ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2013 with Solutions

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions 2013

PART - I (30 Marks)

(Attempt all questions)

Question 1

a) Name the two types of authority in the federal setup of India. [1]

Answer:
The two types of authority in the federal setup of India are the Central Government (Union Government) and the State Governments.

Teacher's Note:
a) India has a dual polity consisting of the Union at the Centre and States at the periphery, each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the fields assigned to them respectively.
b) Students must clearly distinguish between the dual government setup and unitary features to score full marks.

b) What is meant by the term Universal Adult Franchise? [1]

Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise means that all citizens of the country who have attained the age of 18 years (or the prescribed voting age) are entitled to vote in elections without any discrimination on the grounds of caste, religion, race, sex, wealth, or place of birth.

Teacher's Note:
a) This principle embodies political equality and is a cornerstone of a democratic republic.
b) Ensure that the age limit and absence of discrimination are both mentioned for completeness.

c) How is the Speaker of the Lok Sabha elected? [1]

Answer:
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves soon after the newly elected House meets for the first time.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Speaker is chosen by a simple majority of members present and voting.
b) Note that the Speaker does not belong to any political party officially once elected, maintaining strict neutrality.

d) When can the Vice-President cast a vote in the Rajya Sabha? [1]

Answer:
The Vice-President, acting as the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, can cast a vote only in the case of a tie (when there is an equality of votes on both sides).

Teacher's Note:
a) This is known as a casting vote.
b) The Vice-President is not a member of the Rajya Sabha and therefore does not have an ordinary vote.

e) State one reason why the President is elected indirectly. [1]

Answer:
Direct election of the President would be anomalous and contrary to the parliamentary system of government established in India, where the Prime Minister and the Cabinet hold real executive power, making a directly elected President with enormous powers a potential center of constitutional conflict.

Teacher's Note:
a) An indirect election avoids a clash between the Prime Minister and the President, both claiming popular mandate.
b) A single valid reason as outlined in the textbook is sufficient for this 1-mark question.

f) Who is the Executive Head of the State? [1]

Answer:
The President of India is the Executive Head of the Union, and the Governor is the Executive Head of the State.

Answer:
The three categories of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers are: (1) Cabinet Ministers, (2) Ministers of State, and (3) Deputy Ministers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cabinet ministers hold independent charge of important portfolios and form the core decision-making body.
b) Listing all three categories clearly is essential to secure the full mark.

h) Explain the term 'Collective Responsibility'. [1]

Answer:
Collective responsibility means that the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha for all acts and policies of the government, and they swim and sink together as a team.

Teacher's Note:
a) A vote of no-confidence against a single minister results in the resignation of the entire ministry.
b) Mentioning that they act as a unified team is key to this definition.

i) Name the courts that are empowered to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. [1]

Answer:
The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the High Courts (under Article 226) are empowered to issue writs.

Teacher's Note:
a) Both apex courts share this original jurisdiction for protecting citizen rights.
b) Students must name both the Supreme Court and High Courts.

j) Which is the highest criminal court in a district? [1]

Answer:
The Court of the Sessions Judge is the highest criminal court in a district.

Teacher's Note:
a) It is presided over by a Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge.
b) Do not confuse criminal courts with civil courts (where the District Judge is the highest authority).

Question 2

a) What was the General Service Enlistment Act? [2]

Answer:
1. The General Service Enlistment Act was passed by Lord Canning's government in 1856.
2. It stipulated that all future recruits to the Bengal Army could be sent anywhere for service, both within and outside India, across the seas.

Teacher's Note:
a) This Act deeply hurt the religious sentiments of upper-caste Hindu soldiers who believed crossing the sea (Kala Pani) led to loss of caste.
b) Mentioning the year and the condition of overseas service fetches full marks.

b) What was the influence of Western education on the minds of educated Indians in the 19th century? [2]

Answer:
1. Western education introduced Indians to modern liberal ideas, democracy, nationalism, liberty, and equality propagated by Western thinkers like Locke, Mill, and Rousseau.
2. It created an intellectual middle class that began to critically analyze British economic exploitation and demand self-government and civil rights.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the exposure to political philosophies of freedom and democracy.
b) Point out how it fostered national consciousness and unity across different regions.

c) Who exposed the economic exploitation of India through his book 'Poverty and Un-British rule in India'? [2]

Answer:
Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India, exposed the economic exploitation of India and propounded the Drain Theory through his book 'Poverty and Un-British rule in India'.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning Dadabhai Naoroji correctly along with his book title is essential.
b) Briefly noting the 'Drain Theory' adds value to the answer.

d) What was the importance of the Lucknow Pact of 1916? [2]

Answer:
1. It brought about a historic reunion between the two wings of the Congress - Moderates and Assertive Nationalists.
2. It achieved a landmark political pact between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League, fostering Hindu-Muslim unity against the British administration.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize both the Congress reunion and the Congress-League pact.
b) This pact temporarily united nationalist forces to put joint political demands before the British.

e) Name the leaders of the Khilafat movement that was launched in India to champion the cause of the Caliph of Turkey. [2]

Answer:
The prominent leaders of the Khilafat movement in India were the Ali brothers (Maulana Mohammad Ali and Maulana Shaukat Ali), Maulana Abul Kalam Azad, Hakim Ajmal Khan, and Dr. M.A. Ansari.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mentioning the Ali brothers is mandatory.
b) Listing at least two or three key figures ensures full credit.

f) Why was the Simon Commission boycotted by the Indians? [2]

Answer:
1. The Simon Commission consisted entirely of seven British members of Parliament and did not include a single Indian member.
2. This exclusion was viewed by Indians as an insult to their self-respect and a denial of their inherent right to determine their own political future.

Teacher's Note:
a) The slogan "Simon Go Back" arose from this all-white composition.
b) State clearly that the total absence of Indian representation was the core reason for boycott.

g) What were the two proposals related to the Princely States in the Mountbatten Plan? [2]

Answer:
1. The treaties with the Princely States came to an end, and paramountcy of the British Crown over them lapsed.
2. The Princely States were given the free option to accede to either India or Pakistan, or to remain independent (though geographical and administrative realities were emphasized).

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the lapse of British paramountcy.
b) Mention the freedom given to states to join either Dominion.

h) What was the immediate cause of the First World War? [2]

Answer:
The immediate cause of the First World War was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, the heir to the Austro-Hungarian throne, and his wife by a Serbian nationalist in Sarajevo on June 28, 1914.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name the victim (Archduke Franz Ferdinand) and the location (Sarajevo).
b) Mentioning the date or the assassin's affiliation (Serbia) adds complete accuracy.

i) What is meant by the term Cold War? [2]

Answer:
1. The Cold War refers to a state of tense political hostility, military tension, and ideological rivalry that existed between the Western powers (led by the USA) and the Communist bloc (led by the USSR) after World War II.
2. It was fought through diplomatic maneuvers, propaganda, and economic pressure without direct large-scale armed combat between the two superpowers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that it was a war of nerves without direct military conflict between USA and USSR.
b) Mention the two rival power blocs.

j) Name the two architects of NAM. [2]

Answer:
The prominent architects of the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru (India), Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia), and Gamal Abdel Nasser (Egypt). (Any two).

Teacher's Note:
a) Students can name any two of the key founding fathers.
b) Nehru and Tito are the most commonly expected answers.

PART - II (50 Marks)

SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section.

Question 3

Discuss the relationship between the two houses of the State Legislature with reference to the following:

a) Money Bills [3]

Answer:
1. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) and not in the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad).
2. After a Money Bill is passed by the Assembly, it is transmitted to the Legislative Council, which has very limited powers and must return it within 14 days with or without recommendations.
3. If the Council fails to return the bill within 14 days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Assembly.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the absolute supremacy of the Legislative Assembly in financial matters.
b) Note the 14-day time limit for the Legislative Council.

b) Non-Money Bills [3]

Answer:
1. Ordinary (non-money) bills can originate in either House of the State Legislature.
2. If a bill passed by the Assembly is rejected by the Council, or the Council proposes amendments not acceptable to the Assembly, or the Council fails to pass it for three months, a deadlock arises.
3. Ultimately, the will of the Legislative Assembly prevails over the Legislative Council, as the Council can only delay an ordinary bill for a maximum period of four months (three months in the first instance and one month upon re-introduction).

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the total duration of delay permitted by the Council.
b) Highlight that bicameral legislatures in states give secondary revisionary powers to the upper house, not veto powers.

c) Control over the Executive [4]

Answer:
1. The real control over the executive rests with the Legislative Assembly, as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Legislative Assembly.
2. Members of the Assembly can exercise control by asking questions, moving adjournment motions, calling attention notices, and proposing cut motions during budget discussions.
3. The Assembly alone has the power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the ministry, forcing the Chief Minister and the Cabinet to resign.
4. The Legislative Council has limited powers of control; its members can ask questions and discuss matters of public interest, but they cannot remove the government through a no-confidence vote.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly distinguish the power of the Assembly versus the Council regarding executive accountability.
b) Mention tools like questions, debates, and no-confidence motions.

Question 4

At the Head of the Council of Ministers of the State is the Chief Minister, who is the real Executive Head of the State. In this context, explain the following:

a) The appointment of the Chief Minister. [3]

Answer:
1. The Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor of the state.
2. Conventionally, the Governor invites the leader of the majority party or coalition in the State Legislative Assembly to form the government and take oath as Chief Minister.
3. In case no single party gets a clear majority, the Governor exercises discretionary power to invite the person most likely to command a majority in the House to prove it within a stipulated timeframe.

Teacher's Note:
a) State clearly that the Governor makes the appointment.
b) Explain the role of majority support in the Assembly.

b) His relationship with the Council of Ministers. [3]

Answer:
1. The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers; ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
2. He allocates and reshuffles portfolios among the ministers and can ask any minister to resign or advise the Governor to dismiss them.
3. He presides over cabinet meetings, coordinates policies, and his resignation or death automatically dissolves the entire Council of Ministers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the keystone position of the Cabinet arch held by the Chief Minister.
b) Mention portfolio allocation and the power of dismissal.

c) His relations with the Governor of the state. [4]

Answer:
1. The Chief Minister acts as the principal channel of communication between the Governor and the Council of Ministers.
2. It is the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to state administration and proposals for legislation.
3. The Chief Minister furnishes such information relating to state affairs as the Governor may call for.
4. The Governor makes key appointments (such as members of the State Public Service Commission, Advocate General, etc.) on the aid and advice of the Chief Minister and the Cabinet.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the constitutional duty under Article 167 regarding communication of decisions.
b) Emphasize that the Chief Minister is the chief advisor to the constitutional head.

Question 5

The Country's judicial system has a Supreme Court at its apex. In this context, discuss the following:

a) Manner of the appointment of judges. [3]

Answer:
1. Every judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. For the appointment of the Chief Justice of India, the President consults such judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts as deemed necessary.
3. For appointing other judges, the President consults the Chief Justice of India and a collegium of senior-most judges of the Supreme Court to ensure judicial independence.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the role of the President in making appointments.
b) Explain the consultation process involving the CJI and the collegium system.

b) Term of office and removal of judges. [3]

Answer:
1. Term of Office: A judge of the Supreme Court holds office until attaining the age of 65 years, unless they resign in writing addressed to the President or are removed earlier.
2. Removal: A judge can be removed from office only by an order of the President passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting) in the same session.
3. Grounds for removal: Proven misbehavior or incapacity.

Teacher's Note:
a) State the retirement age clearly (65 years).
b) Describe the rigorous impeachment process (special majority in both Houses on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity).

c) Its power of 'Judicial Review'. [4]

Answer:
1. Judicial Review is the power of the Supreme Court to examine the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State Governments.
2. If any law or executive order is found to be in contravention of any provision of the Constitution, the Supreme Court can declare it ultra vires (unconstitutional, null, and void).
3. This power ensures that the Constitution remains the supreme law of the land and protects citizens' Fundamental Rights against arbitrary state action.
4. It acts as a vital check on the legislature and executive, upholding the principle of constitutionalism.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define judicial review clearly as the power to check laws against constitutional provisions.
b) Explain its role in safeguarding fundamental rights and maintaining federal balance.

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section.

Question 6

The early Congressmen were liberal in their views and programmes. This led to the rise of radical nationalists who demanded more forceful action against the British. In this context, discuss the following:

a) Reasons why the early Congressmen were called 'Moderates'. [3]

Answer:
1. They had deep faith in British sense of justice, fair play, and integrity.
2. Their methods were peaceful and constitutional, involving prayers, petitions, meetings, speeches, and memorandums.
3. They did not demand complete independence (Swaraj) immediately; instead, they sought gradual constitutional reforms, expansion of legislative councils, and administrative changes within the British framework.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight their faith in British justice and peaceful petition methods.
b) Point out their moderate political objectives.

b) How did the Moderates differ from the Assertive Nationalists in realising their objectives? [3]

Answer:
1. Methods: Moderates relied on peaceful, constitutional methods like petitions and prayers, whereas Assertive Nationalists adopted aggressive methods like Swadeshi, Boycott, National Education, and passive resistance.
2. Goal: Moderates aimed at self-government and administrative reforms within the British Empire, whereas Assertive Nationalists demanded complete independence (Swaraj) as their birthright.
3. Faith: Moderates believed in British benevolence and justice, while Assertive Nationalists had no faith in British promises and relied on self-reliance and mass action.

Teacher's Note:
a) Structure this as a comparison covering methods, goals, and outlook.
b) Keywords like 'Prayers and Petitions' versus 'Swadeshi and Boycott' are essential.

c) How did Tilak bring a new wave in Indian politics that was distinct from the early Congressmen? [4]

Answer:
1. Swaraj as a Birthright: Bal Gangadhar Tilak boldly declared, "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it," shifting the political goal from colonial self-government to complete independence.
2. Mass Mobilization: He transformed the national movement from a middle-class affair into a mass movement by using traditional festivals like Ganpati and Shivaji festivals to awaken political consciousness.
3. Direct Action: He advocated robust methods of Swadeshi, Boycott of British goods, and national education instead of relying on moderate petitions.
4. Fearless Journalism: Through his newspapers 'Kesari' and 'Maratha', he fearlessly criticized British repressive policies and aroused national pride among the masses.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight his famous slogan on Swaraj.
b) Mention the use of popular festivals and newspapers for mass awakening.

Question 7

The reasons for the formation of the Muslim League were many. In this context, explain:

a) Any three factors that led to the formation of the League in India. [3]

Answer:
1. Loss of Sovereignty: Muslims had ruled India before the British; after the 1857 revolt, the British blamed Muslims and adopted an anti-Muslim policy, which later shifted to a policy of 'Divide and Rule'.
2. Rise of Communalism: Certain British officials and Anglo-Indian press encouraged the feeling of separatism among Muslims to counter the growing nationalist movement.
3. Educational and Economic Backwardness: Due to initial reluctance to adopt Western education, Muslims lagged behind in jobs and representation, leading ambitious leaders to seek separate safeguards.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain British policy of divide and rule and historical background.
b) Mention the educational and economic disparities.

b) Any three demands made by the Muslim Deputation in 1906 to the Viceroy Lord Minto. [3]

Answer:
1. Separate Electorates: They demanded separate electorates for Muslims in municipal and legislative elections.
2. Weightage in Representation: They asked for representation in legislative bodies in excess of their actual numerical proportion in the population, considering their historical importance.
3. Preferential Treatment: They demanded special concessions and preference in government jobs and appointments.

Teacher's Note:
a) Separate electorates was the most critical demand accepted through the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909.
b) Ensure all three distinct demands are clearly listed.

c) The aims and objectives of the Muslim League. [4]

Answer:
1. To promote among Indian Muslims feelings of loyalty to the British Government and to remove any misconceptions regarding government intentions.
2. To protect and advance the political rights and interests of Muslims in India and to represent their needs to the government in a mild and respectful manner.
3. To prevent the rise of hostile feelings between Muslims and other communities in India without prejudice to the aforementioned objectives.
4. To foster unity and cooperation between Muslims and other sections of society where possible, while securing special safeguards for Muslim interests.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention loyalty to the British as an initial founding aim.
b) Highlight the protection of Muslim political rights and interests.

Question 8

The Congress Working Committee passed the famous 'Quit India Resolution' at Wardha in July 1942. With reference to this, answer the following questions:

a) What were the reasons behind the passing of this resolution? [3]

Answer:
1. Failure of Cripps Mission: The proposals brought by Sir Stafford Cripps offered dominion status only after the war and failed to meet Indian nationalist demands.
2. Japanese Threat: The rapid advance of Japanese forces towards the Indian borders made immediate national defense imperative, which Indians felt could only be defended effectively by a free government.
3. Popular Discontent: Rising prices, shortages of essential commodities (rice, salt), and fear of a scorched-earth policy in Bengal and eastern regions created immense anger against British misrule.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect the resolution to the failure of the Cripps Mission.
b) Mention the imminent threat of Japanese invasion and wartime economic hardship.

b) What was the British government's reaction to the Quit India Movement? [4] / [3]

Answer:
1. Repression: The British government reacted with swift and brutal repression, banning the Congress party and arresting all top leaders (including Mahatma Gandhi, Nehru, and Azad) overnight on August 9, 1942.
2. Ordinance Rule: Emergency ordinances were promulgated, imposing strict press censorship, curfews, and collective fines on villages.
3. Use of Force: Police and military opened fire on peaceful processions, resorted to lathi charges, public flogging, and air straffing in some areas to crush the uprising.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight the pre-dawn arrests of all prominent leaders.
b) Describe the widespread use of police and military force.

c) What was the impact and significance of this movement? [4]

Answer:
1. Mass Awakening: It demonstrated the deep-rooted desire of the Indian masses for freedom and proved that the British could no longer rule India against the will of its people.
2. Underground Resistance: It gave rise to underground activities led by leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan, Aruna Asaf Ali, and Ram Manohar Lohia.
3. Paralysis of British Administration: For several weeks, British authority was paralyzed in parts of UP, Bihar, Bengal, and Maharashtra.
4. Inevitability of Independence: It made it clear to the British that India could not be held back from freedom for long, paving the way for post-war negotiations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that it was a leaderless, spontaneous mass uprising.
b) Point out its psychological impact in sealing the doom of British rule.

Question 9

Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:

[Figure: A photograph of Adolf Hitler in military uniform saluting, with troops in the background and the Nazi swastika symbol visible.]

a) Identify the leader in the picture. [3]

Answer:
The leader in the picture is Adolf Hitler, the dictator of Nazi Germany.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the personality accurately from the military uniform and Nazi insignia.
b) State his role as Führer of Germany.

b) State any four factors that led to the rise of dictatorships in Germany and Italy. [3]

Answer:
1. Humiliation of the Treaty of Versailles: The harsh terms of the Treaty of Versailles deeply wounded German national pride and caused economic ruin.
2. Economic Crisis: Post-war economic devastation, hyperinflation, mass unemployment, and the Great Depression (1929) created widespread despair.
3. Failure of Democratic Governments: The Weimar Republic in Germany and the parliamentary system in Italy proved weak, unstable, and unable to maintain law and order.
4. Growth of Communist Threat: Fear of a communist revolution alarmed industrialists and the middle class, leading them to support authoritarian leaders like Mussolini and Hitler who promised stability.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cover the economic distress and humiliation of Versailles.
b) Mention the failure of democratic institutions and fear of communism.

c) Why did he invade Poland? State two similarities between Fascism and Nazism. [4]

Answer:
1. Invasion of Poland: Hitler invaded Poland on September 1, 1939, to secure the 'Polish Corridor' and reconnect East Prussia with the rest of Germany, which had been severed by the Treaty of Versailles. This act directly triggered the Second World War.
2. Similarity 1: Both ideologies rejected democracy and parliamentary systems, believing instead in a totalitarian state led by a supreme dictator with absolute power (Duce in Italy, Führer in Germany).
3. Similarity 2: Both glorified war, aggression, and extreme nationalism, while suppressing all forms of political opposition, freedom of speech, and independent press.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the geopolitical reason for invading Poland (Polish Corridor).
b) Clearly list the two core similarities (dictatorial leadership and rejection of democracy).

Question 10

The United Nations Organisation was established to maintain peace and 'promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.' With reference to this, explain the following:

a) The composition of the Security Council. [3]

Answer:
1. The Security Council consists of 15 member states in total.
2. It has 5 permanent members: USA, UK, France, Russia, and China, each wielding veto power.
3. It has 10 non-permanent members elected by the UN General Assembly for a term of two years on a regional rotation basis.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the total membership and distinguish permanent from non-permanent members.
b) Name the 5 permanent members and mention their veto power.

b) The functions of the Security Council with related to maintaining World Peace. [3]

Answer:
1. To investigate any international dispute or situation that might lead to international friction.
2. To recommend methods of peaceful settlement or terms of adjustment for disputes.
3. To call upon member states to apply economic sanctions and diplomatic boycotts, or to take military action (collective security) against an aggressor nation to restore international peace.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on dispute investigation and peaceful settlement.
b) Highlight its power to enforce economic and military sanctions.

c) The role of UNESCO in the development of Science and Technology. [4]

Answer:
1. Promotion of Scientific Research: UNESCO promotes international scientific cooperation by organizing global conferences, symposia, and research networks in fields like geology, ecology, and marine biology.
2. Technology Transfer and Education: It assists developing countries in framing science and technology policies, establishing technical training institutes, and upgrading scientific laboratories.
3. Protection of Environment: It runs major scientific programs like 'Man and the Biosphere' (MAB) to balance human interaction with natural ecosystems and promote sustainable development.
4. Dissemination of Knowledge: It encourages the exchange of scientific information, publications, and grants fellowships for scientists from developing nations to study abroad.

Teacher's Note:
a) Detail UNESCO's role in fostering international scientific cooperation.
b) Mention support for technical education and environmental research.