ICSE Class 10 Geography Board Exam Question Paper 2023 with Solutions

PART I (30 Marks)

(Attempt all questions from this Part.)

Question 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. G43S7 and answer the following questions:

[Figure: Topographical map sheet No. G43S7 of Survey of India showing contour lines, spot heights like delta 224, grid squares 2706, 2905, 2505, 2709, settlements like Mahudi Nani (2604), Panswala (2909), and eastings 26 to 29 and northings 05 to 11]

(i) (a) Give the four-figure grid reference for delta 224. [2 Marks]

Answer: 2605

Teacher's Note:
a) Four-figure grid reference is obtained by combining the easting and northing enclosing the grid square from the bottom-left corner.
b) Delta 224 lies in the grid square bounded by easting 26 and northing 05.
c) Ensure correct reading of eastings (vertical lines) first followed by northings (horizontal lines).

(i) (b) What is the contour interval used in the given map extract? [2 Marks]

Answer: 20 metres

Teacher's Note:
a) Contour interval is the difference in height between two consecutive contour lines.
b) Standard topographical maps of 1:50,000 scale usually have a contour interval of 20 metres.
c) Students must verify this by checking adjacent indexed contour values on the map sheet.

(ii) (a) Mention two man made features seen in grid square 2706. [2 Marks]

Answer: Temple and Hut (or Cart track / Permanent hut / Settlement)

Teacher's Note:
a) Man-made features refer to cultural details created by humans.
b) Look for symbols representing buildings, temples, tracks, wells, or causeways in the specified grid square.
c) Any two valid cultural features visible in grid square 2706 are accepted.

(ii) (b) Mention two natural features seen in grid square 2905. [2 Marks]

Answer: Broken ground and Stream (or River / Dry river bed / Scrub)

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural features refer to physical landscape elements.
b) Look for physical relief, drainage features, or vegetation.
c) Any two correct physical features depicted in grid square 2905 should be written.

(iii) (a) What do you understand by 1:50,000 printed below the map extract? [2 Marks]

Answer: It is the Representative Fraction (RF) of the map, meaning that 1 unit on the map represents 50,000 similar units on the ground (for example, 1 cm on the map represents 50,000 cm or 0.5 km on the ground).

Teacher's Note:
a) This indicates the scale of the topographical map.
b) The numerator represents map distance and the denominator represents ground distance in the same units.
c) Mentioning both the ratio meaning and a practical unit conversion ensures full credit.

(iii) (b) What is the pattern of drainage seen in the grid square 2505? [2 Marks]

Answer: Radial or Dendritic drainage pattern

Teacher's Note:
a) Drainage pattern describes the geometrical arrangement of streams in a region.
b) Examine the confluence and branching of blue lines representing streams.
c) Dendritic (tree-like branch) or radial patterns are common based on local slope topography.

(iv) (a) What do you understand by .10r in 2709? [2 Marks]

Answer: It represents a relative height of 10 metres, with 'r' indicating relative height (height of a feature measured from its surrounding base rather than from mean sea level).

style="margin-top:0;"Teacher's Note:
a) Relative height annotations are preceded by a dot and a number followed by 'r'.
b) It helps identify small local relief features like embankments, dunes, or low hillocks.
c) Clearly state both the numerical height value and the meaning of the letter 'r'.

(iv) (b) What is the compass direction of Mahudi Nani (2604) from Panswala (2909)? [2 Marks]

Answer: North - West

Teacher's Note:
a) Direction is calculated by placing a direction cross at the reference point (Panswala).

b) Mahudi Nani lies towards the upper-left (North-West) direction relative to Panswala.
c) Write the primary intercardinal direction accurately.

(v) Calculate the area in kilometre square of the region enclosed between Easting 26 to 29 and Northing 05 to 11. [2 Marks]

Answer: 18 square kilometres

Teacher's Note:
a) Number of eastings = 29 - 26 = 3 grid units.
b) Number of northings = 11 - 05 = 6 grid units.
c) Total area = 3 \times 6 = 18 square kilometres, since each grid square on a standard Survey of India 1:50,000 map measures 1 km \times 1 km.

Question 2
On the outline map of India provided:

[Figure: Outline political and physical map of India]

(i) Mark and label the Satpura. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked and labelled correctly as a hill range running east-west in central India, north of the Tapi river and south of the Narmada river.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Satpura range lies south of the Narmada valley.
b) Ensure proper range line marking across central India.
c) Label clearly parallel to the mountain range.

(ii) Shade and label the Gulf of Kutch. [1 Mark]

Answer: Shaded and labelled correctly along the northern part of Gujarat.

Teacher's Note:
a) Gulf of Kutch is the upper inlet of the Arabian Sea indenting the coast of Gujarat.
b) Distinguish it clearly from the Gulf of Khambhat located further south.
c) Shading must clearly cover the water body indentation.

(iii) Mark and label the River Chambal. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked and labelled correctly as a prominent tributary of the Yamuna flowing through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Teacher's Note:
a) River Chambal originates near Mhow in Madhya Pradesh.
b) Flows north-eastwards to join the Yamuna river.
c) Trace the river course with an arrow showing the direction of flow.

(iv) Mark and label Delhi. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked with a dot and labelled 'Delhi' at its correct geographical location on the Yamuna river.

Teacher's Note:
a) Locate Delhi in northern India near the border of Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.
b) Use a clear dot to pinpoint the city location.
c) Neat labelling is essential.

(v) Mark and label 80 degrees 30 minutes E longitude. [1 Mark]

Answer: Drawn and labelled correctly as a vertical line running down the Indian subcontinent.

Teacher's Note:
a) 80 degrees 30 minutes E longitude passes slightly east of the Standard Meridian of India (82 degrees 30 minutes E).
b) Draw a straight longitudinal line from north to south.
c) Label the meridian clearly at the top or bottom margin.

(vi) Mark and label Jharia coalfield. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked and labelled correctly in the state of Jharkhand (near Dhanbad).

Teacher's Note:
a) Jharia is the largest coal producing field in India.
b) Located in the Damodar river valley region of Jharkhand.
c) Mark using a distinct symbol or dot with the label.

(vii) Mark with arrows and name the Southwest Monsoon winds. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked with directional arrows pointing from the Arabian Sea and Bay of North-East / Indian Ocean towards the mainland, labelled as Southwest Monsoon winds.

Teacher's Note:
a) Show arrows striking the western coast and southern tip of India.
b) Indicate both the Arabian Sea branch and Bay of Bengal branch.
c) Arrows must point north-eastwards towards the Indian landmass.

(viii) Mark and label the Karakoram Pass. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked and labelled correctly at the extreme northern tip of India in Ladakh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Karakoram Pass is situated on the border between India and China.
b) Located in the northernmost high ranges of the Himalayas / Karakoram.
c) Mark with a cross or dot and label appropriately.

(ix) Shade and label a sparsely populated region in Western India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Shaded and labelled correctly over the Thar Desert region in western Rajasthan.

Teacher's Note:
a) Western Rajasthan has arid desert conditions leading to sparse population distribution.
b) Shading must clearly cover the western part of Rajasthan.
c) Label appropriately as 'Sparsely Populated Region' or 'Thar Desert'.

(x) Shade an area having Alluvial soil. [1 Mark]

Answer: Shaded correctly over the Northern Plains (Ganga-Brahmaputra plain) or coastal plains.

Teacher's Note:
a) Alluvial soil is extensively found across the Indo-Gangetic plains.
b) Shading should cover northern and eastern plains.
c) Ensure clear demarcation of the fertile alluvial tract.

Question 3
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options:
(Do not copy the questions, write the correct answers only.) [10 Marks]

(i) Which of the following area receives rain from the North East Monsoon? [1 Mark]
(A) Konkan coast
(B) Ganga basin
(C) Coromandel coast
(D) Malabar coast

Answer: (C) Coromandel coast

The Coromandel coast receives winter rainfall from the retreating or North-East monsoon as winds blow over the Bay of Bengal and pick up moisture.

Teacher's Note:
a) North-East monsoon brings rain to Tamil Nadu and parts of Andhra Pradesh.
b) This occurs during October to December.
c) All other listed coasts receive rain primarily from the Southwest monsoon.

(ii) Which is the most widespread soil of India? [1 Mark]
(A) Red soil
(B) Alluvial soil
(C) Laterite soil
(D) Black soil

Answer: (B) Alluvial soil

Alluvial soil covers the largest area in India, spanning across the northern plains and river valleys.

Teacher's Note:
a) Alluvial soil is deposited by rivers.
b) It is agriculturally the most important soil type in India.
c) Covers approximately 43 percent of the total land area.

(iii) Which type of forest is found mostly in the coastal areas of India? [1 Mark]
(A) Tropical Evergreen Forest
(B) Tropical Desert Forest
(C) Littoral Forest
(D) Tropical Deciduous Forest

Answer: (C) Littoral Forest

Littoral and swamp forests (including mangroves) are typical of wet coastal and deltaic regions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Littoral forests grow along coasts and tidal creeks.
b) Sundari trees in the Sundarbans are a prominent example.
c) They are adapted to saline water and marshy soils.

(iv) Which of the following is a ground water source? [1 Mark]
(A) Pond
(B) Lake
(C) Spring
(D) River

Answer: (C) Spring

A spring is a natural outflow of groundwater from an aquifer onto the Earth surface.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ponds, lakes, and rivers are surface water sources.
b) Springs emerge directly from underground water tables.
c) Essential concept in water resource classification.

(v) Copper is alloyed with Zinc to form: [1 Mark]
(A) Stainless steel
(B) Brass
(C) Bronze
(D) Aluminium

Answer: (B) Brass

Brass is an alloy composed of copper and zinc.

Teacher's Note:
a) Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.
b) Brass has extensive industrial and decorative applications.
c) Memorise common alloy compositions for geography and chemistry.

(vi) Hirakud dam is based on which of the following rivers? [1 Mark]
(A) River Godavari
(B) River Mahanadi
(C) River Krishna
(D) River Narmada

Answer: (B) River Mahanadi

Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi river in Odisha.

Teacher's Note:
a) It is one of the longest major earthen dams in the world.
b) Located in Sambalpur, Odisha.
c) Constructed for flood control, irrigation, and power generation.

(vii) Which of the following is NOT a problem of Indian agriculture? [1 Mark]
(A) Dependence on monsoon
(B) Small land holdings
(C) Two main cropping seasons
(D) Use of traditional methods of farming

Answer: (C) Two main cropping seasons

Having distinct cropping seasons (Kharif and Rabi) is a natural climatic advantage, not a problem.

Teacher's Note:
a) Monsoon dependence, fragmentation of land holdings, and traditional techniques are major agricultural drawbacks.
b) Cropping seasons enable organized agricultural planning.
c) Read negative phrasing carefully in exam MCQs.

(viii) Which of the following is a basic / key industry? [1 Mark]
(A) Iron and Steel Industry
(B) Silk Industry
(C) Electronic Industry
(D) Cotton textile Industry

Answer: (A) Iron and Steel Industry

Iron and steel industry is a basic industry because its products are used as raw materials by many other manufacturing industries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Basic or key industries supply raw materials to other industries.
b) Textile and electronic industries are consumer or light industries.
c) Heavy engineering depends directly on the iron and steel sector.

(ix) Which of the following is a staple food grain of Indians? [1 Mark]
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Gram
(D) Arhar

Answer: (B) Rice

Rice is the primary staple food grain for a majority of the Indian population, especially in eastern and southern regions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rice requires high temperature and heavy rainfall.
b) Wheat is the staple food grain of northern and north-western India.
c) Rice remains the overall most consumed food grain in the country.

(x) Which of the following method of waste disposal is harmful? [1 Mark]
(A) Composting
(B) Segregation
(C) Dumping
(D) Vermicomposting

Answer: (C) Dumping

Open dumping of untreated waste causes pollution, foul odour, and breeds disease-carrying vectors.

Teacher's Note:
a) Composting, segregation, and vermicomposting are eco-friendly waste management practices.
b) Open dumping degrades land and contaminates groundwater.
c) Sustainable waste disposal emphasizes reduction, recycling, and safe treatment.

PART II (50 Marks)

(Attempt any five questions from this Part.)

Question 4

(i) Name the seasons of India and mention the duration of each season. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Hot Weather Season: March to May.
2. The Southwest Monsoon Season: June to September.
3. The Retreating Monsoon Season: October to November.
4. The Cold Weather Season: December to February.

Teacher's Note:
a) India experiences four distinct seasons as classified by the India Meteorological Department.
b) Mention correct months corresponding to each season for full marks.
c) Ensure clear and chronological presentation.

(ii) Why maximum rainfall in India occurs after the summer season? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Intense heating of the Indian subcontinent during summer creates a deep low-pressure area, attracting moisture-laden south-west monsoon winds.
2. These winds arrive immediately following the peak summer months, bringing widespread rainfall across the country from June onwards.

Teacher's Note:
a) Summer heating sets up the thermal low pressure that draws the monsoon.
b) The onset of the southwest monsoon occurs right after the hot summer months.
c) Highlight the pressure gradient mechanism.

(iii) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]

(a) The Malabar coast receives heavy rainfall in the month of July but the Coromandel coast during this time remains comparatively dry. [1 Mark]

Answer: The Malabar coast lies on the windward side of the Western Ghats facing the Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoon, whereas the Coromandel coast lies in the rain shadow region.

Teacher's Note:
a) Windward slopes receive heavy orographic rainfall.
b) Rain shadow areas receive minimal precipitation.
c) Mention both windward location and rain shadow effect.

(b) Punjab receives rainfall in winter season. [1 Mark]

Answer: Punjab receives winter rainfall due to temperate cyclones known as Western Disturbances originating over the Mediterranean Sea.

Teacher's Note:
a) Western Disturbances travel eastward across West Asia and Iran to reach north-west India.
b) They are crucial for winter Rabi crops like wheat.
c) Mention the Mediterranean origin and Western Disturbances.

(c) Mumbai is warmer than Delhi in the month of December. [1 Mark]

Answer: Mumbai is situated closer to the equator and enjoys a moderating maritime influence of the Arabian Sea, whereas Delhi has a continental climate with cold continental winds.

Teacher's Note:
a) Maritime influence prevents extreme seasonal temperature fluctuations.
b) Delhi experiences extreme continental cold spells in winter.
c) Latitude and proximity to the sea are key factors.

(iv) Study the climate data of Station X and answer the questions that follow: [3 Marks]

((a) Calculate the annual range of temperature of Station X. [1 Mark]

Answer: Annual Range of Temperature = Highest Temperature - Lowest Temperature = 28.0 degrees C - 21.0 degrees C = 7.0 degrees C.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highest temperature is 28.0 degrees C (May) and lowest is 21.0 degrees C (January).
b) Show proper subtraction step.
c) Include proper unit (degrees C).

(b) Name the wind that brings most of the rainfall to this station. [1 Mark]

Answer: North-East Monsoon winds (Retreating Monsoon)

Teacher's Note:
a) Maximum rainfall occurs in October (31.6 cm) and November (34.5 cm).
b) This indicates winter/retreating monsoon rainfall pattern characteristic of the Tamil Nadu coast.
c) Analyse rainfall distribution across months before answering.

(c) On which coast of India is Station X located? [1 Mark]

Answer: Coromandel Coast (Eastern Coast)

Teacher's Note:
a) Stations receiving maximum rainfall during October and November are located on the eastern coast.
b) Coromandel coast is influenced by the retreating northeast monsoon.
c) Connect high winter rainfall directly to the eastern coast location.

Question 5

(i) (a) Mention any two causes of soil erosion in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Deforestation: Indiscriminate cutting of trees removes root systems that bind the soil.
2. Overgrazing: Excessive grazing by cattle strips vegetation cover, leaving topsoil loose and vulnerable to wind and water erosion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention any two valid anthropogenic or natural causes.
b) Other valid points include heavy rainfall, faulty farming methods, and shifting cultivation.
c) Write clear, separate points.

(i) (b) Name two soil conservation methods that may be practised in arid (dry) regions. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Shelterbelts (Row of trees planted to check wind speed).
2. Strip cropping or Afforestation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Arid regions suffer primarily from wind erosion.
b) Shelterbelts and planting vegetation barriers are effective conservation measures.
c) Mention standard conservation practices suited for dry climates.

(ii) Mention two characteristics of Black soil. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is highly moisture-retentive, becoming sticky when wet and developing deep cracks when dry.
2. It is rich in lime, iron, magnesium, and alumina, but deficient in nitrogen, phosphorus, and organic matter.

Teacher's Note:
a) Black soil is also known as Regur or black cotton soil.
b) Self-ploughing property is a notable characteristic.
c) Mention chemical and physical properties clearly.

(iii) Name the soil: [3 Marks]

(a) That is found on the summits of Eastern and Western Ghats. [1 Mark]

Answer: Laterite soil

Teacher's Note:
a) Formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods.
b) Found on summits of hills and plateaus like the Ghats.
c) Leaching removes silica, leaving iron and aluminium oxides.

(b) That is suitable for dry farming. [1 Mark]

Answer: Red soil (or Black soil in dry-farming tracts, though red/laterite or black are accepted depending on context; Red soil is widely noted for dry farming areas due to moisture management).

Teacher's Note:
a) Soils with good moisture retention or those suited to regions with moderate rainfall.
b) Black soil is also famously cultivated without irrigation in certain dry farming tracts.
c) Red soil is standard for dry farming regions of peninsular India.

(c) That varies in texture. [1 Mark]

Answer: Alluvial soil

Teacher's Note:
a) Alluvial soil texture varies from sandy loam near river channels to clayey silt in flood plains and deltas.
b) Deposited by rivers across varying courses.
c) Highly fertile and texturally diverse.

(iv) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]

(a) Terrace farming is an ideal soil conservation method for hilly areas. [1 Mark]

Answer: Stepped terraces break the steep slope into a series of flat steps, reducing the velocity of running water and preventing soil erosion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Reduces runoff speed on mountainous terrain.
b) Traps soil and moisture on each level step.
c) Standard soil conservation practice in hilly regions.

(b) Khadar soils are preferred over Bhangar soils. [1 Mark]

Answer: Khadar is newer alluvium enriched by fresh silt deposits during annual floods, making it more fertile than older, coarser Bhangar soil.

Teacher's Note:
a) Khadar contains fine particles and is renewed every year.
b) Bhangar contains calcareous kankars and is less fertile.
c) Highlight the fertility advantage of new alluvium.

(c) Foothills of Himalayas have been affected by soil erosion. [1 Mark]

Answer: Extensive deforestation and heavy torrential rainfall have stripped the vegetative cover along the Himalayan foothills, causing severe soil erosion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Human interference and steep slopes accelerate erosion.
b) Heavy monsoon downpours wash away exposed soil.
c) Mention deforestation and slope gradient.

Question 6

(i) State two ways in which forests help in protecting the environment. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Forests absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen, helping mitigate global warming.
2. They regulate the water cycle, enhance groundwater recharge, and prevent soil erosion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention any two environmental benefits.
b) Include climate regulation, biodiversity preservation, or pollution control.
c) Write clear, distinct points.

(ii) Mention two ways in which Tropical Desert vegetation has adapted to its environment. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Plants have long roots that penetrate deep into the ground to tap underground moisture.
2. Leaves are modified into thorns or are small and waxy to minimize transpiration water loss.

Teacher's Note:
a) Adaptations are aimed at conserving water in arid conditions.
b) Succulent stems also store water.
c) Mention root systems and leaf modifications.

(iii) (a) In which natural vegetation belt is Sundari tree found? [1 Mark]

Answer: Littoral and Swamp forests (Mangrove forests)

Teacher's Note:
a) Sundari trees give the Sundarbans delta its name.
b) They thrive in tidal, saline waters.
c) Classified under mangrove or littoral vegetation.

(iii) (b) Why is the Tropical Deciduous Forest commercially the most exploited forest belt of India? (Two points) [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Trees grow in discrete, open stands rather than dense impenetrable tangles, making logging and transportation easier.
2. They yield valuable commercial timber like teak, sal, and sandalwood which are in high demand.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention accessibility and commercial value of timber.
b) These forests cover a very large area in India.
c) Keep points concise and relevant.

(iv) (a) Name one region in India where Tropical Evergreen Forest is found. [1 Mark]

Answer: Western slopes of the Western Ghats (or Andaman and Nicobar Islands / North-East India)

Teacher's Note:
a) Requires regions with heavy annual rainfall exceeding 200 cm.
b) Mention any one recognized geographical region.
c) Western Ghats or North-East states are standard answers.

(iv) (b) Mention the temperature and rainfall conditions found suitable for its growth. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Temperature: High annual temperature ranging between 22 degrees C and 27 degrees C.
2. Rainfall: Heavy annual rainfall above 200 cm with a short or absent dry season.

Teacher's Note:
a) Evergreen forests require hot and wet tropical climates.
b) Both temperature and rainfall conditions must be specified.
c) Accurate numerical thresholds carry full marks.

Question 7

(i) Give a reason for each of the following: [2 Marks]

(a) Agriculture sector in India needs the support of irrigation. [1 Mark]

Answer: Indian rainfall is seasonal, uncertain, erratic, and unevenly distributed across the country, making artificial irrigation essential for successful crop production.

Teacher's Note:
a) Monsoon variability makes agriculture a gamble.
b) Irrigation ensures multiple cropping and food security.
c) Highlight the erratic nature of Indian monsoons.

(b) Well irrigation is a popular means of irrigation in Northern India. [1 Mark]

Answer: The northern plains have soft alluvial soil which makes digging wells easy, and the region possesses a rich and easily accessible groundwater table.

Teacher's Note:
a) Soft alluvial strata facilitate well construction.
b) Perennial rivers percolate water into aquifers.
c) Mention soil softness and water table availability.

(ii) Distinguish between Inundation canal and Perennial canal. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Differentiate based on source reliability and water flow duration.
b) Tabular format is best for distinction questions.
c) Ensure clear comparative points.

(iii) (a) Where in India is Tank irrigation most widely used? [1 Mark]

Answer: Peninsular India (specifically states like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana)

Teacher's Note:
a) Plateau regions have hard impervious rock structure.
b) Natural depressions facilitate rainwater collection in tanks.
c) Mention peninsular plateau states.

(iii) (b) Give one factor that has led to its popularity in the region mentioned by you. [1 Mark]

Answer: The undulating rocky terrain of the Deccan plateau provides natural hollows and depressions where rainwater can easily collect without extensive excavation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Hard rock prevents percolation of stored water.
b) Undulating topography aids natural water storage.
c) Keep the answer focused on terrain features.

(iii) (c) Mention one advantage of using tank as a means of irrigation. [1 Mark]

Answer: Tanks are inexpensive to construct and can be built by individual farmers or small communities to store rainwater for dry periods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Low construction and maintenance cost.
b) Utilizes local runoff effectively.
c) Mention economic viability or community utility.

(iv) (a) What is Rainwater Harvesting? [1 Mark]

Answer: Rainwater harvesting is the accumulation and storage of rainwater for reuse on-site, rather than allowing it to run off.

Teacher's Note:
a) Collection of rooftop or surface runoff.
b) Aimed at conserving water and recharging groundwater.
c) Keep definition concise and accurate.

(iv) (b) Give two ways in which Rainwater Harvesting is important for India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It helps augment depleting groundwater levels, ensuring sustainable water supply in urban and rural areas.
2. It reduces dependence on erratic monsoon rains and municipal water supply during dry months.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention groundwater recharge and water scarcity mitigation.
b) Highlight importance in water-stressed regions.
c) Write distinct points.

Question 8

(i) (a) Name the state of India that leads in the production of Manganese. [1 Mark]

Answer: Madhya Pradesh (or Odisha)

Teacher's Note:
a) Madhya Pradesh is a leading producer of manganese in India.
b) Odisha and Maharashtra are also major producers.
c) Accept standard leading state as per current mineral statistics.

(i) (b) What is the importance of Manganese for the Iron and Steel industry? [1 Mark]

Answer: Manganese is used as a raw material in manufacturing ferro-alloys and is essential for hardening steel and removing impurities like sulfur and oxygen.

Teacher's Note:
a) Acts as an important alloy and cleansing agent in steel making.
b) Improves strength and durability of steel.
c) Highlight its metallurgical utility.

(ii) Why is conventional source of energy not considered an ecofriendly source of energy? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Burning of fossil fuels (coal, petroleum) releases greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, causing global warming and air pollution.
2. Extraction and combustion of conventional energy sources degrade ecosystems and pollute water resources.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on pollution and greenhouse gas emissions.
b) Mention exhaustibility and environmental degradation.
c) Write two clear points.

(iii) (a) How is Bhakra Nangal dam beneficial for Punjab? [1 Mark]

Answer: It provides perennial irrigation water to agricultural fields and generates hydroelectric power, driving the agricultural prosperity of Punjab (Green Revolution).

Teacher's Note:
a) Crucial for irrigation in dry tracts of Punjab.
b) Generates hydroelectricity for farming and industry.
c) Mention irrigation and power benefits.

(iii) (b) Name two states where coal is mined in abundance. [1 Mark]

Answer: Jharkhand and Odisha (or Chhattisgarh / West Bengal)

Teacher's Note:
a) Major coal-producing states in India.
b) Jharkhand houses major fields like Jharia and Bokaro.
c) Any two correct states will suffice.

(iii) (c) Mention one advantage of using wind energy. [1 Mark]

Answer: Wind energy is a clean, renewable, and pollution-free source of energy that does not emit greenhouse gases.

Teacher's Note:
a) Renewable and inexhaustible.
b) Zero carbon emissions during generation.
c) Emphasize eco-friendly nature.

(iv) Name the following: [3 Marks]

(a) A mineral used to generate nuclear energy. [1 Mark]

Answer: Uranium (or Thorium)

Teacher's Note:
a) Uranium and thorium are primary radioactive minerals used in atomic energy generation.
b) Found in Jharkhand and Rajasthan.
c) Direct single-word answer.

(iv) (b) The non-conventional energy source that has the most widespread potential usage in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Solar energy

Teacher's Note:
a) India receives abundant tropical sunshine throughout the year.
b) Solar energy has massive decentralized potential across the country.
c) Direct answer.

(iv) (c) An offshore oil field of India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Mumbai High (or Aliabet)

Teacher's Note:
a) Mumbai High is located off the coast of Mumbai in the Arabian Sea.
b) Major contributor to domestic crude oil production.
c) Standard geographical example.

Question 9

(i) Differentiate between Intensive farming and Extensive farming. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast based on farm size, labor input, and yield per unit area.
b) Tabular format is mandatory for differentiation.
c) Keep points clear and distinct.

(ii) Mention two problems faced by the Indian farmers. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Fragmentation of land holdings resulting in small and uneconomic plots.
2. Lack of cheap credit and dependence on traditional money lenders.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention any two genuine agricultural challenges.
b) Other points include poor quality seeds, lack of storage facilities, or monsoon dependence.
c) Write clear points.

(iii) (a) Give one advantage of transplantation method of sowing rice. [1 Mark]

Answer: It allows only healthy and vigorous seedlings to be selected and planted, leading to higher crop yield and better weed control.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ensures higher survival rate and uniform crop growth.
b) Facilitates weed management in flooded fields.
c) Key agronomic advantage in paddy cultivation.

(iii) (b) What is Ginning? [1 Mark]

Answer: Ginning is the process of separating cotton fibres from the cotton seeds.

Teacher's Note:
a) Post-harvest processing step for cotton.
b) Done before spinning fiber into yarn.
c) Clear definition required.

(iii) (c) Name any two pulses grown in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Gram (Chana) and Tur (Arhar) [or Moong / Masoor]

Teacher's Note:
a) Pulses are protein-rich leguminous crops.
b) Grown extensively in dry-farming areas.
c) Name any two common varieties.

(iv) (a) What is meant by Retting? [1 Mark]

Answer: Retting is a microbiological process of soaking jute stalks in water so that the gummy substance rots away, enabling easy separation of the jute fibres from the stalk.

Teacher's Note:
a) Essential processing step for jute fiber extraction.
b) Involves bacterial action in slow-moving water.
c) Precise definition carries full mark.

(iv) (b) What kind of soil is required for the cultivation of tea? [1 Mark]

Answer: Well-drained acidic loamy soil rich in humus and iron.

Teacher's Note:
a) Tea requires deep, fertile, acidic soils.
b) Waterlogging is harmful, hence good slope drainage is essential.
c) Mention soil type and acidity.

(iv) (c) Why is pruning necessary for tea plant? [1 Mark]

Answer: Pruning encourages lateral branch growth and keeps the bush at a convenient height, which facilitates easy plucking of tender tea leaves.

Teacher's Note:
a) Enhances bush density and leaf yield.
b) Keeps plants shrubby rather than growing into tall trees.
c) Highlight the link between pruning and leaf plucking.

Question 10

(i) How are the industries important for India? (Two points) [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. They provide large-scale employment opportunities, reducing dependence on agriculture.
2. They boost economic growth and earn foreign exchange through the export of manufactured goods.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention employment generation and economic development.
b) Industrialization is vital for modern GDP growth.
c) Write two clear points.

(ii) State the difference between Agro based industry and Forest based industry. Give one example for each type of industry. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Agro-based industries derive their raw materials from agricultural crops (Example: Cotton textile industry or Sugar industry).
2. Forest-based industries derive their raw materials from forest produce (Example: Paper industry or Matchstick industry).

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguish based on source of raw material.
b) Provide correct examples for each category.
c) Clear and structured presentation.

(iii) (a) What has made Mumbai an important centre for cotton textile production? (Write any two points) [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Proximity to black cotton soil-growing regions of Maharashtra which ensured abundant raw material supply.
2. Humid climate which prevents cotton yarn from breaking during spinning.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention raw material availability and climate.
b) Other factors include port facilities, cheap hydroelectric power, and financial capital.
c) Any two valid points earn full marks.

(iii) (b) Why are the petrochemical products in great demand? [1 Mark]

Answer: Petrochemical products are durable, lightweight, corrosion-resistant, and serve as versatile substitutes for natural raw materials like wood, metal, and glass.

Teacher's Note:
a) Widely used in plastics, synthetic fibers, and packaging.
b) Mention durability and cost-effectiveness.
c) Concise explanation required.

(iv) (a) Mention two problems faced by the Sugar industry of India. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Seasonal nature of the industry leading to unemployment during the off-season.
2. Old and obsolete machinery resulting in low crushing efficiency and high production costs.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention seasonality and outdated machinery.
b) Other problems include sugarcane transportation delays and fluctuating cane prices.
c) Write distinct points.

(iv) (b) Where is TATA STEEL located? [1 Mark]

Answer: Jamshedpur (Sakchi) in the state of Jharkhand

Teacher's Note:
a) Historical iron and steel plant location.
b) Situated near iron ore and coal mines.
c) Precise geographical location.

(iv) (c) Why is the Silk industry losing the market in recent times? [1 Mark]

Answer: The silk industry faces tough competition from cheaper artificial synthetic fibers (like nylon and polyester) and high production costs of natural silk.

Teacher's Note:
a) Competition from cheaper synthetics.
b) High cost of natural silk production.
c) Clear economic reasoning.

Question 11

(i) Why is it important to have a well developed means of transport in India? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It facilitates the seamless movement of raw materials to industries and finished goods to markets.
2. It promotes national integration, regional connectivity, and emergency disaster relief operations.

Teacher's Note:
a) Transport is the lifeline of the economy.
b) Mention economic development and national integration.
c) Write two clear points.

(ii) "Though an expensive mode of transport, Airways is gaining popularity in India." Explain giving two reasons. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is the fastest mode of transport, saving precious time over long distances.
2. It can easily traverse difficult terrains such as high mountains, dense forests, and vast water bodies where other transport fails.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight speed and accessibility.
b) Crucial for remote and strategic regions.
c) Well-formulated economic and geographic reasons.

(iii) (a) Why are South Indian rivers not ideal for inland water transport? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. They are seasonal and rain-fed, causing water levels to drop significantly during dry summer months.
2. They flow across undulating plateaus with numerous waterfalls and rapids, obstructing smooth navigation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention seasonal flow and rocky terrain.
b) Contrast with perennial northern rivers.
c) Write clear points.

(iii) (b) Mention two advantages of waterways. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. It is the cheapest mode of transport for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances.
2. It is fuel-efficient and does not require heavy expenditure on track construction and maintenance.

Teacher's Note:
a) Most economical for heavy cargo.
b) Eco-friendly and energy-efficient.
c) Two distinct points.

(iv) (a) Why are roadways considered more important than any other means of transport? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. They provide door-to-door service and connect remote villages that lack rail or air links.
2. Construction and maintenance costs of roads are comparatively lower, and they can negotiate steeper slopes and sharper curves than railways.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention door-to-door connectivity and flexibility.
b) Low construction cost compared to railways.
c) Structure points clearly.

(iv) (b) Mention two advantages of using railways as means of transport. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Railways are best suited for carrying heavy and bulky goods over long distances at cheap rates.
2. They provide safe, reliable, and comfortable mass transit across the country irrespective of weather conditions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ideal for bulk freight and long-distance passenger travel.
b) Unaffected by most adverse weather conditions.
c) Two clear points.

Question 12

(i) Why should Waste Management be practiced in every school? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It inculcates civic sense, environmental responsibility, and sustainable habits among students from an early age.
2. It keeps the school campus clean, hygienic, and free from pollution and disease vectors.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on educational value and campus hygiene.
b) Promotes active student participation in environmental care.
c) Write two separate points.

(ii) Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of dumping of waste. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Advantage: It is an inexpensive and simple method for disposing of large quantities of municipal solid waste.
2. Disadvantage: It causes foul odour, breeds pests, attracts rodents, and pollutes groundwater through toxic leachate.

Teacher's Note:
a) Balance both positive (low cost) and negative (pollution) aspects.
b) Direct and clear separation.
c) Standard environmental management query.

(iii) Briefly answer the following: [3 Marks]

(a) How is segregation of the waste helpful? [1 Mark]

Answer: Segregation separates biodegradable waste from non-biodegradable waste, making recycling, composting, and safe disposal easier and more efficient.

Teacher's Note:
a) First crucial step in scientific waste management.
b) Facilitates resource recovery.
c) Clear single-point answer.

(iii) (b) Mention one way in which we can reuse waste. [1 Mark]

Answer: Using old glass jars or plastic bottles as containers for storing items or as plant pots in gardening.

Teacher's Note:
a) Reuse involves using an item again without altering its form.
b) Practical household example.
c) Simple and accurate.

(iii) (c) Mention one benefit of Composting. [1 Mark]

Answer: Composting converts organic kitchen and garden waste into nutrient-rich humus, which enhances soil fertility and structure naturally.

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural recycling of organic matter.
b) Improves agricultural soil quality.
c) Direct benefit stated clearly.

(iv) (a) How is recycling of waste helpful? Give an example of recycling of waste. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Recycling conserves natural resources, reduces the volume of waste sent to landfills, and lowers energy consumption and pollution.
2. Example: Collecting waste paper and recycling it to manufacture new paper products.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain environmental and resource benefits.
b) Provide a valid and common example.
c) Comprehensive answer.

(iv) (b) Mention any one initiative taken by the Government to manage waste. [1 Mark]

Answer: The Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Mission) launched by the Government of India for cleanliness and proper waste management.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention national schemes like Swachh Bharat Mission or Plastic Waste Management Rules.
b) Shows awareness of government policies.
c) Accurate national initiative reference.