ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2014 with Solutions

Class 10 History and Civics Solved Question Papers: ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2014 with Solutions

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ICSE Board Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

 

PART I (30 Marks)

 

Question 1

a) Who administers the oath of office to the Council of Ministers? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The President of India administers the oath of office and secrecy to the members of the Council of Ministers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students should remember that while the Prime Minister is appointed by the President, the entire Council of Ministers is also sworn in by the President.
b) Do not confuse this with the oath taken by the Speaker of Lok Sabha, which is administered by the President or a person appointed by him for that purpose.

 

b) Why is the Rajya Sabha called a 'Permanent house'? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Rajya Sabha is called a permanent house because it is not subject to dissolution; one-third of its members retire every two years, and new members are elected to fill their places.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that unlike the Lok Sabha, which can be dissolved before completing its full term, the Rajya Sabha is a continuous body.
b) Mentioning the specific tenure of members (six years) along with the retirement of one-third members every two years ensures full credit.

 

c) State the minimum number of times the Lok Sabha must meet in a year. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Lok Sabha must meet at least twice a year, with a gap of not more than six months between two consecutive sessions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students often write the number of sessions (three sessions: Budget, Monsoon, Winter) instead of the constitutional requirement regarding the maximum gap between sessions.
b) State clearly that the gap between two sessions cannot exceed six months.

 

d) State the composition of the Electoral College for the election of the President of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including Delhi and Puducherry).

Teacher's Note:
a) The key word to include is 'elected' members; nominated members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies do not vote in the presidential election.
b) Members of State Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishad) are also excluded from the Electoral College.

 

e) What is an 'Ordinance'? When can it be passed? [1 Mark]

Answer:
An Ordinance is a temporary law promulgated by the President of India (or Governor of a state) when the Parliament is not in session and immediate action is required.

Teacher's Note:
a) An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
b) Students must mention that it can only be passed when Parliament is not in session.

 

f) Mention one way by which the authority of the Prime Minister can be checked? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The authority of the Prime Minister can be checked by the Lok Sabha passing a Vote of No-Confidence against the ministry.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other valid points include the pressure from opposition parties, coalition partners, or the vigilance of public opinion and the media.
b) Keep the answer precise and focused on parliamentary mechanisms like a no-confidence motion.

 

g) What is understood by the term 'Individual Responsibility' in a Parliamentary Democracy? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Individual responsibility means that every individual minister is personally responsible for the efficient administration of the department under their charge and holds office during the pleasure of the President.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish this from collective responsibility, where the entire cabinet sinks or swims together.
b) Under individual responsibility, a minister can be asked to resign by the Prime Minister for inefficiency or failure in their ministry.

 

h) What is meant by a 'Single Integrated Judicial System' as provided in the Indian Constitution? [1 Mark]

Answer:
A single integrated judicial system means a hierarchical judicial setup where the Supreme Court is at the apex, followed by the High Courts at the state level, and subordinate courts below them, with all courts bound by the decisions of the Supreme Court.

Answer:
Appellate jurisdiction refers to the power of the High Court to hear appeals against the judgements, decrees, or orders of subordinate courts in both civil and criminal matters.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students should specify that it involves reviewing decisions made by lower courts.
b) It covers both civil and criminal cases tried by district courts and sessions courts.

 

j) State one point of distinction between the District Judge and the Sessions Judge. [1 Mark]

Answer:
When presiding over civil cases, the judge is known as the District Judge, whereas when presiding over criminal cases, the same judge is known as the Sessions Judge.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clarify that it is often the same judicial officer who wears two hats depending on the nature of the case.
b) District Judge deals with civil matters like property and land disputes, while Sessions Judge deals with criminal matters like theft, murder, and assault.

 

Question 2

a) State any two political causes responsible for the First War of Independence. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Subsidiary Alliance system introduced by Lord Wellesley and the Doctrine of Lapse applied by Lord Dalhousie, which threatened the sovereignty of Indian rulers.
2. The policy of annexation and disrespect shown to erstwhile ruling families, such as the annexation of Awadh on grounds of misgovernance and the declaration that the successors of Bahadur Shah Zafar would not be allowed to use the imperial palace.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensure political causes focus on governance, annexations, and policies affecting rulers, rather than economic or social issues.
b) Mentioning specific policies like the Doctrine of Lapse or subsidiary alliance fetches full marks.

 

b) What was the role of the press in promoting nationalistic sentiments amongst the Indians? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Newspapers like 'The Amrita Bazar Patrika', 'The Kesari', and 'The Hindu' helped spread modern ideas of liberty, equality, and self-government among the masses.
2. The press criticized unjust British economic and social policies, exposed administrative failures, and fostered a sense of national unity and political consciousness among Indians.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give examples of prominent nationalist newspapers to strengthen the answer.
b) Highlight how newspapers served as a powerful medium for educating public opinion against colonial rule.

 

c) Mention two important contributions of Lala Lajpat Rai. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. He was a prominent Assertive Nationalist leader (part of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio) who popularized the Swadeshi movement and advocated for complete self-reliance (Swaraj).
2. He founded the Punjab National Bank and the Lakshmi Insurance Company, and actively participated in social welfare and educational reforms through the Arya Samaj.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover both his political role as an extremist leader and his nation-building institutional contributions.
b) Mentioning his leadership during the protest against the Simon Commission (where he sustained fatal injuries) is also appreciated.

 

d) What were the two basic reasons responsible for the Surat Split in 1907 between the Early Nationalists and the Assertive Nationalists? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Difference in objectives and methods: Early Nationalists favored constitutional methods, petitions, and prayers, whereas Assertive Nationalists advocated direct action, boycott, and Swadeshi.
2. Dispute over the choice of the Congress session president and the scope of the Swadeshi and Boycott movement (whether it should be restricted to Bengal or extended nationwide).

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly contrast the ideological differences in working methods.
b) Mention the leadership clash regarding the presidential candidate at the Surat session.

 

e) Mention any one provision each of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed in 1931. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The British government agreed to release all political prisoners who were not convicted of violence.
2. The Indian National Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students must state one concession made by the government and one made by the Congress.
b) The right to make salt for personal consumption in coastal villages was another notable provision.

 

f) State two important objectives of the Indian National Army. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To organize an armed revolution and liberate India from British colonial rule with the help of foreign powers if necessary.
2. To mobilize all available resources of Indians living abroad (especially in Southeast Asia) for the total emancipation of the motherland.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on the armed struggle aspect led by Subhash Chandra Bose and Rash Behari Bose.
b) Mentioning the slogan 'Chalo Delhi' or the goal of complete independence adds clarity.

 

g) Name the three members of the Cabinet Mission. [2 Marks]

Answer:
The three members of the Cabinet Mission were:
1. Lord Pethick-Lawrence
2. Sir Stafford Cripps
3. A.V. Alexander

Teacher's Note:
a) This is a direct factual question; all three names must be spelt correctly.
b) Lord Pethick-Lawrence was the Secretary of State for India and the head of the Mission.

 

h) Mention any two terms of the Treaty of Versailles signed On June 28, 1919. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Germany was declared solely responsible for starting the First World War and was saddled with massive war reparations.
2. The German army was drastically reduced to 100,000 troops, the navy was restricted, and the air force was completely banned.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the war guilt clause (Article 231) and the military restrictions imposed on Germany.
b) Territorial losses (like Alsace-Lorraine) are also acceptable terms.

 

i) State two factors which were responsible for the failure of the League of Nations. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The United States, despite being the initiator under President Woodrow Wilson, never joined the League, which weakened its international authority.
2. The League lacked an independent military force to enforce its decisions against aggressive totalitarian nations like Italy, Japan, and Germany.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the absence of major powers like the USA and the policy of appeasement adopted by Britain and France.
b) Point out the lack of coercive power to implement resolutions.

 

j) Mention two functions of the General Assembly. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It serves as a deliberative forum to discuss any matters within the scope of the UN Charter and makes recommendations to member states.
2. It admits new member states to the United Nations upon the recommendation of the Security Council and approves the UN budget.

Teacher's Note:
a) Often referred to as the 'parliament of the world', the General Assembly discusses global issues.
b) Mentioning budgetary powers or election of non-permanent members of the Security Council ensures full marks.

 

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section

 

Question 3

With reference to the Indian Parliament, explain the following:

a) The tenure of the members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Lok Sabha: The normal tenure of the Lok Sabha is five years, though it can be dissolved earlier by the President upon the advice of the Prime Minister.
2. Rajya Sabha: It is a permanent house not subject to dissolution. The tenure of an individual member is six years, with one-third of its members retiring every two years.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly differentiate between the house tenure (Lok Sabha) and member tenure (Rajya Sabha).
b) Mentioning the dissolution clause for Lok Sabha is essential.

 

b) The composition of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Lok Sabha composition: It has a maximum strength of 550 members, with up to 530 members representing the states and up to 20 members representing the Union Territories (Note: Anglo-Indian nomination provision under Article 331 has ceased).
2. Rajya Sabha composition: It has a maximum strength of 250 members, out of which 238 represent states and union territories, and 12 members are nominated by the President from persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service.

Teacher's Note:
a) State current maximum sanctioned strengths clearly.
b) Highlight the nomination criteria for Rajya Sabha members by the President.

 

c) Its powers to make laws on subjects mentioned in the
i. Union List
ii. Concurrent List. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Union List: Parliament has exclusive power to make laws on subjects enumerated in the Union List, which includes matters of national importance such as defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, banking, and railways.
2. Concurrent List: Both Parliament and State Legislatures can make laws on subjects enumerated in the Concurrent List, which includes items like education, forest, civil and criminal procedure, and marriage. However, in case of a conflict between central and state laws on a Concurrent subject, the law made by Parliament prevails.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the word 'exclusive' for Union List and 'both' for Concurrent List.
b) Always mention the overriding power of Parliament in the Concurrent List.

 

Question 4

The Cabinet holds a pivotal position in the working of the Indian Parliamentary Government. In this context discuss the following:

a) The formation of the Cabinet. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. After general elections, the President appoints the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister.
2. On the advice of the Prime Minister, the President appoints other ministers and allocates portfolios to them, thus forming the Cabinet (the core group of senior ministers).

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain that the Cabinet is an inner body within the larger Council of Ministers.
b) Emphasize the crucial role of the Prime Minister in selecting ministers.

 

b) Any two administrative powers of the Cabinet. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Policy Formulation: The Cabinet decides domestic and foreign policies of the government, including matters relating to defense, economic reforms, and international relations.
2. Implementation of Laws and Coordination: It coordinates the functioning of various ministries and departments to ensure effective execution of laws and policies passed by Parliament, and makes key appointments to high constitutional and diplomatic posts.

Teacher's Note:
a) Administrative powers deal with executive execution and policy making.
b) Give clear headings or points for policy making and departmental coordination.

 

c) Any two legislative powers of the Cabinet. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Introduction of Bills: The Cabinet initiates most of the important bills (government bills) presented in Parliament and decides the legislative agenda during sessions.
2. Issuing Ordinances: When Parliament is not in session and urgent legislation is required, the Cabinet advises the President to promulgate ordinances.

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish legislative powers (relating to law-making and Parliament sessions) from administrative powers.
b) Mentioning the President's address to Parliament prepared by the Cabinet is also an accepted legislative function.

 

Question 5

With reference to the Supreme Court, explain its functions stated below:

a) Original Jurisdiction. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Original jurisdiction refers to the power of the Supreme Court to hear and decide disputes in the first instance, without requiring an appeal from a lower court.
2. It covers disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, or between the Government of India and any State(s) on one side and one or more States on the other.
3. It also covers disputes between two or more States regarding legal rights.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly state that original jurisdiction pertains to federal disputes.
b) Do not confuse this with its writ jurisdiction under Article 32.

 

b) Advisory Function. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the President of India can refer any question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court for its opinion.
2. The Supreme Court considers the reference and submits its report and advice to the President.
3. The advice given by the Supreme Court is advisory in nature and is not binding on the President, nor is it enforceable as a court judgment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that the President is not bound to accept the advice.
b) Mention the constitutional article or the advisory nature clearly.

 

c) As a guardian of Fundamental Rights. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Supreme Court is constituted as the protector and guarantor of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed to citizens under Part III of the Constitution.
2. Under Article 32, a citizen can directly approach the Supreme Court for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights if they are violated.
3. The Supreme Court has the power to issue prerogative writs such as Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo-Warranto, and Certiorari.
4. It can declare any legislative enactment or executive order null and void if it violates or infringes upon Fundamental Rights (judicial review).

Teacher's Note:
a) This is a crucial function often asked in board exams; mention Article 32.
b) Listing at least two or three writs adds necessary depth to the answer.

 

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section

 

Question 6

The establishment of the Indian National Congress led to the development of the National Movement in India. In this context answer the following:

a) When was the Indian National Congress established? Who presided over its first session? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Indian National Congress was established on December 28, 1885.
2. Its first session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee (W.C. Bonnerjee) in Bombay.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give both the exact date/year and the name of the first president clearly.
b) Mentioning Allan Octavian Hume as the founder is an added bonus point.

 

b) What were the four aims of the Congress? [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. To promote close friendly relations among nationalist workers from different parts of the country.
2. To develop and consolidate feelings of national unity irrespective of caste, religion, or province.
3. To formulate popular demands and present them before the government.
4. To train and organize public opinion in the country in favor of patriotic and national causes.

Teacher's Note:
a) These were the original objectives outlined by W.C. Bonnerjee and A.O. Hume during the formation of the INC.
b) State all four points clearly as bullet points.

 

c) Mention four basic beliefs of the Early Nationalists. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. They had firm faith in the British sense of justice, fair play, and honesty.
2. They believed that British rule was a boon for India and that India was not yet ready for immediate self-rule.
3. They believed in constitutional and peaceful methods such as prayers, petitions, meetings, and delegations.
4. They aimed at achieving administrative and political reforms within the framework of British rule rather than complete independence (Swaraj).

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly contrast Early Nationalists' beliefs with those of the Assertive Nationalists.
b) Keywords to include: 'faith in British justice', 'constitutional methods', 'reforms within British rule'.

 

Question 7

In the Nagpur session, 1920, the Congress ratified the resolution to launch the Non-Cooperation movement under the leadership of Gandhiji. In this context:

a) What do you understand by the term Non-Cooperation? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Non-Cooperation means peaceful and deliberate refusal to assist an unjust government or authority.
2. It involved the withdrawal of cooperation from the British administration, including the boycott of government schools, law courts, foreign goods, and legislative councils, combined with the promotion of Swadeshi.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that it was based on the principles of Satyagraha and Ahimsa (non-violence).
b) Mention the dual aspect: boycott of foreign/government items and promotion of indigenous (Swadeshi) items.

 

b) What were the objectives which the movement sought to achieve? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To redress the Punjab wrongs (punishment of British officers responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre).
2. To rectify the Khilafat wrong (restoration of the Sultan of Turkey / Khalifa and protection of holy places).
3. To attain Swaraj (self-government) for India.

Teacher's Note:
a) These three are the classic trinity of objectives for the Non-Cooperation Movement.
b) Mentioning Khilafat and Punjab wrongs shows clear understanding of the political background of 1920.

 

c) Explain the impact of the Non-Cooperation movement in India's struggle for freedom. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Mass Awakening: It transformed the national movement into a mass movement by drawing millions of peasants, workers, women, and students into the freedom struggle.
2. Psychological Impact: It instilled fearlessness among Indians and shattered the myth of British invincibility and moral authority.
3. Promotion of Swadeshi: It gave a massive boost to indigenous industries, handloom, and Khadi, while promoting national education through institutions like Kashi Vidyapith and Jamia Millia Islamia.
4. Hindu-Muslim Unity: The alliance between the Congress and the Khilafat movement fostered unprecedented communal harmony.
5. Shift in Methods: It demonstrated the immense power of non-violent Satyagraha as an effective weapon against colonial rule.

Teacher's Note:
a) For a 5-mark question, students should write at least 4 to 5 well-explained points.
b) Highlight how the movement changed the character of the freedom struggle from elite-driven to broad-based mass participation.

 

Question 8

[Figure: Portrait photograph of Lord Mountbatten in British Viceroy uniform]

With reference to the picture given above answer the following:

a) Identify the Viceroy in the picture. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Lord Louis Mountbatten.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identification questions carry 1 mark; spell the name accurately.
b) He was the last Viceroy of British India.

 

b) Why was he sent to India? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. He was sent to India as Viceroy to replace Lord Wavell with the specific mandate to transfer power to Indian hands.
2. He was tasked with resolving the political deadlock between the Congress and the Muslim League and arranging for a peaceful withdrawal or partition of British India by June 1948.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on the primary goal of transferring power.
b) Mentioning the expedited timeline for independence helps.

 

c) How did he plan to solve the communal problem existing in India? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. He proposed the Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947), which advocated for the partition of British India into two independent dominion states: India and Pakistan.
2. He provided for the division of Punjab and Bengal and ascertaining the wishes of the people in Sind, North-West Frontier Province (NWFP), and Assam through referendums or representative assemblies.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name the June 3 Plan clearly.
b) State partition as the primary solution adopted to resolve the intractable communal deadlock.

 

d) Why did the Congress accept the Plan? State three reasons to justify its acceptance. [5 Marks]

Answer:
1. Avoidance of Civil War: The country was witnessing widespread communal riots and violence; partition was seen as the only practical way to stop bloodshed and chaos.
2. Breakdown of Interim Government: The Muslim League had joined the Interim Government not to cooperate, but to obstruct its functioning, making a joint administration impossible.
3. Realization of Immediate Independence: Acceptance of the plan ensured the immediate transfer of power and independence for the major part of India, fulfilling decades of struggle.
4. A Smaller United India: A smaller, united India free from perpetual communal vetoes and obstructionist tactics could progress faster and maintain a strong central government.

Teacher's Note:
a) Even though the question asks for three reasons, providing four well-explained points ensures safety against minor deductions.
b) Emphasize that Congress leaders accepted partition reluctantly as a lesser of two evils to restore peace and secure independence.

 

Question 9

With reference to the causes of the Second World War answer the following:

a)

i. Explain how the ideologies of Fascism and Nazism led to the Second World War. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Aggressive Nationalism and Militarism: Both Italian Fascism (led by Mussolini) and German Nazism (led by Hitler) glorified war and aggressive imperialism, believing that nations must expand through conquest.
2. Rejection of Democracy and League of Nations: Both totalitarian regimes discarded democratic norms, individual liberty, and international agreements, openly violating the Treaty of Versailles and the Covenant of the League of Nations.
3. Policy of Expansion: Hitler's aggressive expansionist policy (seeking 'Lebensraum' or living space) and Mussolini's conquest of Ethiopia created continuous international crises, ultimately culminating in the invasion of Poland.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect the totalitarian ideologies directly to aggressive foreign policies.
b) Mention leaders (Hitler and Mussolini) and their expansionist goals.

 

ii. How did the Japanese invasion of China create conditions for the outbreak of the war? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Japanese Imperialism: Japan followed an aggressive imperialist policy in Asia, invading Manchuria in 1931 and launching a full-scale invasion of China in 1937.
2. Failure of Collective Security: The League of Nations failed to take effective punitive action against Japanese aggression, which emboldened the Axis powers (Germany, Italy, and Japan) to violate international treaties elsewhere.
3. Formation of Anti-Comintern Pact: Japan allied with Germany and Italy in 1937 through the Anti-Comintern Pact, linking Asian conflicts with European tensions and expanding the theater of war.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the link between Japanese expansion in Asia and the collapse of the global collective security system.
b) Mention the Axis alliance that unified conflicts across continents.

 

b) Explain the consequences of the war with reference to the formation of the United Nations. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Realization of Global Peace Organization: The immense destruction, loss of life, and horrors of the Second World War (including the use of atomic bombs) convinced world leaders that a stronger international organization than the failed League of Nations was urgently needed.
2. Drafting of the UN Charter: Representatives of 50 nations met at the San Francisco Conference and drafted the United Nations Charter, leading to the official establishment of the UN on October 24, 1945.
3. Primary Objectives: The United Nations was formed to maintain international peace and security, save succeeding generations from the scourge of war, promote fundamental human rights, and foster international cooperation in solving global problems.
4. Establishment of Principal Organs: It created a structured framework comprising the General Assembly, Security Council, International Court of Justice, Secretariat, Trusteeship Council, and Economic and Social Council to address global issues proactively.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on why the war necessitated a new world body.
b) Mention the date of establishment and core aims of the UN.

 

Question 10

With reference to the Non-Aligned Movement, explain the following:

a) 'Non-Alignment'. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Non-Alignment means not aligning with either of the two power blocs (the Western capitalist bloc led by the USA or the Eastern communist bloc led by the Soviet Union) during the Cold War.
2. It signifies maintaining national independence in foreign policy, freedom of judgment on international issues, and active participation in global peace efforts rather than passive neutrality or isolationism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clarify that non-alignment is not neutrality; it means judging each issue on its own merits.
b) Mention the two Cold War power blocs.

 

b) Two factors responsible for its formation. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Emergence of the Cold War: The intense bipolar division of the world into two rival military blocs (NATO and Warsaw Pact) threatened global peace and pressured newly independent nations to take sides.
2. Decolonization and Desire for Independence: The emergence of newly independent nations in Asia and Africa after centuries of colonial rule wished to safeguard their newly won sovereignty and pursue independent economic and foreign policies without foreign interference.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the bipolar Cold War context and the emergence of Afro-Asian nations.
b) Keep explanations clear and distinct for both factors.

 

c) Role of Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Founding Father: Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the principal founding fathers of the Non-Aligned Movement, alongside figures like Josip Broz Tito of Yugoslavia and Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt.
2. Formulation of Panchsheel: He championed the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence (Panchsheel) in 1954, which served as the philosophical bedrock of NAM.
3. Advocacy of Independent Foreign Policy: He consistently advocated for India and other newly decolonized nations to remain independent of superpower rivalry and focus on domestic economic development.
4. Champion of World Peace: Nehru utilized NAM as a platform to reduce Cold War tensions, oppose racial discrimination and apartheid, and promote disarmament and anti-imperialism globally.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize Nehru's role as a visionary architect of NAM.
b) Mentioning Panchsheel and his core principles adds high value to the answer.

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