.
2. Coordinates Functioning of Ministries: It coordinates the working of various government departments to ensure smooth implementation of policies.
3. Appointments: It takes decisions on all major constitutional and high-level appointments made by the President.
4. Legislative Program: It decides the legislative agenda of Parliament, including the introduction of important government bills and summoning sessions.

Teacher's Note:
a) List four distinct administrative and policy functions of the Cabinet.
b) Use bold headings for each point to make the answer structured and easy to grade.

Question 5
India has a single integrated judicial system that is Independent and Supreme. With reference to the Judiciary, answer the following:
(a) (i) Who appoints the Judges of the High Court? [3 Marks]
(ii) State any two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a High Court Judge.

Answer:
(i) The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned State. Other judges are appointed in the same manner, with the additional consultation of the Chief Justice of that High Court.

(ii) Qualifications for a High Court Judge:
1. Must be a citizen of India.
2. Must have held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least 10 years, or have been an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention all consultative authorities required for judicial appointments.
b) Clearly state the citizenship and professional experience criteria (10 years judicial office or advocate).

(b) Explain briefly the term 'Court of Record' with reference to the High Court. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. A Court of Record means that the judgments and proceedings of the High Court are permanently recorded for historical and legal reference.
2. These recorded judgments are cited as precedents by subordinate courts in future cases within the State.
3. The High Court has the power to punish for its own contempt, reinforcing its authority as a Court of Record.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain preservation of judgments and their use as precedents.
b) Mention the power of contempt as part of being a Court of Record.

(c) List any four writs that the High Court can issue for the enforcement of Fundamental rights. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Habeas Corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Prohibition
4. Quo-Warranto (Certiorari is also accepted)

Teacher's Note:
a) List all four correct constitutional writs.
b) Ensure correct spelling of Latin legal terms like Habeas Corpus and Quo-Warranto.

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section

Question 6
The second half of the 19th century witnessed the growth of a strong feeling of Nationalism. With reference to the statement, answer the following:
(a) Write any three repressive Colonial policies of the British. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Lord Lytton organized the extravagant Delhi Durbar in 1877 to proclaim Queen Victoria as Empress of India while millions suffered from severe famine.
2. The Vernacular Press Act (1878) sought to suppress freedom of the press by silencing Indian-language newspapers critical of government policies.
3. The maximum age limit for the Indian Civil Service Examination was reduced from 21 to 19 years to disadvantage Indian aspirants.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention specific repressive measures enacted during Lord Lytton's viceroyalty.
b) Include details like the Delhi Durbar, Vernacular Press Act, and Civil Service age reduction.

(b) State any three ways in which the Press played an important role in developing nationalism amongst Indians. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Newspapers and journals spread modern liberal ideas of liberty, equality, freedom, and nationalism among the masses.
2. The press carried out daily critical analysis of unjust British economic and political policies, exposing the exploitative nature of colonial rule.
3. It facilitated the exchange of political views and united diverse social groups across different regions of the country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the educational and unifying role of newspapers.
b) Mention criticism of British policies and spreading national consciousness.

(c) Explain briefly any three differences in the methods adopted between the Early Nationalists and Radicals, in the National Movement. [4 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Use a comparison table contrasting the objectives, methods, and mindset of both factions.
b) Ensure all points clearly highlight Moderates versus Assertives.

Question 7
With reference to the picture given below, answer the following questions:
[Figure: Jallianwala Bagh Martyr's Memorial tower erected at the site of the massacre in Amritsar, Punjab]
(a) (i) Identify the Memorial built for those who were killed in this incident. [3 Marks]
(ii) Where did this incident take place?
(iii) Name the movement launched by Gandhi in 1920 as a consequence.

Answer:
(i) Jallianwala Bagh Memorial.
(ii) Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, Punjab.
(iii) Non-Cooperation Movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the memorial from the visual depiction of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre site.
b) Link the incident directly to the launch of the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1920.

(b) Explain briefly the reason for the suspension of this particular movement by Gandhi in 1922. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. On February 5, 1922, at Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur district, a violent mob set fire to a police station, killing 22 policemen following police firing on a peaceful procession.
2. Mahatma Gandhi, who was a staunch believer in 'Ahimsa' (non-violence), was deeply shocked by this brutal turn of events.
3. Consequently, he called off the Non-Cooperation Movement on February 12, 1922, believing the nation was not yet ready for mass non-violent struggle.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the Chauri Chaura incident, date (1922), and location (Gorakhpur, UP).
b) Emphasize Gandhi's commitment to non-violence as the core reason for suspension.

(c) State any four impacts of the movement. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mass Movement: The national movement acquired a broad mass base with the active participation of peasants, workers, women, and students.
2. Fearlessness: It instilled a sense of national pride and confidence among Indians, breaking the myth of British invincibility.
3. Re-organization of Congress: The Congress was transformed from a deliberative elite assembly into an active, mass-based revolutionary political organization.
4. Hindu-Muslim Unity: It fostered strong communal harmony through the joint agitation of the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation movements.

Teacher's Note:
a) List four distinct positive impacts of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
b) Focus on mass participation, change in Congress character, and Hindu-Muslim unity.

Question 8
With reference to the National Movement from 1930 to 1947, answer the following:
(a) State any three features of the Programme of the Civil Disobedience Movement launched in 1930. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Deliberate defiance of unjust salt laws, spearheaded by Gandhi's Dandi March.
2. Widespread picketing of shops selling foreign liquor and toddy.
3. Boycott of foreign cloth and British manufactured goods of all kinds, promoting Khadi instead.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention key constructive and defiant programs like salt law violation and foreign goods boycott.
b) Keep points specific to the Civil Disobedience Movement.

(b) What was the significance of the Second Round Table Conference held in 1931? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It was attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress, following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
2. The conference became hopelessly deadlocked over the communal issue, with separate electorates demanded for minorities and Depressed Classes.
3. The British government refused to concede immediate dominion status, leading to Gandhi's return to India disappointed and the resumption of the movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight Gandhi's participation as the sole Congress representative.
b) Explain the failure of the conference due to the minorities deadlock.

(c) State any four clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Federal Union: There was to be a federal union of British Provinces and Princely States, controlling Foreign Affairs, Defense, and Communications.
2. Constituent Assembly: A Constituent Assembly of 385 members was to be elected to frame the Constitution of India.
3. Provincial Autonomy: Provinces would enjoy full autonomy for all subjects outside the Union jurisdiction.
4. Grouping of Provinces: British Provinces were to be divided into three distinct groups (Group A, Group B, and Group C) to address regional autonomy.

Teacher's Note:
a) State four core constitutional clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan accurately.
b) Mention the Federal Union, Constituent Assembly, and provincial grouping.

Question 9
With reference to the Rise of Dictatorships and the Second World War, answer the following:
(a) State any three reasons for the Rise of Fascism in Italy. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dissatisfaction with Peace Treaties: Italy felt cheated at the Paris Peace Conference ('won the war but lost the peace') as it gained little territory despite heavy losses.
2. Economic Crisis: Post-war economic ruin, heavy war debts, massive inflation, and widespread unemployment caused severe social unrest.
3. Political Instability: Weak and corrupt democratic coalition governments failed to control strikes, riots, and communist threats, paving the way for Mussolini.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the Versailles disappointment, economic distress, and political instability.
b) Connect these factors directly to Mussolini's rise to power in Italy.

(b) Explain any three consequences of World War II. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Defeat of Axis Powers: The Axis powers (Germany, Italy, Japan) were completely defeated by the Allied forces by 1945.
2. Establishment of the United Nations: The horrors of the war led to the creation of the UN in October 1945 to maintain international peace.
3. Emergence of Cold War: The USA and USSR emerged as two rival superpowers with opposing ideologies, dividing the world into two blocs and initiating the Cold War era.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the defeat of fascism, formation of the UN, and the onset of the Cold War.
b) Keep explanations concise and historically accurate.

(c) Name the two rival blocs that fought against each other during World War II and state its signatory countries. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Allied Powers: Included Britain, France, the Soviet Union, the United States of America, and China.
2. Axis Powers: Included Germany, Italy, and Japan.
3. The conflict erupted primarily due to aggressive expansionist policies and the bitter resentment over the unjust terms of the Treaty of Versailles imposed on defeated nations after World War I.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly name both rival blocs and their major member nations.
b) Ensure all core Allied and Axis powers are correctly listed.

Question 10
The necessity to maintain International peace led to the establishment of the United Nations Organisation. With reference to the statement, answer the following:
(a) Write any three functions of UNESCO that preserves our "Cultural Heritage". [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It assists member states in protecting historical monuments, architectural masterpieces, and rare manuscripts through international conventions.
2. It encourages cultural interchange and promotes mutual appreciation of Eastern and Western cultural values.
3. It fosters artistic creation, literature, and fine arts by providing grants and facilitating cultural exchanges among nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus strictly on UNESCO's cultural preservation and heritage protection functions.
b) Mention monuments, manuscripts, and cultural interchange.

(b) State the Composition of the Security Council. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Security Council consists of 15 members in total.
2. There are 5 permanent members: USA, Russia, UK, France, and China, each holding veto power.
3. There are 10 non-permanent members elected by the General Assembly for a term of two years, distributed regionally.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the total number of members (15) and breakdown of permanent (5) versus non-permanent (10) members.
b) Name all five permanent members to earn full marks.

(c) Write any four functions of the General Assembly. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. To discuss any question or matter relating to international peace and security brought before it.
2. To consider and approve the annual budget of the United Nations Organisation.
3. To elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council and members of other UN organs like ECOSOC.
4. To regulate and coordinate the working of various specialized agencies and organs of the United Nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) List four distinct deliberative and financial functions of the General Assembly.
b) Mention budget approval, elections, and discussions on world peace.