ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Board Exam Question Paper 2012 with Solutions

ICSE Class 10 History And Civics Board Exam Question Paper with Solutions

PART I (30 Marks)

Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1

(a) What is meant by a federal structure of government? [1 Mark]

Answer:
A federal structure of government means a system where power is divided between a central government and regional or state governments by the Constitution, with both levels exercising independent authority in their respective spheres.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize the dual government setup and constitutional division of powers.
b) Students often confuse federalism with unitary government; ensure they mention the division of power.

(b) Who is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Speaker is elected by the members of the Lok Sabha from amongst themselves.
b) Do not write Chairman, as Chairman presides over the Rajya Sabha.

(c) Name the two Houses of a Bicameral Legislature. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The two Houses of a Bicameral Legislature are the Upper House (e.g., Rajya Sabha / Legislative Council) and the Lower House (e.g., Lok Sabha / Legislative Assembly).

Teacher's Note:
a) A bicameral legislature consists of two distinct chambers.
b) Generalizing or giving specific national examples like Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is accepted.

(d) Who settles disputes in connection with the election of the Vice President? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Supreme Court of India settles all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of the Vice President.

Teacher's Note:
a) The decision of the Supreme Court in this regard is final.
b) Remember that presidential and vice-presidential election disputes go directly to the Supreme Court, not the High Court.

(e) When can an ordinance be issued by the President? [1 Mark]

Answer:
An ordinance can be issued by the President when both Houses of Parliament (or either House) are not in session, and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary to take immediate action.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament.
b) Must mention that Parliament is not in session for the answer to be complete.

(f) Under which situation may the President exercise his discretion in selecting the Prime Minister? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The President may exercise discretion in selecting the Prime Minister when no single party or coalition gets a clear majority in the Lok Sabha (a hung parliament).

Teacher's Note:
a) In normal circumstances, the leader of the majority party is appointed automatically.
b) Discretionary power arises only during political instability or a hung house.

(g) By whom and on whose advice can the Legislative Assembly be dissolved? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The Legislative Assembly can be dissolved by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Chief Minister holds the executive power to recommend dissolution before the expiry of the full term.
b) Ensure both the authority (Governor) and the advising party (Chief Minister) are clearly specified.

(h) Mention the grounds on which a Judge of the Supreme Court be removed? [1 Mark]

Answer:
A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.

Teacher's Note:
a) The removal requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament through an impeachment process.
b) Avoid writing general terms like corruption; use the exact constitutional terms 'proved misbehaviour or incapacity'.

(i) What is the purpose of the writ of prohibition? [1 Mark]

Answer:
The writ of prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent them from exceeding their jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction they do not possess.

Teacher's Note:
a) It is a preventive writ issued while proceedings are still pending in the lower court.
b) Emphasize that it stops a subordinate body from acting outside its legal bounds.

(j) Which jurisdiction will give the High Court the authority to hear cases regarding Admiralty and Contempt of Court? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Original Jurisdiction.

Teacher's Note:
a) Certain matters like admiralty, divorce, contempt of court, and wills fall directly under the Original Jurisdiction of select High Courts.
b) Students often confuse this with Appellate Jurisdiction; make sure to learn special categories under Original Jurisdiction.

Question 2

(a) Mention any two social reforms advocated by the British which affected the religious traditions of the people. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Abolition of Sati in 1829.
2. Introduction of the Widow Remarriage Act (1856) and the Religious Disabilities Act (1850) which allowed a convert from other religions to inherit ancestral property.

Teacher's Note:
a) These reforms were perceived by orthodox Indians as direct interference in their traditional religious customs.
b) Give exact names of Acts or practices to score full marks.

(b) Name any two methods through which the Moderates carried their agitation. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Passing resolutions and submitting petitions, prayers, and memorials to the government.
2. Sending delegations of Indian leaders to Britain to build public opinion in favor of Indian demands.

Teacher's Note:
a) Moderates believed in constitutional and peaceful agitation within the framework of the law.
b) Keywords to include are petitions, prayers, and public meetings.

(c) Name the two Weeklies through which Tilak spread the message of liberty. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Kesari (in Marathi)
2. The Mahratta (in English)

Teacher's Note:
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak used these newspapers to awaken national consciousness among the masses.
b) Ensure correct spelling of both journals and remember their respective languages.

(d) Who founded the Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College at Aligarh? Name the Viceroy who was responsible for granting separate representation to the Muslims in 1909. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded the Mohammedan Anglo Oriental College at Aligarh.
2. Lord Minto was the Viceroy responsible for granting separate representation to Muslims through the Morley - Minto Reforms of 1909.

Teacher's Note:
a) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan established the institution in 1875, which later became Aligarh Muslim University.
b) Lord Minto is often referred to in connection with the introduction of communal electorates.

(e) Which tragic incident prompted Gandhiji to launch the Non Cooperation Movement? Why was the Khilafat Movement launched? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919) prompted Gandhiji to launch the Non - Cooperation Movement.
2. The Khilafat Movement was launched to protest against the injustice done to Turkey and the Khalifa by the British after the First World War.

Teacher's Note:
a) The convergence of the Khilafat and Non - Cooperation movements created Hindu - Muslim unity.
b) Clearly mention both the tragic trigger (Jallianwala Bagh) and the specific grievance of Muslims (treatment of Turkey/Khilafat).

(f) Which country was blamed for the assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand? Which treaty was the symbol of humiliation to the German people? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Serbia was blamed for the assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand.
2. The Treaty of Versailles was the symbol of humiliation to the German people.

Teacher's Note:
a) The assassination in Sarajevo triggered the chain of events leading to World War I.
b) The Treaty of Versailles imposed harsh territorial and financial penalties on Germany.

(g) What is the term of office of the President of the International Court of Justice? Who elects the non - permanent members of the Security Council? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The President of the International Court of Justice has a term of office of 3 years.
2. The non - permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the General Assembly.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judges of the ICJ serve a 9 - year term, but the President and Vice - President are elected by the judges themselves for 3 years.
b) General Assembly election requires a two - thirds majority.

(h) What was the Marshall Plan? Name any two military alliances that came into being as a consequence of Cold War. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Marshall Plan was the US financial assistance program for the economic recovery of war - torn European countries after World War II.
2. Two military alliances: NATO (North Atlantic Treaty Organization) and the Warsaw Pact.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Marshall Plan was officially known as the European Recovery Program, aimed at checking the spread of communism.
b) NATO and Warsaw Pact represent the classic bipolar military blocs of the Cold War.

(i) Mention any two functions of the World Health Organisation. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To promote and coordinate international efforts to control and eradicate major endemic and epidemic diseases like malaria and tuberculosis.
2. To set international standards for food, biological, and pharmaceutical products.

Teacher's Note:
a) WHO is the specialized agency of the UN concerned with international public health.
b) Keep answers precise, focusing on disease control and health standard setting.

(j) Who were the architects of the Non - Aligned Movement? [2 Marks]

Answer:
The chief architects of the Non - Aligned Movement were:
1. Jawaharlal Nehru (India)
2. Josip Broz Tito (Yugoslavia)
3. Gamal Abdel Nasser (Egypt)
(Students may mention any two or all three).

Teacher's Note:
a) NAM was founded during the Cold War to enable developing countries to maintain independence from major power blocs.
b) Mentioning at least two key leaders with their countries is essential for full marks.

PART II (50 Marks)

SECTION A

Attempt any two questions from this Section

Question 3

With reference to the Union Parliament and the State Legislature, discuss:

(a) The procedure laid down for the passage of money bills by the State Legislature. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) on the recommendation of the Governor.
2. Once passed by the Assembly, it is transmitted to the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad), which has a maximum delay period of 14 days to make recommendations or pass it.
3. If the Council fails to return the bill within 14 days or the Assembly rejects its recommendations, the bill is deemed passed by both Houses in the form passed by the Assembly.

Teacher's Note:
a) Money bills enjoy supremacy of the Lower House in states just like at the Centre.
b) Highlight the 14 - day limitation of the Legislative Council.

(b) The circumstances under which the Union Parliament may make laws on subjects in the State List. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rajya Sabha Resolution: If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two - thirds majority declaring that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a State List subject.
2. Proclamation of Emergency: When a national emergency or President's Rule is in operation in a state.
3. International Agreements: To implement treaties, international agreements, or conventions entered into by India with other countries.
4. Request by Two or More States: If legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting Parliament to enact laws on State List matters for them.

Teacher's Note:
a) These provisions illustrate the federal flexibility tilted towards a strong Centre in the Indian Constitution.
b) Students must state at least three clear circumstances for full credit.

(c) The grounds for disqualifying a person from being a member of the Rajya Sabha. [4 Marks]

Answer:
A person is disqualified for being chosen as and for being a member of the Rajya Sabha if:
1. He holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State.
2. He is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court.
3. He is an undischarged insolvent.
4. He is not a citizen of India, or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state, or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state.
5. He is disqualified under any law made by Parliament (such as the Anti - Defection Law / Tenth Schedule).

Teacher's Note:
a) Qualifications and disqualifications form an important pillar of parliamentary democracy.
b) Mentioning office of profit, unsound mind, insolvency, and anti - defection covers all major points.

Question 4

Assess the position of the Governor and the Chief Minister under the following heads:

(a) The judicial powers of the Governor. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
2. The Governor can suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.
3. The Governor is consulted by the President in the appointment of judges of the State High Court.

Teacher's Note:
a) Note that unlike the President, the Governor cannot pardon a death sentence (only the President has that power) and cannot pardon court martial punishments.
b) Clearly distinguish state executive judicial powers from presidential powers.

(b) The power of the Chief Minister in relation to the State Legislature. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Leader of the House: The Chief Minister acts as the chief spokesperson and leader of the ruling party in the State Legislative Assembly.
2. Advising the Governor: The Chief Minister advises the Governor regarding the summoning, proroguing, and dissolving of the State Legislative Assembly.
3. Announcement of Policies: All major government policies and legislative proposals are announced or introduced in the legislature under the guidance of the Chief Minister.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Chief Minister bridges the executive branch and the legislature at the state level.
b) Focus points should include guiding legislation and advising on assembly sessions.

(c) The legislative powers of the Governor. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Summoning and Proroguing: The Governor summons and prorogues the sessions of the State Legislature and can dissolve the Legislative Assembly.
2. Opening Address: The Governor addresses the State Legislature at the commencement of the first session each year.
3. Assent to Bills: No bill passed by the State Legislature can become a law without the Governor's assent; the Governor can give assent, withhold assent, or reserve a bill for the consideration of the President.
4. Ordinance Making Power: The Governor can promulgate ordinances when the legislature is not in session under Article 213.
5. Nomination: The Governor nominates members to the Legislative Council (if bicameral) representing science, arts, literature, cooperative movement, and social service.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Governor is an integral part of the State Legislature.
b) Listing any four distinct legislative powers is sufficient for full marks.

Question 5

Our Constitution provides for the establishment of an independent, integrated judiciary with the Supreme Court as the final tribunal in the country. In this context, explain:

(a) The meaning and scope of Original Jurisdiction. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Original jurisdiction means the power of the Supreme Court to hear and decide disputes in the first instance, without requiring an appeal.
2. It extends to federal disputes involving legal rights between the Centre and one or more States, or between two or more States.
3. It also includes cases concerning the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under Article 32.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize that these are cases that cannot be filed initially in any lower court.
b) Mention federal disputes and fundamental rights enforcement.

(b) The term Judicial Review. Why is the Supreme Court described as a Court of Record? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Judicial Review: It is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutional validity of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments, and declare them null and void if they violate the Constitution.
2. Court of Record: The Supreme Court is a Court of Record because its judgments, proceedings, and acts are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony, and its decisions are binding on all lower courts across the country. It also has the power to punish for its contempt.

Teacher's Note:
a) Address both parts of the question clearly (Judicial Review and Court of Record).
b) Mentioning the power to punish for contempt is vital for the definition of Court of Record.

(c) The independence of the judiciary from the control of the executive. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Appointment of Judges: Judges are appointed by the President in consultation with the judiciary (collegium system), minimizing direct political interference.
2. Security of Tenure: Supreme Court judges hold office until the age of 65 years and cannot be removed easily except through a difficult impeachment process in Parliament.
3. Fixed Salaries and Allowances: Salaries, allowances, and pensions of judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and cannot be altered to their disadvantage during their term of office (except during a financial emergency).
4. Prohibition on Practice: Retired judges of the Supreme Court are barred from pleading or acting in any court or before any authority within the territory of India.
5. Contempt Power: The judiciary has the power to punish anyone for its contempt, protecting it from malicious attacks and interference.

Teacher's Note:
a) Judicial independence is essential for safeguarding democracy and the rule of law.
b) Listing four strong constitutional safeguards ensures full marks.

SECTION B

Attempt any three questions from this Section

Question 6

The revolt of 1857 had far - reaching effects on the administrative setup, judicial administration and military organization in India. In this context, discuss:

(a) Rights granted to the Indian princes. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The policy of annexation was abandoned, and Indian princes were assured that their territories would never be annexed.
2. Their right of adoption was recognized, allowing them to adopt heirs in the absence of natural successors.
3. The Indian rulers were required to acknowledge the British Queen as the sovereign paramount power (Paramountcy).

Teacher's Note:
a) This marked a shift in British policy from aggressive expansion to utilizing princes as loyal buffers.
b) Mentioning the right of adoption and end of annexation is crucial.

(b) Rise of nationalism in India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Racial Discrimination: The arrogance and racial discrimination practiced by the British against Indians created deep resentment and unity.
2. Economic Exploitation: British economic policies destroyed traditional handicrafts and drained India's wealth, fostering common anti - British sentiment.
3. Western Education and Press: Introduction of English education exposed Indians to liberal Western political thought, democracy, and nationalism, while the press played a vital role in national awakening.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Revolt of 1857 created a sense of collective grievance, laying the foundation for national unity.
b) Focus on racial discrimination, economic exploitation, and Western education.

(c) The changes introduced in the administrative setup of the British territories in India. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. End of Company Rule: Government of India Act 1858 transferred the administration of India directly from the East India Company to the British Crown.
2. Creation of Secretary of State: A new office, the Secretary of State for India, a member of the British Cabinet, was created in London, assisted by a 15 - member India Council.
3. Viceroy Appointed: The Governor - General of India was given the additional title of Viceroy, acting as the direct representative of the Crown in India (Lord Canning being the first Viceroy).
4. Civil Services Act: The Indian Civil Services Act of 1861 introduced open competitive examinations, though Europeans retained dominant control.

Teacher's Note:
a) These structural changes centralized control under the British Parliament and Crown.
b) Clearly mention the Crown takeover, Secretary of State, and the Viceroy.

Question 7

The period between 1905 and 1914 saw the rise of aggressive nationalism. In this context, state:

(a) The contribution of Tilak to the freedom struggle. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Popularized Swadeshi and Boycott: Tilak championed Swadeshi and Boycott movements as weapons of political struggle against the Partition of Bengal.
2. Assertion of Swaraj: He famously declared, "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it," instilling self - reliance and pride among Indians.
3. Mass Mobilization: He revived traditional festivals like Ganpati and Shivaji festivals to connect with the masses and foster national unity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak was the undisputed leader of the assertive nationalists (extremists).
b) Always quote his famous slogan on Swaraj when discussing his contribution.

(b) Those measures that illustrate the repressive policies of Lord Curzon. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Partition of Bengal (1905): Divided the province ostensibly for administrative efficiency, but actually to curb the rising tide of nationalism and divide Hindus and Muslims.
2. The Calcutta Corporation Act (1899): Reduced the number of elected Indian members in the Calcutta Corporation, increasing official control.
3. The Indian Universities Act (1904): Stricter government control over universities and reduced autonomy of college syndicates to curb nationalist activities among students.

Teacher's Note:
a) Lord Curzon's policies were deeply unpopular and acted as catalysts for the nationalist movement.
b) Mention Bengal Partition, Calcutta Corporation Act, and Universities Act.

(c) The achievements of the aggressive nationalists. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Shift from Mendicancy to Self - Reliance: They replaced the Moderates' policy of prayers and petitions with active resistance, self - reliance, and direct political action.
2. Popularized Swadeshi and Boycott: Successfully transformed Swadeshi and Boycott into powerful mass movements that crippled British trade.
3. Inculcated National Pride: Revived pride in Indian culture, heritage, and history, making patriotism a mass sentiment.
4. Broadened the Social Base: Brought the urban middle classes, youth, students, and sections of workers into the mainstream freedom struggle.

Teacher's Note:
a) The assertive nationalists galvanized public opinion and paved the way for Gandhian mass movements.
b) Highlight the shift in political methods and popularizing Swadeshi.

Question 8

[Figure: Historic photograph showing Mahatma Gandhi leading a group of people walking with walking sticks, representing the Dandi March.]

(a) Name the historic event associated with the picture given above. With this event, the Indian National Congress launched a national movement in 1930. Name the movement and the causes leading to this movement. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Historic Event: The Dandi March (Salt March).
2. Movement Launched: Civil Disobedience Movement.
3. Causes Leading to the Movement:
    a) Rejection of the Nehru Report recommendations by the British government.
    b) Worldwide Great Depression of 1929 which severely hit Indian peasants and workers.
    c) British refusal to grant Dominion Status within the stipulated one - year deadline.
    d) Unpopular Salt Tax imposed by the government which affected every section of society, especially the poor.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the Dandi March correctly from the visual prompt.
b) Mention the Civil Disobedience Movement and list at least two clear economic and political causes.

(b) Why was the movement suspended? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The movement was suspended following the signing of the Gandhi - Irwin Pact in March 1931.
2. As per the pact, the government agreed to release all political prisoners not convicted of violence.
3. The Indian National Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Gandhi - Irwin Pact marked a temporary truce between the Congress and the British administration.
b) Emphasize the release of political prisoners and participation in the Round Table Conference.

(c) Why was the movement renewed? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Failure of the Second Round Table Conference: Mahatma Gandhi returned empty - handed from London as the British refused to concede the demand for Dominion Status.
2. Repressive Policies: Upon his return, Gandhi found that the British government had let loose a reign of terror and broken the terms of the Gandhi - Irwin Pact by arresting leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru and Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.
3. Ordinance Rule: The Viceroy, Lord Willingdon, had issued several repressive ordinances suppressing fundamental civil liberties.

Teacher's Note:
a) The renewal occurred because the British adopted a hardline stance after the Second Round Table Conference.
b) Mention the failure of talks in London and the renewal of government repression.

Question 9

The Cabinet Mission Proposal evoked a mixed reaction from the leaders of both the congress and the Muslim League. In this context, state briefly:

(a) Any four proposals made by the Cabinet Mission. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Federal Union: Proposal for a Federal Union of India comprising both British Indian provinces and Princely States, controlling Foreign Affairs, Defense, and Communications.
2. Three - Tier Grouping: The provinces were to be grouped into three sections (Section A - Hindu majority provinces, Sections B and C - Muslim majority provinces).
3. Constituent Assembly: A Constituent Assembly was to be elected through indirect elections by provincial legislative assemblies to frame the Constitution of India.
4. Interim Government: An Interim Government was to be set up at the Centre with the support of major political parties until a new constitution was framed.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Cabinet Mission tried to keep India united while accommodating provincial autonomy demands.
b) Mention the Union, grouping of provinces, Constituent Assembly, and Interim Government.

(b) The reaction of the Congress to the Cabinet Mission proposals. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Congress accepted the proposal for the Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution.
2. However, it had reservations regarding the compulsory grouping of provinces, interpreting it differently from the Muslim League.
3. Congress accepted the formation of the Interim Government to steer the administration during the transition phase.

Teacher's Note:
a) Congress accepted the long - term plan with certain legal reservations.
b) Highlight acceptance of the Constituent Assembly and Interim Government.

(c) The reaction of the League to the Cabinet Mission proposals, and later rejection of the Cabinet Mission proposals. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Initial Acceptance: The Muslim League initially accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan because the grouping of provinces contained the implicit seed of Pakistan.
2. Later Rejection: The League rejected the plan later because Congress leaders stated that provinces could opt out of groups at the very outset, and Congress insisted on its own interpretation of grouping.
3. Direct Action Day: Frustrated, the League withdrew its acceptance and called for 'Direct Action Day' on August 16, 1946, leading to widespread communal violence.

Teacher's Note:
a) Trace the shift in the Muslim League's stance from conditional acceptance to outright rejection.
b) Mention the trigger for rejection (Congress stance on grouping) and the ultimate call for Direct Action Day.

Question 10

With reference to the First World War:

(a) Mention any three objectives of the League of Nations. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. To maintain international peace and security by preventing future wars.
2. To promote international cooperation in economic and social spheres.
3. To encourage disarmament among member nations.
4. To ensure member states respect and preserve each other's territorial integrity and political independence against external aggression.

Teacher's Note:
a) The League of Nations was established under the Treaty of Versailles after WWI.
b) Listing any three clear objectives earns full credit.

(b) Describe briefly any three results of the First World War. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Treaty of Versailles: Imposed harsh and humiliating peace terms on defeated Germany, sowing seeds for World War II.
2. Fall of Empires: Led to the collapse of four major empires - Austro - Hungarian, Ottoman, Russian, and German.
3. Formation of the League of Nations: Created as an international body to maintain world peace.
4. Redrawing of Map of Europe: Emergence of several new independent nation - states such as Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Yugoslavia.

Teacher's Note:
a) The consequences of WWI reshaped the geopolitical landscape of the world.
b) Mentioning the Treaty of Versailles, fall of empires, and the League of Nations covers the primary historical points.

(c) What do you mean by Human Rights? Many commissions are playing an active role in the implementation of Human Rights. In this connection, describe the role of any one commission. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Meaning of Human Rights: Human rights are basic rights and freedoms inherent to all human beings, regardless of race, sex, nationality, ethnicity, language, religion, or any other status, including the right to life, liberty, equality, and freedom of expression.
2. Role of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC):
    a) Inquiry into Complaints: It inquires suo motu or on a petition presented to it by a victim or any person on his behalf into complaints of violation of human rights.
    b) Visiting Jails: It inspects jails and detention places to study the living conditions of inmates and makes recommendations thereon.
    c) Promoting Awareness: It promotes human rights literacy and awareness through seminars, publications, and media.
    d) Recommending Compensation: It recommends compensation to victims of human rights violations by public authorities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define Human Rights universally and link it to statutory bodies like the NHRC in India.
b) Ensure both the general definition and specific functions of the chosen commission (e.g., NHRC) are clearly written.