ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2015 with Solutions

ICSE Class 10 History And Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

PART I (30 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1

(a) Name the two houses of the Union Parliament. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The two houses of the Union Parliament are the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Remember that India has a bicameral legislature consisting of these two houses.
b) Students should write the formal names rather than just Upper House and Lower House.

(b) How many members are nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha? Which community do they represent? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Two members were nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha to represent the Anglo-Indian community (Note: This provision was later discontinued through the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, but is evaluated based on the historical curriculum context).

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure both parts of the question (number of members and community) are addressed.
b) Note the recent constitutional change regarding Anglo-Indian nomination for updated awareness.

(c) What is the required quorum to hold the meetings of the Lok Sabha? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The required quorum to hold meetings of the Lok Sabha is one-tenth (1/10th) of the total members of the House.

Teacher's Note:
a) Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present to transact business.
b) State the fraction clearly as 1/10th or 10 percent.

(d) Mention one provision of the Constitution which clearly establishes the supremacy of the Lok Sabha with regard to money-bills. [1 Mark]

Answer:
A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lok Sabha holds exclusive financial powers regarding the introduction of Money Bills.
b) Rajya Sabha can only delay a Money Bill for a maximum period of 14 days.

(e) Who has the power to promulgate an Ordinance at the Centre? When can it be promulgated? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The President of India has the power to promulgate an Ordinance at the Centre. It can be promulgated when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and the President is satisfied that immediate action is necessary.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
b) Both conditions (Parliament not in session and immediate action required) must be mentioned.

(f) Mention any one discretionary power of the President. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Appointment of the Prime Minister when no single party secures a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Discretionary powers are those exercised by the President without the advice of the Council of Ministers.
b) Other valid examples include giving assent to a bill or withholding it, or sending back a bill for reconsideration.

(g) State any one qualification necessary for the election of the President of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
He must be a citizen of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other qualifications include completing 35 years of age and being qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha.
b) Keep the answer precise and legally accurate.

(h) Who is the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Vice-President does not belong to the Rajya Sabha as an elected member but acts as its presiding officer.
b) Use the exact term ex-officio Chairman for full credit.

(i) What happens if a Vote of No-Confidence is passed against a Minister in the Lok Sabha? [1 Mark]

Answer:
If a Vote of No-Confidence is passed against a minister (or the cabinet), the entire Council of Ministers must resign, as the cabinet is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the principle of collective responsibility.
b) Individual resignation is not enough if the motion is against the government policy; the whole ministry falls.

(j) State one advantage of a Lok Adalat. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Lok Adalats provide speedy and inexpensive justice, as there are no court fees.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lok Adalats help in reducing the huge backlog of cases in regular courts.
b) Awards made by Lok Adalats are deemed to be decrees of a civil court and are final.

Question 2

(a) Mention two administrative changes that the British Government brought about regarding the East India Company's rule in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The rule of the East India Company was ended, and the administration of India was transferred directly to the British Crown.
2. The office of the Secretary of State for India was created in London, assisted by a 15-member Council of India, to oversee Indian administration.

Teacher's Note:
a) These changes were introduced by the Government of India Act of 1858 after the First War of Independence.
b) Clearly mention the transfer of power to the Crown and the creation of the Secretary of State post.

(b) Mention any two contributions of Jyotiba Phule in preparing the ground for the National Movement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. He founded the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 to propagate social equality and uplift lower castes.
2. He worked extensively for the education of women and lower-caste children by starting schools for them.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on social reform contributions that united people against inequality.
b) Mentioning the Satyashodhak Samaj adds specific historical value.

(c) Who founded the Home Rule Leagues in India? What was its objective? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant founded the Home Rule Leagues in India. Its objective was to attain self-government (Home Rule) for India within the British Empire.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tilak founded his league in April 1916 in Maharashtra, and Annie Besant founded hers in September 1916 in Madras.
b) The core objective was dominion status or self-government.

(d) Who is regarded as the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi? Give a reason for him being considered as the Mahatma's Guru. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Gopal Krishna Gokhale is regarded as the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi. He was considered his guru because upon returning to India, Gandhi accepted Gokhale's advice to spend the first year traveling across India to understand the conditions of the masses before participating in active politics.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name Gopal Krishna Gokhale correctly.
b) State the mentoring role he played in guiding Gandhi's early political path in India.

(e) Mention any two causes for the rise of Assertive Nationalism. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The failure of the Early Nationalists to achieve any substantial concessions from the British through their policy of prayer and petition.
2. Repressive policies of Lord Curzon, such as the Partition of Bengal and the Official Secrets Act.

Teacher's Note:
a) Assertive Nationalists (Radicals) believed in aggressive resistance rather than appeals.
b) Mentioning disillusionment with Early Nationalists and Curzon's policies forms complete points.

(f) Why was the Simon Commission rejected by the Congress? [2 Marks]

Answer:
The Simon Commission was rejected because it was an all-white commission with not a single Indian member included in it, which was seen as an insult to India's self-respect and right to determine its own constitution.

Teacher's Note:
a) The absence of Indian members was the primary cause of outrage leading to the slogan 'Simon Go Back'.
b) Point out that it denied the principle of self-determination.

(g) Who founded the Forward Bloc? Mention any one of its objectives. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Forward Bloc in 1939. One of its objectives was to liberate India with the support of the masses and establish a socialist state.

Teacher's Note:
a) Forward Bloc was formed after Bose resigned from the Congress presidency.
b) Emphasize socialist ideology and complete independence.

(h) What is the meaning of 'Fascism'? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Fascism is an authoritarian, ultranationalist political ideology characterized by dictatorial power, forcible suppression of opposition, and strict regimentation of society and the economy, as established by Benito Mussolini in Italy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight dictatorship, extreme nationalism, and suppression of democracy.
b) Mentioning Mussolini provides appropriate historical context.

(i) Name the two rival blocs formed in Europe before World War I. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Triple Entente (comprising Britain, France, and Russia)
2. The Triple Alliance (comprising Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy)

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure the distinction between Triple Entente and Triple Alliance is clear.
b) List the core nations for complete marks.

(j) What is meant by the term 'Non-Aligned Movement'? [2 Marks]

Answer:
The Non-Aligned Movement refers to an international organization of states that did not formally align with or against any major power bloc (such as the USA or the USSR) during the Cold War, maintaining independent foreign policies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize neutrality from the two Cold War power blocs.
b) Highlight independent decision-making in international affairs.

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section

Question 3

The Rajya Sabha is the second chamber of the Indian Parliament and represents the interest of the States. In this context explain the following:

(a) Its composition. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength of 250 members.
2. Of these, 238 members represent the States and Union Territories, and 12 members are nominated by the President from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.
3. The representatives of the States are elected by the elected members of State Legislative Assemblies through indirect election using the system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention total strength, nominated members, and elected representatives clearly.
b) Explain the indirect election method briefly for full credit.

(b) Qualifications for membership. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. A candidate must be a citizen of India.
2. He must not be less than 30 years of age.
3. He must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by Parliament and must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Note the minimum age requirement of 30 years (unlike 25 years for Lok Sabha).
b) Mention citizenship and absence of disqualifications like unsound mind or bankruptcy.

(c) Term of the House and two of its legislative powers. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Term of the House:
The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of its members retire every second year, and their seats are filled by fresh elections.
Legislative Powers:
1. Ordinary Bills: An ordinary bill can be introduced in either house of Parliament and must be passed by both houses before receiving presidential assent.
2. Constitutional Amendment Bills: A Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha separately by a special majority.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly state that Rajya Sabha is a permanent House.
b) Detail two distinct legislative powers regarding bills.

Question 4

The makers of our constitution adopted the Parliamentary and the Cabinet form of Government. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

(a) (i) Who is the Constitutional Head of the Union Government? [3 Marks]

(ii) What is meant by the Collective and Individual Responsibility of the members of the Cabinet?

Answer:
(i) The President of India is the Constitutional Head of the Union Government.
(ii) Collective Responsibility means that all ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha for all acts and policies of the government; they swim and sink together. Individual Responsibility means that individual ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President and are individually answerable for the departments under their charge.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish clearly between constitutional head (President) and real executive head (Prime Minister).
b) Differentiate collective responsibility (cabinet as a single unit) from individual responsibility (ministerial accountability).

(b) Explain briefly the position and powers of the Prime Minister in relation to the Cabinet. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Formation of Cabinet: The Prime Minister selects the ministers and recommends their names to the President for appointment.
2. Allocation and Reshuffling of Portfolios: The Prime Minister distributes portfolios among ministers and can reshuffle or reallocate portfolios at any time.
3. Head of the Cabinet: The Prime Minister presides over cabinet meetings, sets the agenda, and guides its decisions, ensuring unity and coordination among ministries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the Prime Minister's supreme position as the linchpin of government.
b) Mention specific cabinet-related powers such as formation and allocation.

(c) Distinguish between the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers. [4 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Use a comparative table format for clarity.
b) Focus on size, composition, and decision-making power as key differences.

Question 5

With reference to our Judiciary, discuss the following:

(a) Why is the Judiciary kept independent of the control of the Executive and the Legislature? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To ensure impartial justice without fear or favor, pressure, or interference from politicians or government officials.
2. To protect the Fundamental Rights of citizens against arbitrary actions of the Executive or Legislature.
3. To uphold the supremacy of the Constitution by exercising judicial review effectively.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judicial independence is a cornerstone of democracy.
b) Mention impartiality, protection of rights, and constitutional supremacy as key reasons.

(b) What do we mean when we refer to the Supreme Court and the High Court as a 'Court of Record'? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The judgments, proceedings, and acts of the Supreme Court and High Courts are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony.
2. These recorded judgments are used as legal precedents by subordinate courts in deciding similar cases.
3. These courts have the power to punish for their own contempt.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain both aspects: preservation of records as precedents and contempt power.
b) Emphasize that subordinate courts are bound to follow these precedents.

(c) Name the Writs that the High Courts are empowered to issue. What is meant by the Advisory Jurisdiction of the High Court? [4 Marks]

Answer:
The High Courts are empowered to issue writs of Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, and Certiorari.
Advisory Jurisdiction:
Unlike the Supreme Court, High Courts in India generally do not possess advisory jurisdiction to give legal advice to the Governor or President, as advisory jurisdiction is vested primarily in the Supreme Court under Article 143. (Note: State High Courts do not exercise advisory jurisdiction; students should clarify this constitutional distinction).

Teacher's Note:
a) List all five writs correctly.
b) Clarify that advisory jurisdiction is a prerogative of the Supreme Court rather than the High Court.

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section

Question 6

With reference to the growth of National consciousness in India explain each of the following:

(a) The immediate objectives of the Indian National Congress. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To develop and consolidate feelings of national unity among all citizens irrespective of caste, creed, or province.
2. To formulate popular demands and present them before the British government to secure administrative and political reforms.
3. To train and organize public opinion in the country in favor of national welfare.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on early nationalist goals like unity, public opinion, and reform petitions.
b) Avoid mentioning complete independence as an immediate goal, as Early Nationalists sought reforms within the British framework.

(b) Two contributions of Dadabhai Naoroji. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. He propounded the Drain Theory through his book 'Poverty and Un-British Rule in India', exposing how British economic policies were impoverishing India.
2. He founded the East India Association in London to create awareness among the British public regarding Indian grievances and was thrice elected President of the INC.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the Drain Theory as his most prominent contribution.
b) Note his role as 'Grand Old Man of India' and his association with the British public.

(c) The impact of the Swadeshi and the Boycott Movement. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Promotion of Indigenous Industries: Led to the establishment of indigenous textile mills, soap factories, and swadeshi stores across India.
2. Growth of National Education: Inspired the setting up of national schools and colleges independent of government control.
3. Cultural Awakening: Stimulated vernacular literature, patriotic songs like 'Vande Mataram', and nationalist art.
4. Mass Participation: Broke the elitist character of the national movement by drawing women, students, and workers into active political struggle.

Teacher's Note:
a) Detail both economic and social impacts of the movement.
b) Highlight how Swadeshi and Boycott served as powerful twin weapons.

Question 7

In 1930 Mahatma Gandhi's demands were rejected by the British, as a result of which he launched the Civil Disobedience Movement. In this context explain the following:

[Figure: Mahatma Gandhi and followers marching during the Salt March / Dandi March]

(a) Name the famous march undertaken by Gandhiji. Where did he begin this march? State two of its features. [3 Marks]

Answer:
The famous march was the Dandi March (or Salt March). It began from Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad.
Features:
1. Gandhi marched along with 78 chosen followers for 240 miles to the coastal village of Dandi to break the salt law.
2. It marked the formal inauguration of the nationwide Civil Disobedience Movement with widespread participation from women and masses.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name Dandi March and Sabarmati Ashram accurately.
b) Mention distance and the symbolic breaking of the salt law.

(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Pact as a consequence of this Movement. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The British government agreed to release all political prisoners not convicted of violence.
2. The government permitted people living near coastal areas to manufacture and collect salt for personal use.
3. The Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize mutual concessions made in the pact signed in March 1931.
b) Note the suspension of the movement and participation in the Round Table Conference.

(c) Significance of the Second Round Table Conference. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mahatma Gandhi attended the conference as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress.
2. The conference failed to achieve any concrete results because the British refused to grant immediate Dominion Status and raised the contentious issue of separate electorates for minorities.
3. It exposed the divide-and-rule policy of the British government through communal representation demands.
4. Upon his return to India empty-handed, Gandhi resumed the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight Gandhi's participation representing the INC.
b) State the reasons for failure and subsequent resumption of the movement.

Question 8

With reference to the transfer of power to India, answer the following:

(a) Explain the Cabinet Mission's proposals regarding the setting up of a Constitution making body. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. A Constituent Assembly should be elected to frame the Constitution for undivided India.
2. The Assembly would comprise 389 members, representing British provinces and princely states proportional to their population.
3. Seats in each province were to be distributed among three principal communities: General, Muslims, and Sikhs.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the composition and election method for the Constituent Assembly.
b) Mention community-based seat distribution.

(b) Mention any two clauses of the India Independence Act 1947. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. British rule in India would end on August 15, 1947, and power would be transferred to the two new dominions of India and Pakistan.
2. The office of the Secretary of State for India was abolished, and the suzerainty of the British Crown over the princely states lapsed.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the date of independence and creation of two dominions clearly.
b) Mention the abolition of the Secretary of State office.

(c) Why did the Congress accept the Mountbatten Plan? [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Partition was seen as the only practical alternative to prevent continuing communal riots and civil war.
2. Acceptance of the plan ensured immediate transfer of power with Dominion Status, leading to independence.
3. A smaller, united India under a strong central government could deal more effectively with internal and external challenges.
4. The Interim Government was experiencing deadlocks and obstructionist policies by the Muslim League, making joint administration unworkable.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain that acceptance was pragmatic to avoid widespread bloodshed.
b) Mention avoidance of civil war and realization of immediate freedom.

Question 9

The War that broke out in 1914 was different from the previous wars in many ways. In this context discuss the following points briefly:

(a) Militant Nationalism as a cause of the War. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Intense aggressive nationalism fostered chauvinism and hatred among European nations, where countries believed in the superiority of their own culture and national interests above all.
2. Aggressive policies led to bitter rivalries over colonial expansion, trade markets, and territorial acquisition in Asia and Africa.
3. Popular sloganized national pride made peaceful diplomatic compromise nearly impossible among major powers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain how aggressive national pride created hostility.
b) Link militant nationalism with colonial competition.

(b) How did the treaty of Versailles seek to cripple Germany's military strength? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Germany's army was severely restricted to a maximum of 100,000 men, and conscription was abolished.
2. The German navy was limited to a few warships, and the air force was completely banned.
3. The Rhineland was demilitarized and occupied by Allied troops to prevent any future military buildup.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus strictly on military restrictions imposed on Germany.
b) Mention troop limits, ban on air force, and demilitarization of the Rhineland.

(c) What was the territorial re-arrangement of Europe as a result of this War? [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Collapse of Empires: Four major empires collapsed: the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian, and Ottoman Empires.
2. Emergence of New States: Several new independent nations were created in Eastern and Central Europe, such as Poland, Czechoslovakia, Yugoslavia, Finland, and the Baltic states.
3. Territorial Losses for Germany: Germany lost Alsace-Lorraine to France, and parts of its territory to Poland.
4. Redrawing of Boundaries: The map of Europe was substantially redrawn based on the principle of national self-determination.

Teacher's Note:
a) List the fallen empires and newly formed nations.
b) Mention territorial changes affecting Germany for complete marks.

Question 10

The United Nations was established to be an effective peace keeping international organization. In this context explain the following:

(a) Its objectives and purposes. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain international peace and security and take effective collective measures for the prevention and removal of threats to peace.
2. To develop friendly relations among nations based on respect for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples.
3. To achieve international cooperation in solving international economic, social, cultural, or humanitarian problems.

Teacher's Note:
a) State peace, friendly relations, and global cooperation as the core UN objectives.
b) Quote the UN Charter principles accurately.

(b) The meaning of Human Rights as incorporated in the Human Charter. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Human rights are basic rights and freedoms inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion, or any other status.
2. They include the right to life and liberty, freedom from slavery and torture, freedom of opinion and expression, and the right to work and education.
3. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights sets out fundamental human rights to be universally protected across all member states.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize universality and inherent nature of human rights.
b) Mention key freedoms guaranteed under the charter.

(c) Name the agency that the UN set up to deliver relief to children and mothers after World War II. State any three of its functions. [4 Marks]

Answer:
The agency is UNICEF (United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund).
Functions:
1. Providing emergency food, nutrition, and healthcare support to mothers and children in developing and crisis-hit regions.
2. Promoting child health and welfare, immunization programs against major childhood diseases, and clean water access.
3. Assisting governments in planning and implementing long-term community-based services for child education and protection.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name UNICEF correctly with its full expanded form.
b) List three clear child-welfare functions for full credit.