ICSE Class 10 Geography Board Exam Question Paper 2025 with Solutions

ICSE EXAMINATION PAPER - 2025
GEOGRAPHY
(H.C.G. Paper - 2)
Class-10th
(Solved)

PART I (30 Marks)
(Attempt all questions from this Part.)

Question 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. G43S10 and answer the following questions:

(i) (a) Give the six-figure grid reference for spot height .437 in the southeastern part of the map extract. [2 Marks]

Answer:
673295.

Teacher's Note:
a) Six-figure grid references divide a grid square into 10 equal parts along eastings and northings.
b) The third and sixth digits represent the estimated tenths within the grid square.
c) Always ensure you read eastings first followed by northings.

(b) Aman, a local craftsman, wants to sell his product to a large gathering to earn money instantly.
1. Which settlement should he go to?
2. Name the month in which he should visit the settlement named by you above. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Pamera (6233) large settlement.
2. March as annual fair is organised in month of March.

Teacher's Note:
a) Read the map symbols and accompanying text carefully for fairs and markets.
b) Large settlements hosting fairs provide the best commercial opportunities.
c) Check topographical map marginal information for fair months.

(ii) (a) On which bank of the Sukli nadi is the settlement of Pamera situated? [2 Marks]

Answer:
Pamera is situated on the right bank of the Sukli Nadi.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bank direction is determined by facing downstream (the direction in which the river flows).
b) Trace the course of the Sukli Nadi carefully through the grid squares.
c) Right and left banks must be stated clearly based on the flow direction.

(b) Identify the settlement pattern seen in the grid square 6732. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Dispersed.

Teacher's Note:
a) Dispersed settlement patterns consist of isolated or scattered dwellings.
b) Look for widely spaced red dots or small structures in the grid square.
c) This pattern is common in hilly or forested regions.

(iii) (a) Roshan, while travelling from Sirori to Tokra, observed that the surface water sources are dry except for the reservoir near Tokra.
1. What according to you may be the reason for the presence of water in the reservoir in 6832 near Tokra settlement?
2. State whether this reservoir is artificial or natural source of water. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The embankments made obstruct the flow of water and helps to store water for dry months.
2. This reservoir is an artificial source of water.

Teacher's Note:
a) Reservoirs represented with black embankments are artificial bunds constructed across streams.
b) They conserve seasonal rainwater for irrigation and domestic use during dry periods.
c) Embankments are denoted by black lines with inner ticks or spurs.

(iv) (a) What is the direct distance between Gulabganj to Pithapura? Give your answer in kilometre. [2 Marks]

Answer:
The direct distance is approximately 3 km.

Teacher's Note:
a) Measure the straight-line distance between the two specified points using a divider or straight edge.
b) Convert the measured distance using the topographical map scale (2 cm = 1 km).
c) Allow a minor tolerance limit as per ICSE guidelines.

(b) Mention the compass direction of Pithapura from Gulabganj. [1 Mark]

Answer:
The compass direction of Pithapura from Gulabganj is Northeast.

Teacher's Note:
a) Place your mental or physical compass centered on the reference point (Gulabganj).
b) Determine the bearing towards the target point (Pithapura).
c) Write standard 8-point or 16-point compass directions.

(v) (a) Name two man-made features seen in the grid square 6534. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Cart tracks, Temples, permanent huts (Any two).

Teacher's Note:
a) Man-made features are cultural features built by humans.
b) Refer to the standard conventional signs and symbols chart for topographical maps.
c) List any two distinct features visible in the specified grid square.

(b) Define contour interval. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Contour interval is the vertical difference in elevation between adjacent contour lines on a topographic map.

Teacher's Note:
a) Memorise standard definitions for topographical map terms.
b) Mention that it represents height differences, not horizontal distance.
c) Standard SOI topographical maps typically use a 20-metre contour interval.

Question 2
On the outline map of India provided:

[Figure: Outline political map of India showing geographical features, rivers, ranges, and places requested in sub-parts (i) to (x).]

(i) Mark and label the Nathu-La pass. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Marked on the border between Sikkim and Tibet.

Teacher's Note:
a) Practice locating important Himalayan passes on outline maps.
b) Ensure accurate positioning along international boundaries.
c) Label clearly with arrows pointing directly to the feature.

(ii) Shade and name the coastal plain that occupies a large part of Kerala. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Malabar Coast.

Teacher's Note:
a) Shade the western coastal strip south of Goa accurately.
b) Distinguish between Konkan, Kannada, and Malabar coasts.
c) Neat shading enhances legibility.

(iii) Mark and label Digboi. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Marked in northeastern Assam.

Teacher's Note:
a) Digboi is known as the oldest oil refinery town in India.
b) Locate it carefully in the upper Brahmaputra valley.
c) Use a dot with a clear label.

(iv) Mark and label Chilka lake. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Marked along the coast of Odisha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Chilika is India's largest brackish water lagoon.
b) Located south of the Mahanadi delta along the eastern coast.
c) Draw a small water body representation with a clear label.

(v) Mark with arrows and name the wind that brings rainfall to Tamil Nadu coast during winter. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Northeast Monsoon.

Teacher's Note:
a) Draw arrows originating from the land towards the Bay of Bengal pointing towards Tamil Nadu.
b) Label them clearly as Northeast Monsoon.
c) Note that these winds pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal.

(vi) Mark and label the river Sutlej. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Marked flowing through Punjab into the Indus.

Teacher's Note:
a) Trace the northernmost of the five major rivers of Punjab.
b) Draw a smooth blue line originating outside India and flowing southwest.
c) Label it correctly.

(vii) Mark and label the Standard Meridian of India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
82.5° E longitude.

Teacher's Note:
a) Draw a straight vertical line passing through Mirzapur near Prayagraj.
b) Label it with the exact degree value (82.5° E longitude).
c) It determines the Indian Standard Time (IST).

(viii) Mark and label Satpura range. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Marked between Narmada and Tapti rivers in central India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Locate the hill range running parallel to the Vindhyas across central India.
b) Use a mountain range symbol or neat line with the label.
c) Position it correctly between the Narmada and Tapti river valleys.

(ix) Shade and label the Chota Nagpur plateau. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Shaded in parts of Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal.

Teacher's Note:
a) Shade the mineral-rich plateau region lying east of the central highlands.
b) Cover parts of Jharkhand and adjoining states accurately.
c) Label clearly inside the shaded area.

(x) Mark and label Visakhapatnam. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Marked on the coast of Andhra Pradesh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Visakhapatnam is a major natural harbour and port city on the east coast.
b) Locate it centrally along the coast of Andhra Pradesh.
c) Mark with a clear dot and label.

Question 3
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options.
(Do not copy the questions, write the correct answers only.) [10 Marks]

(i) Assertion (A): Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune.
Reason (R): Mumbai gets rain from Arabian Sea branch of southwest monsoon.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false and (R) is true. [1 Mark]

Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).

Explanation: Mumbai is located on the windward side of the Western Ghats. Thus, it is directly exposed to the Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoon. Whereas, Pune being located on the leeward side, receives less rainfall.

Teacher's Note:
a) Understand the concept of windward and leeward sides of mountains.
b) Orographic rainfall is heavier on the windward slopes facing moisture-laden winds.
c) Both statements are scientifically linked.

(ii) Which of the following pairs of soils displays similar characteristics in terms of their colour and texture?
(A) Alluvial soil and laterite soil
(B) Black soil and red soil
(C) Red soil and laterite soil
(D) Alluvial soil and black soil [1 Mark]

Answer: (C) Red soil and laterite soil

Explanation: Both red soil and laterite soil are rich in iron oxide, giving them a reddish colour. They also have a coarse texture and are well-drained.

Teacher's Note:
a) Compare soil properties like mineral content, texture, and colour.
b) Red and laterite soils develop in areas of high temperature and varying rainfall with abundant iron oxides.
c) Eliminate mismatched pairs through process of elimination.

(iii) The type of natural vegetation shown in the picture given below is found in:
[Figure: Line drawing showing tall evergreen trees with dense canopy layers and climbers/epiphytes]
(A) Tropical desert
(B) Tropical deciduous
(C) Tropical evergreen
(D) Littoral forest [1 Mark]

Answer: (C) Tropical evergreen

Explanation: The tall, dense trees with multiple canopy layers indicate a tropical evergreen forest, which is found in regions with high annual rainfall of approximately 200 cm, along with high humidity levels, like the Western Ghats and Northeastern India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the multi-tiered canopy characteristic of tropical rainforests.
b) Note the absence of a distinct shedding season.
c) Correlate vegetation density with high rainfall regions.

(iv) Which of the following prevents wastage of water?
(A) Canal
(B) Well
(C) Sprinkler
(D) Tube well [1 Mark]

Answer: (C) Sprinkler

Explanation: Sprinkler irrigation ensures efficient water distribution, reducing evaporation and runoff, thus preventing wastage. It is commonly used in regions facing water scarcity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Modern irrigation techniques conserve water compared to traditional flood irrigation.
b) Sprinklers mimic natural rainfall over crops.
c) Surface canals and wells often suffer from high seepage and evaporation losses.

(v) Balaghat: Manganese:: Mumbai High: ________
(A) Copper
(B) Coal
(C) Iron Ore
(D) Petroleum [1 Mark]

Answer: (D) Petroleum

Explanation: Balaghat in Madhya Pradesh is known for manganese production, whereas Mumbai High is an offshore oil field in the Arabian Sea and a major source of petroleum in India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Match mineral/resource extraction centres with their respective minerals.
b) Mumbai High is India's premier offshore petroleum deposit.
c) Balaghat is synonymous with rich manganese deposits.

(vi) A microbiological process that loosens the bark of a crop and facilitates removal of fibre from the stalk:
(A) Rolling
(B) Ratooning
(C) Retting
(D) Fermentation [1 Mark]

Answer: (C) Retting

Explanation: Retting is a biological process where microorganisms break down the pectin that binds fibres to the stalk, making fibre removal easier. It is used in the processing of jute, flax and hemp fibres.

Teacher's Note:
a) Retting is an essential post-harvesting step for fibre crops like jute.
b) It involves soaking stalks in water to rot the outer bark.
c) Do not confuse with ratooning, which is a method of sugarcane cultivation.

(vii) Which industry amongst the following has revolutionised the lifestyle of the Indian masses in recent years?
(A) Cotton Textile
(B) Electronic
(C) Iron and Steel
(D) Sugar [1 Mark]

Answer: (B) Electronic

Explanation: The electronics industry has drastically changed the daily lifestyle of Indians by introducing mobile phones, the internet, computers and digital transactions, thereby influencing communication, business and education.

Teacher's Note:
a) Information technology and electronics have permeated every aspect of modern daily living.
b) They facilitate instantaneous communication and data access.
c) Traditional manufacturing industries serve different infrastructural needs.

(viii) Which of the following household products is associated with the petrochemical industry?
(A) Glass bottle
(B) Wooden chopping board
(C) Kitchen knife
(D) Plastic mug [1 Mark]

Answer: (D) Plastic mug

Explanation: Plastic is made from polymers which are derived from petrochemicals, which come from crude oil and natural gas.

Teacher's Note:
a) Petrochemical industries produce synthetic resins, plastics, and synthetic fibres.
b) Glass, wood, and steel originate from silicate, timber, and iron ore respectively.
c) Plastic items are direct products of petrochemical processing.

(ix) Raman, a dairy farmer in Ludhiana, supplies milk within the city on a daily basis. Which mode of transport is he most likely to use?
(A) Railway
(B) Roadway
(C) Airway
(D) Waterway [1 Mark]

Answer: (B) Roadway

Explanation: Road transport is the most efficient and flexible way for local milk distribution within a city, allowing door-to-door delivery. Railways, airways and waterways are not suitable for short-distance daily deliveries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Road transport offers door-to-door service and maximum flexibility.
b) Perishable goods requiring quick local transit rely heavily on roadways.
c) Railways and waterways cater to bulk long-distance freight.

(x) The collection of discarded materials and converting them into useful products is:
(A) Recycling
(B) Processing
(C) Reducing
(D) Composting [1 Mark]

Answer: (A) Recycling

Explanation: Recycling is the process of reusing waste materials to create new products, thereby reducing environmental pollution. Processing is a general term for manufacturing. Reducing focuses on minimising waste. Composting involves converting organic waste into fertilizer.

Teacher's Note:
a) Differentiate between the 3Rs (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle) and composting.
b) Recycling physically transforms waste material into usable raw material or goods.
c) It is a key strategy in sustainable waste management.

PART II (50 Marks)
(Attempt any five questions from this Part.)

Question 4

(i) 'Severe cyclonic storms are often formed over the Bay of Bengal during the retreating monsoon season'.
(a) Name two states that are affected by cyclones on the eastern coast of India.
(b) The temperate cyclones cause less damage than the tropical cyclones.
Give any two points to support this statement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Odisha and Andhra Pradesh are often affected by tropical cyclones on the eastern coast of India.
(b) Temperate cyclones cause less damage than tropical cyclones due to:
- Weaker winds: Temperate cyclones have wind speeds of 30-60 km/h, whereas tropical cyclones can exceed 200 km/h, causing widespread destruction.
- Less storm surge: Tropical cyclones bring intense storm surges, leading to severe flooding, while temperate cyclones usually cause moderate rainfall and winds.

Teacher's Note:
a) Associate eastern coastal states with tropical storm impacts during retreating monsoon.
b) Compare wind speed and destruction capacity between temperate and tropical cyclones.
c) Highlight storm surges as a major destructive feature of tropical cyclones.

(ii) (a) Name the local wind that causes rainfall in the states of Assam and West Bengal in the month of March.
(b) How is this rainfall beneficial for the states mentioned above? [2 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Nor'westers, also known as Kalbaisakhi, are violent thunderstorms that bring pre-monsoon rainfall to eastern India, especially in Assam and West Bengal, during April-May.
(b) Nor'westers are beneficial to Assam and West Bengal in the following ways:
- The rain benefits paddy, jute and tea plantations, which are vital crops in Assam and West Bengal.
- It provides temporary relief from the summer heat by cooling temperatures before the monsoon.

Teacher's Note:
a) Learn local pre-monsoon winds across different regions of India (e.g., Kalbaisakhi, Mango Showers, Loo).
b) Connect pre-monsoon showers with specific plantation crops like tea and jute.
c) Emphasise their dual role in agriculture and temperature moderation.

(iii) With reference to Figure A and Figure B given below, answer the questions that follow:
[Figure: Two outline maps of India. Figure A shows arrows pointing towards the Indian landmass from the southwest (Southwest Monsoon). Figure B shows arrows blowing from the northeast towards the Indian landmass and ocean (Northeast Monsoon).]
(a) Name the winds shown by arrows in Figure A and Figure B.
(b) How is the wind shown in Figure A different from the one shown in Figure B? [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Winds shown in Figure A: Southwest Monsoon Winds.
Winds shown in Figure B: Northeast Monsoon Winds.
(b) Figure A (Southwest Monsoon): Blows from the sea (Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal) towards the land, bringing moisture and rainfall during the summer months (June-September).
Figure B (Northeast Monsoon): Blows from the land towards the sea, typically during the winter months (October-December). It carries less moisture and brings rainfall primarily to the Coromandel Coast (Tamil Nadu).

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify monsoon wind directions based on map arrow trajectories.
b) Contrast the summer onshore winds with winter offshore winds.
c) Note seasonal timing and precipitation zones for each wind system.

(iv) Study the climate data of station X and answer the following questions:

(a) What is the annual range of temperature for station X?
(b) Which is the wettest month?
(c) Name the wind which brings rainfall for station X during the rainy season. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Annual Range of Temperature = Maximum Temperature - Minimum Temperature
- Highest Temperature: 30.0 °C (May) - Lowest Temperature 24.0 °C (January) = 6.0 °C
- Hence, Annual Range = 6.0 °C
(b) July is the wettest month with the highest rainfall of 61.0 cm.
(c) Southwest Monsoon Winds - These winds originate from the Indian Ocean, carry moisture and bring heavy rainfall to India from June to September.

Teacher's Note:
a) Recall that Annual Range of Temperature is Highest Temperature minus Lowest Temperature.
b) Identify maximum rainfall value from the table to determine the wettest month.
c) Correlate peak summer monsoon months (June-September) with Southwest Monsoon winds.

Question 5

(i) The Ganga Plain is known for its fertile soil. It is often referred to as the food bowl of India. This region supports a variety of crops such as rice, wheat, pulses, jute and sugarcane.
(a) Name the soil that is found in large parts of Ganga plain.
(b) Give two properties of this soil which helps it to produce a variety of crops. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Alluvial Soil - Found in northern India, particularly in the Indo-Gangetic plains.
(b) Properties of Alluvial Soil:
- Alluvial soil contains potash, phosphoric acid and lime, making it highly fertile for crops like rice, wheat and sugarcane.
- Alluvial soils retain water, making them suitable for irrigation and multiple cropping.

Teacher's Note:
a) Associate the Indo-Gangetic plain directly with Alluvial soil.
b) List chemical and physical fertility properties of alluvial soil.
c) Emphasise mineral richness and water retention capacity.

(ii) (a) What is meant by soil erosion?
(b) Name any two agents of soil erosion. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Soil erosion is the removal of the top fertile layer of soil by natural agents like wind and water, leading to land degradation.
(b) Agents of Soil Erosion:
- Water through runoff, heavy rainfall and floods.
- Strong winds they blow especially in arid and semi-arid regions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define soil erosion as the stripping away of upper fertile topsoil.
b) Mention primary natural agents (running water and wind).
c) Human activities can also accelerate natural erosion agents.

(iii) Give a geographical reason to explain each of the following:
(a) Soil conservation is the need of the hour.
(b) Red soil has a poor water retention capacity.
(c) Laterite soils are infertile. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Soil conservation is the need of the hour because it is a non-renewable resource. Continuous deforestation, overgrazing and intensive farming lead to soil degradation, making soil conservation essential for maintaining agricultural productivity and preventing desertification.
(b) Red soil is porous and rich in iron, but it lacks humus and clay, making it unable to retain moisture for long.
(c) Laterite soils are infertile because the areas where it is found experiences heavy rainfall which further leads to leaching and loss of necessary nutrients like nitrogen and potassium.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain soil conservation in terms of soil being a fragile, non-renewable resource.
b) Relate red soil texture and lack of humus to poor moisture retention.
c) Connect laterite soil infertility to intense leaching caused by heavy tropical rainfall.

(iv) With reference to black soil of India, answer the following questions:
(a) How is this soil formed?
(b) How is this soil able to retain moisture for a long period?
(c) Mention any two minerals present in this soil. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Black soil is formed by the weathering of volcanic rocks, particularly basaltic lava found in the Deccan Plateau region.
(b) Black soil is clayey, allowing it to absorb and retain moisture for an extended period, making it ideal for cotton cultivation.
(c) Minerals present in black soil:
- Iron
- Magnesium carbonate

Teacher's Note:
a) Link black soil origin to weathering of basalt/volcanic rock.
b) Explain its clayey texture and self-ploughing property for moisture retention.
c) Recall key mineral constituents like iron, lime, and magnesium carbonate.

Question 6

(i) India has lost 2.33 million hectares of tree cover since the year 2000. This is equivalent to a six per cent decrease in tree cover during this period. Source: The Indian Express, Date: 12.04.2024
(a) Mention any two causes of the decrease in the forest cover of India.
(b) Name a conservation method that may be used to help in increasing the forest cover. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Causes of decrease in the forest cover of India:
- Deforestation for agriculture and urbanisation.
- Uncontrolled forest fires that destroy vast areas of forests, reducing tree cover.
(b) Conservation method that may be used in increasing the forest cover:
- Afforestation (planting new trees) or reforestation (replanting trees in deforested areas). (Any two)

Teacher's Note:
a) State anthropogenic and natural causes of deforestation.
b) Afforestation and reforestation are primary remedies to restore lost tree cover.
c) Keep answers precise and points distinct.

(ii) Mention the climatic condition suitable for the development of tropical evergreen forest. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- High rainfall (over 200 cm annually) and high temperatures (25-27 °C) throughout the year, support the growth of tropical evergreen forests.

Teacher's Note:
a) Specify annual rainfall threshold (greater than 200 cm).
b) Mention high and uniform temperature requirements.
c) Highlight high humidity throughout the year.

(iii) State any three differences between tropical deciduous and tropical desert vegetation. [3 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Use a tabular format for differences to ensure clarity.
b) Compare rainfall ranges, characteristic plant types, and geographic distribution.
c) Ensure correct spelling of tree examples like Sal and Teak.

(iv) (a) Give any two reasons for the great diversity of natural vegetation in India.
(b) How do the forests help in maintenance of air quality? [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Reasons for great diversity in of natural vegetation in India:
- Varied Climate: India experiences a wide range of climatic conditions, from tropical to temperate and alpine, supporting diverse vegetation types.
- Diverse Landforms: Mountains, plateaus, plains and coastal regions contribute to different types of ecosystems and plant life.
(b) Forests absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen, reducing air pollution and improving air quality. Trees also trap dust and pollutants, helping to purify the air.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight relief and climatic variations as drivers of botanical diversity.
b) Explain the role of forests in carbon sequestration and oxygen generation.
c) Mention particulate trapping by forest foliage.

Question 7

(i) Mention any one advantage and any one disadvantage of well irrigation. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Advantage: Wells can be dug easily with low initial investment, making them accessible to farmers.
- Disadvantage: Can lead to depletion of groundwater if overused, and requires initial investment for digging and pumps.

Teacher's Note:
a) State economic and operational benefits of well irrigation.
b) Mention environmental risks such as groundwater depletion.
c) Keep points concise as per marks allocated.

(ii) Suggest any two measures to overcome scarcity of water in the metropolitan cities of India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Rainwater Harvesting: Implement systems to collect and store rainwater from buildings and open spaces.
- Recycling wastewater: Treat and reuse water for non-drinking purposes like irrigation and cleaning.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on sustainable urban water management strategies.
b) Mention rainwater harvesting and greywater recycling.
c) Emphasise reduction in per capita municipal water wastage.

(iii) Give one reason to explain each of the following:
(a) Tank irrigation is NOT common in Northern India.
(b) Canal irrigation is important in Punjab.
(c) All farmers do not use tube well irrigation even if the geographical condition is favourable. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Northern India has flat terrain and perennial rivers, making canal irrigation less suitable. Tanks are more common in decentralised regions with uneven topography like Southern India.
(b) Punjab has a network of rivers and fertile plains, making it ideal for canal irrigation to distribute water efficiently for agriculture.
(c) The high cost of installation and maintenance prevents small farmers from using tube well irrigation. Additionally, some regions face groundwater depletion issues.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast northern perennial river plains with southern rocky peninsular terrain for tank irrigation.
b) Explain Punjab's extensive canal network owing to perennial rivers.
c) Highlight economic constraints and falling water tables for tube well adoption.

(iv) State any three objectives of rainwater harvesting. [3 Marks]

Answer:
- To conserve water: Reducing dependence on surface water and groundwater.
- To recharge groundwater levels: Preventing depletion of underground water reserves.
- To reduce waterlogging and urban floods: Efficiently managing excess rainwater.

Teacher's Note:
a) State conservation, aquifer recharging, and flood mitigation as core objectives.
b) Mention urban stormwater management benefits.
c) Use clear bullet points.

Question 8

(i) With the rising price of fossil fuel every passing day, it is very important to develop non-conventional energy resource.
(a) Name a non-conventional energy source that can be harnessed by taking advantage of India's vast coastline.
(b) State one advantage of using geothermal energy. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Tidal energy - primarily in the Gulf of Kutch and Gulf of Cambay (or Khambhat) in Gujarat, and the Sunderbans region of West Bengal.
(b) Advantage of geothermal energy:
- Geothermal energy is renewable and eco-friendly - It produces no greenhouse gases and provides a constant source of energy.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect coastline geography with tidal and wave energy potential.
b) Highlight environmental and continuous output advantages of geothermal energy.
c) Name specific coastal gulf regions for tidal energy.

(ii) (a) How is Biogas formed?
(b) Mention any one advantage of Biogas over other non-conventional energy resources. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Biogas is formed through the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter (like cow dung, agricultural waste and sewage) by bacteria in the absence of oxygen.
(b) Advantage of biogas:
- Biogas production helps in waste management and converts organic waste into useful energy while reducing pollution.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define anaerobic digestion in biogas generation.
b) Emphasise dual benefits of waste disposal and clean fuel production.
c) Keep the answer focused on biological conversion.

(iii) Give a reason for each of the following:
(a) Iron ore is called a versatile mineral.
(b) Windmills set up on agricultural lands are beneficial to farmers.
(c) Coal is the most preferred source of energy in Indian industries. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Iron ore is a versatile mineral as it is used to produce steel, which is essential for various industries, such as steel production, construction, manufacturing of machinery, and automobile industries.
(b) Windmills generate renewable energy and provide an additional income source to farmers by allowing electricity production on unused land.
(c) Coal is abundantly available in India and is relatively cheap compared to other energy sources, making it a readily accessible and affordable option for industrial use.

Teacher's Note:
a) Relate iron ore utility to steel manufacturing across multiple industrial sectors.
b) Explain dual benefits of wind turbines on agricultural land.
c) Highlight abundance and cost advantage of thermal coal in India.

(iv) With reference to the picture given below, answer the questions that follow:
[Figure: Diagram of a hydroelectric power plant showing a reservoir, concrete dam, spillway gates, erosion protection, penstock, powerhouse containing turbines/generators, and downstream river flow.]
(a) Identify the type of energy being generated in the picture given above.
(b) State why this type of energy is cheaper in the long run.
(c) Name a power project associated with the generation of this energy in the northern part of India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) The image shows a hydroelectric power plant, which generates hydroelectric energy from flowing water.
(b) Hydroelectric energy is cheaper in the long run because:
- it relies on water, which is a renewable resource.
- once a dam is built; operational costs are minimal compared to fossil fuel-based power plants.
(c) Bhakra Nangal Dam on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh is a major hydroelectric project in northern India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify hydroelectric power generation from dam and turbine schematic diagrams.
b) Explain long-term economic viability due to free renewable water resources and low operational upkeep.
c) Cite prominent river valley projects like Bhakra Nangal.

Question 9

(i) Mention two climatic conditions that favour the cultivation of groundnut. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Warm Climate: Groundnuts require warm temperatures (20-30 °C) for favourable growth.
- Annual Moderate Rainfall: The ideal rainfall for the crop is 50-75 cm, as excessive rain can be harmful.

Teacher's Note:
a) Specify optimal temperature range for groundnut cultivation.
b) State moderate rainfall limits, highlighting vulnerability to waterlogging.
c) Keep points clear and specific.

(ii) Give any two reasons why Maharashtra has emerged as an important sugarcane producing state. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Fertile Black Soil: Maharashtra has well-drained black soil, which is ideal for sugarcane cultivation.
- Availability of Irrigation: The state has developed irrigation facilities, particularly in the river valleys, ensuring a reliable water supply for sugarcane.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link sugarcane success in peninsular India to fertile regur (black) soil.
b) Emphasise irrigation support in river basins.
c) Mention favourable tropical frost-free climate implicitly if needed.

(iii) Give one reason to explain each of the following:
(a) Trees are planted in between the rows of coffee plants.
(b) Cotton cultivation requires plenty of cheap labour.
(c) Hill slopes are best suited for tea cultivation. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Coffee plants are shade-loving and require protection from direct sunlight and strong winds.
(b) Cotton cultivation involves labour-intensive tasks like sowing, weeding, picking and ginning, which require a large and cheap workforce.
(c) Tea plants require well-drained soil, and hill slopes prevent waterlogging, making them ideal for tea cultivation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain shade cultivation for coffee plants.
b) Emphasise high manual labour requirement for cotton picking.
c) Connect hill slopes with natural drainage required for tea bushes.

(iv) Explain the following:
(a) Mixed farming
(b) Zayad
(c) Transplantation [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Mixed farming: It is an agricultural practice that involves growing crops and raising livestock on the same farm. It provides diversification, income stability and efficient use of resources.
(b) Zayad: It is the short cropping season that occurs in summer, between the Rabi and Kharif seasons. Examples include watermelon, cucumber and muskmelon, which are grown during the Zayad season.
(c) Transplantation: It is a method of crop cultivation where seedlings are first grown in nurseries and then transferred to the main field for better growth. Example: Rice cultivation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define mixed farming as the integration of crop production and livestock rearing.
b) Describe Zayad as the summer intermediate crop season.
c) Explain paddy transplantation method clearly with examples.

Question 10

(i) State any two factors that are responsible for the growth of the cotton textile industry in Kolkata. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Availability of Raw Cotton: Kolkata has access to raw cotton from surrounding regions and through imports from other states.
- Cheap and skilled labour: Availability of cheap workers from West Bengal and neighbouring states.
- Port Facility: The port facility helps in the smooth import of raw cotton and export of finished goods. (Any two points)

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify locational factors for textile industries (raw material, labour, transport).
b) Highlight the role of Hooghly industrial belt advantages.
c) Keep points distinct and precise.

(ii) 'Karnataka is the leading state for silk production in India'.
Give any two reasons to justify the above statement: [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Favourable Climate: Karnataka has a warm and humid climate suitable for silkworm rearing.
- Availability of mulberry leaves: The state has extensive mulberry plantations, the primary food for silkworms.

Teacher's Note:
a) Relate sericulture success to climatic suitability.
b) Mention abundant mulberry leaf cultivation as feed for silkworms.
c) Karnataka produces the bulk of India's mulberry silk.

(iii) (a) Name the Iron and Steel industry located at Chhattisgarh.
(b) From where does the industry named by you above get its supply of the following?
1. Iron ore
2. Coal [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Bhilai Steel Plant.
(b) 1. Iron ore: Supplied from Dalli-Rajhara mines in Chhattisgarh.
2. Coal: Obtained from Korba and Jharia coalfields.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify Bhilai as the prominent public sector steel plant in Chhattisgarh.
b) State raw material linkages correctly (Dalli-Rajhara for iron ore, Jharia/Korba for coking coal).
c) Ensure precise geographic pairings.

(iv) Raghav has been given a project by his teacher in which he has to write about the by-products of an industry that is used for preparing shoe polish, carbon paper and cardboard.
(a) Which industry will he be writing about?
(b) Name any two by-products of the industry mentioned by you. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Petrochemical Industry.
(b) 1. Coal tar: Used in making shoe polish, candles and carbon paper.
2. Coal gas: Used as a fuel in industries and households.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connect coal distillation/petrochemical by-products with shoe polish and carbon paper materials.
b) List key derivatives such as coal tar and coal gas.
c) Ensure correct spelling of industrial chemical terms.

Question 11

(i) Why is a well-developed transport network important for India as it: [2 Marks]

Answer:
- enhances trade, connectivity and economic development by ensuring efficient movement of goods, people and services across the country.
- it also promotes industrial growth and strengthens national integration.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight economic, commercial, and social integration benefits of transport.
b) Emphasise smooth movement of raw materials and finished products.
c) Structure answers as clear bullet points.

(ii) Mention any two advantages of road transport. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Door-to-Door Service: Provides flexibility and direct access to various locations.
- Connectivity to remote areas: Road transport can reach hilly and rural areas where rail or air transport is not feasible.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight door-to-door delivery flexibility.
b) Mention accessibility in rugged terrain where laying rail tracks is difficult.
c) Keep points concise.

(iii) Name the following:
(a) The mode of transport that ensures comfortable journey, especially for elders and children.
(b) The highway connecting Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat.
(c) The cheapest means of transport for bulky goods. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Railways: Provides smooth, spacious seating and sleeper coaches.
(b) National Highway 27, also known as East-West Corridor (part of the National Highways Development Project) connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat.
(c) Water transport: Inland waterways and coastal shipping are the cheapest means of transport for bulky goods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify rail transport for long-distance comfort.
b) Recall major National Highway corridors (North-South and East-West corridors).
c) Water transport is universally recognised as the cheapest for heavy bulk freight.

(iv) Give a reason for each of the following:
(a) Airways are the most efficient mode of transport to connect Northeast India with the rest of the country
(b) Railways are easily developed in the Northern Plains of India.
(c) Rivers of peninsular India are NOT ideal for inland water transport. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Northeast India has challenging terrain with dense forests, hills and rivers, making road and rail development difficult and time-consuming. Airways provide the fastest and most reliable means of transport.
(b) The Northern Plains are flat and have fertile soil, making it easy and cost-effective to lay railway tracks. Additionally, the region has a high population density and agricultural productivity, ensuring continuous demand for rail transport.
(c) Peninsular rivers are seasonal, rain-fed and have rocky beds with waterfalls and rapids. This makes them unsuitable for navigation and inland water transport compared to the perennial rivers of the Northern Plains.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain why airways overcome difficult mountainous terrain in the Northeast.
b) Relate flat topography and high traffic density to rail development in northern plains.
c) Contrast seasonal, rocky peninsular rivers with perennial northern rivers for navigation.

Question 12

(i) Give a reason for a substantial rise of E-waste in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Rapid technological advancement, increasing consumerism and shorter product lifecycles have led to a surge in the disposal of electronic devices, contributing to the rise of E-waste.
- Shorter product lifespans and lack of proper disposal mechanisms contribute to this problem. (Any one point)

Teacher's Note:
a) Link e-waste growth to rapid technological obsolescence and consumer electronics adoption.
b) Mention shorter replacement cycles for gadgets like mobile phones and computers.
c) Keep the answer focused on urban consumer trends.

(ii) 'You cannot protect environment unless you empower people, you inform them and help them to understand that these resources are their own, that they must protect them'.
- Wangari Maathai (recipient of Nobel Prize 2004 for Sustainable Development)
As a responsible student how would you contribute to reduce and manage the waste generated in your surroundings. Explain by giving suitable examples. [2 Marks]

Answer:
- Reduce, Reuse, Recycle: Practice and promote the 3Rs by using reusable bags, bottles and containers, repairing broken items and segregating waste for recycling.
- Awareness Campaigns: Organise workshops and campaigns in schools and communities to educate people about waste segregation, recycling and composting. For example, instead of throwing away old clothes, I can donate them to charities, and also encourage my school to implement waste segregation bins.
- Composting: Set up composting units in schools and homes to convert organic waste into valuable fertiliser.
- Clean-up Drives: Participate in and organise clean-up drives in neighborhoods, parks and beaches to remove litter and raise awareness about cleanliness. (Any two points)

Teacher's Note:
a) Frame practical student-level waste management initiatives.
b) Include actions like source segregation, composting, and community awareness.
c) Provide clear real-world examples.

(iii) With reference to the 3Rs, give a term that best describes each of the following:
(a) An empty soft drink can is used as a pen stand.
(b) Old scrap papers are used to manufacture handmade paper.
(c) No food is wasted in the household. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Reuse
(b) Recycle
(c) Reduce

Teacher's Note:
a) Differentiate between Reuse (using an item again without altering its form), Recycle (processing waste into new products), and Reduce (minimising consumption/waste generation).
b) Match each scenario to the correct waste management principle.
c) Keep answers precise.

(iv) Give a reason for the following statements:
(a) Organic manure should replace chemical fertilisers.
(b) There should be a ban on the use of polythene and plastic products.
(c) Manual handling of waste must be avoided. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(a) Organic manure should replace chemical fertilisers as: Organic manure is eco-friendly, improves soil fertility and does not cause soil degradation or water pollution, unlike chemical fertilisers that lead to soil exhaustion and groundwater contamination.
(b) Polythene and synthetic products are not accomplishing their environment-friendly goal and are detrimental to the environment. The soil and water also become damaged from the synthetic polymers that do not disintegrate. These, in turn, not only cause wildlife deaths worldwide but also choke drainage systems, leading to urban flooding.
(c) Manual handling of waste must be avoided as it can be dangerous for workers. If they are not careful, they may come into contact with harmful substances, toxic chemicals, or germs, that can cause severe health problems. This is where the use of a proper mechanised waste disposal ensures the hygienic operation and safety of workers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight ecological and soil-health benefits of organic manures over chemical fertilisers.
b) Explain non-biodegradable hazards and drainage-choking impacts of plastics.
c) Emphasise occupational health and safety hazards associated with manual scavenging and waste handling.