ICSE Class 10 Geography Board Exam Question Paper 2022 with Solutions

Section-A

Question 1. On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following : [10 Marks]
(i) Vindhya mountain
(ii) River Yamuna
(iii) Kolkata
(iv) Kanchenjunga
(v) Lake Chilka
(vi) Konkan coastal plain
(vii) Thar desert
(viii) Gulf of Khambhat
(ix) Mark with arrows the direction of N.E. Monsoon wind
(x) Mumbai High

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

Answer:
Marked and labelled on the outline map of India as per standard geographical coordinates:
(i) Vindhya mountain: A range running east-west in central India, north of the Narmada river.
(ii) River Yamuna: A major river originating from Yamunotri and flowing parallel to and east of the Ganga before meeting it at Prayagraj.
(iii) Kolkata: Located in West Bengal on the eastern bank of the Hooghly River.
(iv) Kanchenjunga: Located in the Himalayas in Sikkim near the border with Nepal.
(v) Lake Chilka: A coastal lagoon located in the state of Odisha along the Bay of Bengal.
(vi) Konkan coastal plain: The narrow strip of coastal plain lying along the western coast in Maharashtra and Goa.
(vii) Thar desert: Located in the northwestern part of India, primarily in Rajasthan.
(viii) Gulf of Khambhat: An inlet of the Arabian Sea indenting the Gujarat coast.
(ix) N.E. Monsoon wind: Arrows pointing from the northeast towards the southwest across the Bay of Bengal and southern India.
(x) Mumbai High: An offshore oilfield located in the Arabian Sea off the coast of Mumbai.

Teacher's Note:
a) Students must practice locating physical and political features accurately on outline maps.
b) Clear arrow indications are necessary for wind directions.
c) Proper spellings and clear pointing arrows carry full marks.

Section-B

Question 2.

(i) (a) Give any one use of Copper. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Copper is extensively used in electrical wiring and electrical appliances because of its high electrical conductivity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention a primary industrial or domestic use.
b) Electrical wires and cables are the most common examples.
c) Keep the answer concise for 1 mark.

(i) (b) Names two Indian states in which iron ore is found in abundance. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Odisha
2. Jharkhand (or Chhattisgarh, Karnataka)

Teacher's Note:
a) State names must be spelled correctly.
b) Odisha and Jharkhand are major iron ore producing states.
c) Listing any two recognized states is sufficient.

(ii) With reference to Hirakud project answer the following: [2 Marks]
(a) On which river is it based?
(b) Name an Indian State benefitted by Hirakud project.

Answer:
(a) Mahanadi River.
(b) Odisha.

Teacher's Note:
a) Hirakud is one of the oldest river valley projects in India.
b) Built across the Mahanadi River in Odisha.
c) Both sub-parts carry 1 mark each.

(iii) Give three disadvantages of using coal. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Burning of coal releases large amounts of carbon dioxide, contributing significantly to global warming and climate change.
2. It is a major source of air pollution, emitting harmful gases like sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides that cause acid rain.
3. Coal mining causes severe environmental degradation, deforestation, and health hazards for miners.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention environmental, health, or climatic impacts.
b) Clear points are required for full 3 marks.
c) Greenhouse gas emissions and pollution are key value points.

(iv) (a) Mention two advantages of nuclear power. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It produces a massive amount of energy from a very small quantity of nuclear fuel.
2. It does not emit greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide during electricity generation, making it eco-friendly in terms of air quality.

Teacher's Note:
a) High energy output and low greenhouse gas emissions are the primary advantages.
b) Each valid point carries 1 mark.
c) Differentiate clearly from thermal power.

(iv) (b) What is the advantage of using solar energy in place of the conventional sources of energy? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Solar energy is a renewable and inexhaustible source of energy that causes zero pollution, unlike conventional sources like coal and petroleum which get depleted and pollute the environment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on renewable nature and pollution-free operation.
b) Contrast briefly with conventional fuels.
c) Keep the answer precise.

Question 3.

(i) Mention two problems faced by the agriculture sector of India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Over-dependence on erratic monsoons leading to frequent droughts or floods.
2. Small and fragmented landholdings which make mechanization difficult and uneconomical.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention structural, climatic, or economic issues.
b) Fragmentation of land and monsoon dependence are classic textbook points.
c) One mark for each well-stated problem.

(ii) (a) Mention any one climatic condition found suitable for growing cotton. [1 Mark]

Answer:
High temperature (ranging between 21 degrees Celsius and 30 degrees Celsius) and abundant sunshine during the maturation period.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cotton requires frost-free days and bright sunshine.
b) Rainfall requirement is moderate (50 cm to 100 cm).
c) Mentioning temperature or rainfall satisfies the condition.

(ii) (b) Name the state that is the leading producer of cotton in India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Gujarat (or Maharashtra).

Teacher's Note:
a) Gujarat is widely recognized as the leading producer of cotton in India.
b) Maharashtra and Punjab are also major producers.
c) Single-word answers must be accurate.

(iii) With reference to Rice cultivation answer the following: [3 Marks]
(a) Name the soil found suitable for its growth.
(b) Name the State that is the largest producer of this crop in India.
(c) In which cropping season is it generally grown in India?

Answer:
(a) Alluvial soil (clayey loam).
(b) West Bengal.
(c) Kharif season.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
b) Alluvial soil retains moisture which is ideal for rice.
c) West Bengal is the top rice-producing state, and it is primarily a Kharif crop.

(iv) (a) Name the State that is the largest producer of sugarcane in India. [1 Mark]

Answer:
Uttar Pradesh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Uttar Pradesh leads in sugarcane production in India.
b) Maharashtra is the second largest producer.
c) Direct factual question.

(iv) (b) Why more than two ratoon crops are not advisable for sugarcane farmers? [1 Mark]

Answer:
With successive ratoon cropping, the yield and quality of sugarcane decrease significantly, and the crop becomes more susceptible to pests and diseases.

Teacher's Note:
a) Ratoon cropping involves growing a crop from the stubble of previous crop.
b) Soil nutrient depletion causes lower yields after two ratoon crops.
c) Keep the explanation concise.

(iv) (c) What is Zayad cropping season? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Zayad is a short summer cropping season between the Rabi and Kharif seasons (from March to June), during which crops like watermelon, cucumber, and fodder crops are grown.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define the time period and examples.
b) Mention months (March to June) for completeness.
c) Essential part of the Indian agricultural seasons.

Question 4.

(i) Differentiate between mineral based and agro based industry giving suitable example for each from India. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Use a tabular format for clear differentiation.
b) Include definitions and correct examples for both.
c) One mark for definition/contrast and one mark for examples.

(ii) Give two ways in which petro chemical industry is important for India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It provides raw materials for manufacturing synthetic fibers, plastics, and synthetic rubber which are vital for various consumer goods.
2. It supports agriculture by producing chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and weedicides that help boost crop yields.

Teacher's Note:
a) Petrochemicals play a foundational role in modern manufacturing.
b) Mention synthetic products and agricultural inputs.
c) Each valid point carries 1 mark.

(iii) With reference to Tata Steel plant answer the following: [3 Marks]
(a) Where is it located?
(b) From where does it get its coal requirements?
(c) From where does it get its iron ore requirements?

Answer:
(a) Jamshedpur (Sakchi) in the state of Jharkhand.
(b) Jharia coalfields (in Jharkhand).
(c) Mayurbhanj and Singhbhum (or Noamundi mines in Odisha/Jharkhand).

Teacher's Note:
a) Tata Steel (TISCO) is located at the confluence of Subarnarekha and Kharkai rivers.
b) Raw material sources are crucial locational factors for iron and steel plants.
c) Each sub-part carries 1 mark.

(iv) (a) Name any two by products of the sugar industry. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Bagasse
2. Molasses (or Press mud)

Teacher's Note:
a) Bagasse is used for paper making and fuel.
b) Molasses is used for alcohol and chemical production.
c) Any two correct by-products earn the mark.

(iv) (b) Why are the cotton textile industries mostly located in the coastal areas? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Coastal regions provide a humid climate which prevents cotton yarn from snapping easily during spinning.
2. Proximity to ports facilitates easy import of machinery and export of finished textile products.

Teacher's Note:
a) Humidity is a critical natural factor for cotton spinning.
b) Transport advantages via coastal ports add to the locational benefit.
c) Both points complete the 2-mark requirement.

Question 5.

(i) Mention two advantages of using roadways. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Roadways provide door-to-door service, reducing loading and unloading costs.
2. They are highly flexible and can be constructed even in rugged terrains like mountains where railways are difficult to build.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight door-to-door connectivity and flexibility.
b) Each well-explained advantage carries 1 mark.
c) Basic transport geography concept.

(ii) What is the purpose of developing the Golden Quadrilateral in India? [2 Marks]

Answer:
The main purpose is to reduce travel time and distance between India's four major metropolitan cities (Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata) and to promote rapid economic development by boosting interstate trade and transport.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention connecting the four metros.
b) Mention the economic purpose of faster transport and trade.
c) 2 marks for a comprehensive statement.

(iii) Mention three disadvantages of waterways. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Water transport is much slower compared to roadways and airways, making it unsuitable for perishable goods.
2. It depends entirely on natural water channels, navigability, and weather conditions like floods or drying up during summer.
3. Inland waterways are limited by seasonal variations in water levels and presence of waterfalls or rapids.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention speed limitations.
b) Mention dependence on natural weather and water availability.
c) Three distinct points required for 3 marks.

(iv) Give a reason for the following : [3 Marks]
(a) Railways are not well developed in the North Eastern States of India.
(b) Air transport has gained popularity in recent time in India.
(c) NSEW is helpful for India.

Answer:
(a) The rugged mountainous terrain, dense forests, and numerous swift-flowing rivers make the construction and maintenance of railway tracks extremely difficult and costly.
(b) Air transport offers unmatched speed, saves valuable time, and can easily traverse difficult terrains like mountains, deserts, and oceans.
(c) The North-South and East-West corridors connect distant corners of the country, promoting national integration, trade, and regional development.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each sub-part carries 1 mark.
b) Relate railway limitations to topography.
c) Highlight speed and connectivity advantages for air transport and NSEW corridors.

Question 6.

(i) Why is there a need for waste management in large metropolitan cities? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rapid urbanization and high population density generate massive volumes of solid and liquid waste that can cause severe environmental pollution if unmanaged.
2. Improper waste accumulation breeds disease-carrying vectors (like mosquitoes and rodents), posing serious public health hazards.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on volume of waste and health/environmental impacts.
b) Each valid point carries 1 mark.
c) Standard environmental geography question.

(ii) Why is composting considered a safe method of waste disposal? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It naturally decomposes biodegradable organic waste into nutrient-rich manure without emitting toxic pollutants.
2. It significantly reduces the volume of waste sent to landfills and recycles organic matter back into the soil safely.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention organic decomposition and manure creation.
b) Mention landfill reduction.
c) Two clear points for 2 marks.

(iii) (a) Why should we reuse waste? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Reusing waste conserves natural resources, reduces the overall volume of waste generation, and minimizes the energy required to process new items.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on resource conservation and waste reduction.
b) Keep it concise for 1 mark.

(iii) (b) How can farm waste be made useful? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Farm waste can be converted into organic compost, vermicompost, or used as biomass for generating biogas.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention composting or biogas generation.
b) Factual and practical answer.

(iii) (c) How is dumping of waste harmful? [1 Mark]

Answer:
Open dumping of waste contaminates groundwater through toxic leachate runoff, pollutes the air through foul odors and accidental fires, and breeds disease vectors.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention water and air pollution risks.
b) Highlight health hazards.

(iv) Mention three ways to reduce waste generation at home. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Avoid single-use plastics and carry reusable cloth bags, bottles, and containers.
2. Practice composting of kitchen and food waste to reduce household garbage.
3. Donate old clothes, books, and usable goods instead of throwing them away.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give practical daily-life examples.
b) Three distinct actions required for full 3 marks.
c) Emphasize reduction at source.