ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2018 with Solutions

ICSE Class 10 History And Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

PART - 1 [30 MARKS]

Question 1.

(a) Name the bill that cannot originate in the Rajya Sabha. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Money Bill.

Teacher's Note:
a) A Money Bill can only originate in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President.
b) Students must remember that the Rajya Sabha has very limited powers regarding a Money Bill and must return it within 14 days.

(b) What is meant by the term 'quorum'? [1 Mark]

Answer:
A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha before a meeting is allowed to begin, which is one-tenth of the total members of the House.

Teacher's Note:
a) The quorum ensures that decisions are not taken by an extremely small group of members.
b) Mentioning the exact fraction of one-tenth is crucial for securing full marks.

(c) What is the maximum gap allowed between the two Parliamentary sessions? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Six months.

Teacher's Note:
a) Article 85 of the Constitution mandates that Parliament must meet at least twice a year.
b) Ensure you write the time period clearly without any ambiguity.

(d) Who administers the oath of office to the Council of Ministers? [1 Mark]

Answer:
President.

Teacher's Note:
a) The President administers the oath of office and secrecy to the Prime Minister and other ministers.
b) Do not confuse this with the Speaker or Chief Justice while answering.

(e) What is an Ordinance? [1 Mark]

Answer:
An Ordinance is a law promulgated by the President of India when the Parliament is not in session, possessing the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ordinances must be approved by Parliament within six weeks of its reassembly.
b) Highlighting that it is a temporary legislative measure issued during recess is essential.

(f) State any one reason why the President is elected indirectly. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The President is a constitutional head, and having him elected directly by the people would create a clash of authority between the Prime Minister as the real executive and the President.

Teacher's Note:
a) Direct election would also involve enormous time, energy, and resources for a ceremonial post.
b) Keep the reason concise and focused on the parliamentary system of government.

(g) State any one administrative function of the Cabinet. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Cabinet formulates and coordinates the domestic and foreign policies of the government and runs the entire administration of the state.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each minister is responsible for the administration of their respective department.
b) Distinguish clearly between policy formulation and policy implementation.

(h) Name any two writs issued by the Supreme Court. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Writ of Habeas Corpus
2. Writ of Mandamus

Teacher's Note:
a) The Supreme Court can issue five types of writs under Article 32.
b) Other acceptable answers include Quo-Warranto, Prohibition, and Certiorari.

(i) Name the highest criminal court in a district. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Court of the Session Judge.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Sessions Judge deals with major criminal cases originating within the district.
b) Ensure you use the exact legal terminology.

(j) What is meant by Lok Adalats? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Lok Adalat means "People's Court", which is an alternative dispute resolution mechanism designed to settle disputes amicably through compromise between parties without formal litigation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lok Adalats provide speedy and inexpensive justice.
b) Mentioning compromise and settlement is vital for this definition.

Question 2.

(a) Mention any two economic factors responsible for the growth of nationalism in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Poor condition of the village economy due to heavy land revenue demands.
2. Destruction of traditional Indian handicrafts and cottage industries due to discriminatory British tariff policies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Economic exploitation by the British united all classes of Indians against colonial rule.
b) Mention specific economic hardships like drain of wealth or heavy taxation for better presentation.

(b) Name the two Presidents under whom the first two sessions of the Indian National Congress were held. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. First Session (1885): W.C. Bonnerjee.
2. Second Session (1886): Dadabhai Naoroji.

Teacher's Note:
a) The first session was held in Bombay, and the second was held in Calcutta.
b) Spelling of names must be accurate to avoid losing marks.

(c) Name the nationalist who said, 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it'. State any one of his contributions to the National Movement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Contribution: He transformed the anti-partition movement into a widespread movement for Swaraj and instilled national pride and self-reliance among the masses.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tilak was a prominent extremist leader who popularized the concept of Swaraj.
b) Always attribute the famous quote correctly to Lokmanya Tilak.

(d) State any two objectives of the Muslim League. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To protect and promote the political and other rights of Muslims in India.
2. To promote a feeling of loyalty among Muslims towards the British government.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Muslim League was founded in 1906 in Dhaka.
b) Focus on the initial objectives set during its formation.

(e) State any two causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The passing of the Complete Independence (Purna Swaraj) resolution at the Lahore session of the Congress.
2. The British government's rejection of Mahatma Gandhi's 'Eleven Point' demands.

Teacher's Note:
a) The failure of the Simon Commission and the prevailing economic depression also contributed heavily.
b) Mentioning the Dandi March or violation of the salt law completes the historical context.

(f) Name the last Viceroy of India. State any one of the provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Lord Mountbatten.
Provision: India was to be partitioned into two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, with effect from August 15, 1947.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lord Mountbatten oversaw the transfer of power.
b) Clearly state the creation of the two dominions as the primary provision.

(g) Give any two similarities between the ideologies of Nazism and Fascism. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Both ideologies were totally against democracy and believed in totalitarian rule.
2. Both upheld the rule of a single party and a supreme leader with absolute authority.

Teacher's Note:
a) Both ideologies glorified war and aggressive nationalism.
b) Emphasize their opposition to individual liberty and democratic institutions.

(h) Name the countries that formed the Axis Bloc, during World War II. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Germany
2. Italy
3. Japan

Teacher's Note:
a) The Axis powers fought against the Allied powers during World War II.
b) Listing all three countries is required for full credit.

(i) Give the full form of UNESCO. [2 Marks]

Answer:
United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Spelling of every word in the acronym must be precise.
b) UNESCO works to promote international collaboration in education, science, and culture.

(j) State any two principles of 'Panchsheel' in the Non-Aligned Movement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty.
2. Non-aggression against any country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Panchsheel forms the bedrock of India's foreign policy.
b) Other principles include non-interference in internal affairs and peaceful coexistence.

PART - II [50 MARKS]

SECTION - A

Attempt any two questions from this Section

Question 3.

With reference to the Union Parliament, answer the following questions :
(a) How many members may be nominated to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? Give one reason as to why they may be nominated to the Lok Sabha. [3 Marks]

Answer:
Lok Sabha: Not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated by the President.
Rajya Sabha: Twelve members are nominated by the President.
Reason: Members may be nominated to the Lok Sabha if, in the opinion of the President, the Anglo-Indian community is not adequately represented in the House.

Teacher's Note:
a) Note that the provision for nominating Anglo-Indian members has since been discontinued by constitutional amendment, but it is answered here as per the text of the 2018 curriculum.
b) Rajya Sabha members are nominated from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.

(b) Mention any three qualifications required for a member to be elected to the Lok Sabha. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Must be a citizen of India.
2. Must not be less than 25 years of age.
3. Must be registered as a voter in any parliamentary constituency in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Candidates must also possess such other qualifications as prescribed by Parliament.
b) Ensure age criteria and citizenship are stated clearly.

(c) What is meant by the term 'Session'? Name the three Sessions of the Union Parliament. [4 Marks]

Answer:
A session is the time period during which a House meets to conduct its business, starting from its first sitting until prorogation or dissolution.
Three sessions of the Union Parliament:
1. Budget Session (February to May)
2. Monsoon Session (July to September)
3. Winter Session (November to December)

Teacher's Note:
a) The Budget Session is usually considered the longest and most important session.
b) Correct months and names of the sessions must be provided.

Question 4.

The President and the Vice-President are part of the Union Executive. In this context, answer the following questions :
(a) State any three qualifications required for a candidate to be elected as the Vice-President of India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Must be a citizen of India.
2. Must have completed 35 years of age.
3. Must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Vice-President must not hold any office of profit under the Union or State government.
b) Differentiate carefully between Lok Sabha qualifications (25 years) and Rajya Sabha/Vice-President qualifications (35 years).

(b) State the three functions of the Vice-President. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and regulates its debates and proceedings.
2. He decides upon the admissibility of questions and resolutions in the Rajya Sabha.
3. He acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to death, resignation, or removal.

Teacher's Note:
a) When acting as President, he enjoys all powers and immunities of the President.
b) Mentioning his role as Chairman of the Upper House is essential.

(c) Explain briefly any two Legislative and any two Executive powers of the President. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Legislative powers:
1. Summoning and Proroguing: The President summons both Houses of Parliament, prorogues them, and can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
2. Addressing Parliament: He addresses the first session of Parliament after general elections and at the commencement of each year.
Executive powers:
1. Appointments: The President appoints the Prime Minister and other ministers on the Prime Minister's advice, as well as high constitutional dignitaries.
2. Control over Administration: All executive actions of the Union Government are formally taken in his name.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly segregate legislative and executive powers under proper headings.
b) Include examples of appointments like Governors, Judges, and Chief Election Commissioners.

Question 5.

Our Judicial system has a Supreme Court at its Apex, followed by the High Court and other Subordinate Courts. In the light of this statement, explain the following :
(a) Any three types of cases in which the Supreme Court exercises its Original Jurisdiction. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. Disputes between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more States on the other.
3. Disputes between two or more States involving any question on which the legal right depends.

Teacher's Note:
a) Original jurisdiction means the power to hear such cases in the first instance directly.
b) Disputes arising out of treaties or agreements made before the Constitution are generally excluded.

(b) Any three ways by which the Constitution ensures the Independence of the Judiciary. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Appointment of judges by the President in consultation with judicial authorities, keeping it free from political patronage.
2. Security of tenure, as judges cannot be removed easily except through a rigorous impeachment process.
3. Salaries, allowances, and pensions of judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and cannot be voted upon by Parliament.

Teacher's Note:
a) An independent judiciary is vital for upholding democracy and fundamental rights.
b) Mentioning the prohibition of discussion on the conduct of judges in Parliament adds value.

(c) 'Advisory' and 'Revisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Advisory Jurisdiction: Under Article 143, the President may refer any question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its opinion. The opinion is merely consultative and not binding on the President.
Revisory Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court has the power of Judicial Review to examine whether any law passed by the legislature or executive order is in accordance with the Constitution. If found unconstitutional, it declares it null and void.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish clearly between advisory consultation and judicial review.
b) Explain both terms with correct constitutional backing for full marks.

SECTION - B

Attempt any three questions from this Section

Question 6.

Numerous causes gave rise to the First War of Independence and its consequences led to several changes in the British Government in India. In this context, answer the following :
(a) Explain any three political causes of the Revolt of 1857. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Lord Dalhousie's Doctrine of Lapse, through which states like Satara, Nagpur, and Jhansi were annexed upon the death of rulers without natural heirs.
2. Policy of direct annexation and disregard for treaties, such as the annexation of Awadh on grounds of misgovernance.
3. Disrespect shown to Mughal royalty, including Lord Canning's declaration that successors of Bahadur Shah would not be allowed to use the imperial title 'King'.

Teacher's Note:
a) Political grievances created deep resentment among Indian rulers and elites.
b) Mentioning specific policies like the Doctrine of Lapse is essential.

(b) Briefly explain the immediate cause of the Great Revolt. [3 Marks]

Answer:
The immediate cause was the introduction of the new Enfield rifle and its greased cartridges. A rumor spread that the cartridge paper was greased with the fat of cows and pigs, which deeply offended the religious sentiments of both Hindu and Muslim sepoys who had to bite off the paper before loading the rifle.

Teacher's Note:
a) This served as the spark that ignited pent-up resentment across military ranks.
b) Mentioning both cow fat (offending Hindus) and pig fat (offending Muslims) is crucial.

(c) State any four changes in the administration of the British Government as a consequence of the Revolt. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. End of Company Rule: The administration of India was transferred from the East India Company directly to the British Crown, with Queen Victoria becoming Empress of India.
2. Secretary of State: The Board of Control and Court of Directors were abolished, and their powers were vested in a cabinet minister known as the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a 15-member council.
3. Viceroy: The Governor-General was given the additional title of Viceroy, acting as the direct representative of the Crown.
4. Civil Services: Provisions were made for open competitive examinations for recruitment to the civil service under rules framed by the Secretary of State.

Teacher's Note:
a) These changes marked the beginning of the British Raj.
b) Ensure all four structural administrative reforms are clearly listed.

Question 7.

The Quit India Resolution in 1942 was one of the final calls given by Gandhi for the British to leave India. Moving towards Independence, Lord Mountbatten's Plan was significant. In this context, answer the following :
(a) State two reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Failure of the Cripps Mission: The mission offered no immediate transfer of power and contained provisions that could divide India, leaving no ground for compromise.
2. Threat of Japanese Invasion: With Japanese forces advancing towards India, Gandhiji felt an orderly British withdrawal was necessary to save India from Japanese aggression and internal chaos.

Teacher's Note:
a) The slogan 'Do or Die' galvanized the nation during this phase.
b) Explain both the political failure and the wartime context clearly.

(b) Give any three effects of the Quit India Movement launched by Gandhi in 1942 that was significant to the last phase of the National Movement of India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. It demonstrated the depth of national feeling and convinced the British that their rule could no longer be sustained.
2. It was a mass upsurge that saw unprecedented participation of people from all sections of society across the country.
3. Emergence of parallel governments in areas like Ballia, Midnapur, and Satara.

Teacher's Note:
a) Although severely repressed, the movement shook the foundations of British authority.
b) Highlighting the mass character and parallel governments adds immense value.

(c) Give any four clauses of the Mountbatten Plan of 1947. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Partition of India into two independent Dominions, India and Pakistan.
2. A Boundary Commission would be set up to demarcate the boundaries between the two countries.
3. Princely states would be free to accede to either India or Pakistan or remain independent, keeping their geographical situation in mind.
4. A separate Constituent Assembly would be constituted for the areas that voted for partition.

Teacher's Note:
a) The plan paved the way for the Indian Independence Act of 1947.
b) Accuracy regarding the provisions for princely states and partition is vital.

Question 8.

Study the picture given below and answer the following questions :
[Figure: Portrait of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose wearing military cap and uniform]
(a) Identify the leader given in the picture. Name the Political party and the Military Organisation that he formed. [3 Marks]

Answer:
Leader: Subhas Chandra Bose.
Political Party: Forward Bloc.
Military Organisation: Indian National Army (INA).

Teacher's Note:
a) Subhas Chandra Bose was a radical nationalist leader.
b) Correctly link the Forward Bloc as his political party and the INA as the military wing.

(b) State any three objectives of the Political party that he founded. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Liberation of India with the active support of the masses.
2. Reorganization of agriculture and industry on socialist lines.
3. Abolition of the zamindari system and establishment of a new monetary and credit system.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Forward Bloc was established within the Congress as a leftist faction in 1939.
b) Focus on socialist economic restructuring as core objectives.

(c) Mention any four objectives of the Military Organisation that he formed. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. To overthrow the British colonial rule in India through armed struggle.
2. To establish a Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind).
3. To mobilize Indian expatriates and prisoners of war for the freedom struggle.
4. To march into India with the battle cry 'Delhi Chalo' and liberate the country.

Teacher's Note:
a) The INA played a major psychological role in inspiring the final struggle for freedom.
b) Mentioning armed overthrow and the Provisional Government secures full credit.

Question 9.

With reference to the Two Major World Wars in the 20th century, answer the following questions :
(a) Explain briefly the causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Aggressive Nationalism: Nineteenth-century nationalism became competitive, where love for one's own country bred hatred and hostility towards other nations.
2. Imperialist Rivalries: European powers competed fiercely for colonies in Asia and Africa to secure raw materials and markets, leading to frequent clashes.
3. Division of Europe into Power Blocs: Formation of opposing military alliances like the Triple Alliance and the Triple Entente created an atmosphere of mutual suspicion and tension.

Teacher's Note:
a) These underlying tensions made the outbreak of war inevitable following the Sarajevo crisis.
b) Clearly distinguish between aggressive nationalism and imperialist competition.

(b) Explain briefly the territorial rearrangements as a result of World War I. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Dissolution of major empires such as the Austro-Hungarian, Ottoman, and Russian empires.
2. Emergence of several new independent nation-states in Europe, including Poland, Finland, Czechoslovakia, and Yugoslavia.
3. German colonial territories in Africa and the Pacific were distributed among the Allied victors as mandates under the League of Nations.

Teacher's Note:
a) The map of Europe was redrawn significantly through the Treaty of Versailles.
b) Mentioning the collapse of empires and creation of new states is vital.

(c) State any four causes that led to the Second World War. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Unjust and humiliating terms of the Treaty of Versailles imposed on Germany.
2. Rise of aggressive totalitarian dictatorships, namely Fascism in Italy and Nazism in Germany.
3. Failure of the League of Nations to check acts of aggression by militarist states like Japan, Italy, and Germany.
4. Hitler's invasion of Poland in 1939, which served as the immediate trigger.

Teacher's Note:
a) Appeasement policies followed by Britain and France also emboldened Axis expansion.
b) Ensure all four major causes are clearly articulated.

Question 10.

With reference to the United Nations and its Specialized Agencies, answer the following :
(a) Mention any three functions of the International Court of Justice. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Settling legal disputes submitted by member states in accordance with international law (Contentious Jurisdiction).
2. Giving advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by the General Assembly, Security Council, or other authorized UN organs.
3. Interpreting international treaties and conventions when required.

Teacher's Note:
a) The ICJ is located at The Hague in the Netherlands.
b) Differentiate between its contentious and advisory roles.

(b) State the composition of the General Assembly. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The General Assembly consists of all member states of the United Nations.
2. Each member state can send up to five representatives to the assembly.
3. Regardless of the size of its delegation or country, each member state is entitled to cast only one vote.

Teacher's Note:
a) The General Assembly is often referred to as the 'Parliament of Man'.
b) Emphasize the principle of sovereign equality where every nation has one vote.

(c) State any two functions of the UNICEF and any two functions of WHO. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Functions of UNICEF:
1. Providing protective food, nutrition, and healthcare support to mothers and children in developing nations.
2. Providing emergency relief and aid to children affected by natural disasters, war, and epidemics.
Functions of WHO:
1. Promoting and coordinating international research to combat major diseases such as cancer, malaria, and tuberculosis.
2. Setting international health standards, food safety guidelines, and standardizing pharmaceutical products.

Teacher's Note:
a) UNICEF focuses on child welfare and development.
b) WHO focuses on global public health and disease control.