ICSE Class 10 Geography Board Exam Question Paper 2020 with Solutions

PART I (30 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Part

Question 1
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions:

[Figure: Survey of India Topographical Map Sheet No. 45D/10 showing contours, grid lines, drainage, settlements, vegetation, and land use features]

(a) (i) Give a six figure grid reference for the spot height .324 in northern part of the map extract. [1 Mark]

Answer: 078269

Teacher's Note:
a) Six-figure grid references divide the grid square into tenths.
b) The first three digits represent the easting and the last three digits represent the northing.
c) Ensure the decimal subdivision is estimated accurately.

(a) (ii) Give a four figure grid reference for open scrub south of Dhad Talao. [1 Mark]

Answer: 0422

Teacher's Note:
a) Four-figure grid references identify a complete grid square.
b) The reference is given by combining the bottom-left easting and northing lines.
c) Locate Dhad Talao and read the south-western corner grid coordinate.

(b) (i) What is the meaning of the term 'Contour interval'? [1 Mark]

Answer: Contour interval is the vertical distance or difference in height between two successive contour lines.

Teacher's Note:
a) It is a constant value for a given map sheet.
b) Students must mention both 'vertical distance' and 'successive contour lines' to score full marks.
c) It helps in determining the steepness of slopes.

(b) (ii) What is the contour interval of the sheet provided to you? [1 Mark]

Answer: 20 metres

Teacher's Note:
a) Standard topographical sheets of 1:50,000 scale usually have a contour interval of 20 metres.
b) This can be verified from the index or by reading adjacent numbered index contours.
c) Units must be explicitly stated as metres.

(c) What is the area in kilometre square of the region between 06 and 09 Eastings and 22 and 27 Northings? [2 Marks]

Answer: 15 square kilometres.

Teacher's Note:
a) Number of eastings = 09 - 06 = 3 units.
b) Number of northings = 27 - 22 = 5 units.
c) Area = 3 \times 5 = 15 square kilometres since each grid square represents 1 km \times 1 km.

(d) What is the significance of the following colours used on the survey map?
(i) Yellow colour. [1 Mark]

Answer: Yellow colour represents cultivable land or agricultural land.

Teacher's Note:
a) It indicates areas used for farming and crop production.
b) Commonly seen spread across plains and valleys on the map.
c) Essential conventional colour for economic activity identification.

(d) (ii) Green colour. [1 Mark]

Answer: Green colour represents forested areas, orchards, or scattered trees and scrub.

Teacher's Note:
a) It indicates vegetation cover.
b) Dark green often represents reserved forests.
c) Scattered green patches indicate open scrub or wooded land.

(e) What is the compass direction of?
(i) Idarla (0825) from Bhamra (0420). [1 Mark]

Answer: North - East (Northeast)

Teacher's Note:
a) Draw a directional cross at the reference point (Bhamra).

b) Idarla lies upwards and to the right of Bhamra.
c) Direction must be written clearly using standard cardinal or intermediate points.

(e) (ii) Dhana (0623) from Amarapura (0124). [1 Mark]

Answer: South - East (Southeast)

Teacher's Note:
a) Locate Amarapura at 0124 and Dhana at 0623.
b) Dhana lies downwards and to the right of Amarapura.
c) Verify grid coordinates carefully before determining direction.

(f) (i) Name the settlement pattern seen in the grid square 0819. [1 Mark]

Answer: Nucleated / Compact / Clustered settlement pattern

Teacher's Note:
a) Houses are closely grouped together.
b) Usually found in fertile agricultural plains.
c) Any valid synonym like clustered or nucleated is accepted.

(f) (ii) Name the drainage pattern seen in the grid square 0827. [1 Mark]

Answer: Dendritic drainage pattern

Teacher's Note:
a) Resembles the branching pattern of tree roots.
b) Forms in regions of uniform rock structure.
c) Commonly observed in river channels on topographical sheets.

(g) (i) Name two man made features seen in the grid square 0723. [1 Mark]

Answer: Hut / Settlement, and Temple (or cart track / perennial well).

Teacher's Note:
a) Look for man-made symbols like buildings, wells, tracks, or temples.
b) Any two correct artificial features visible in grid square 0723 are accepted.
c) Avoid listing natural features like streams or contours.

(g) (ii) Name two natural features seen in the grid square 0218. [1 Mark]

Answer: Stream (or river / water body) and Broken ground / Dry river bed / Contour hills.

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural features include relief features, streams, and vegetation.
b) Ensure features are strictly located within grid square 0218.
c) Streams are shown in blue (if perennial) or black dashed (if dry).

(h) (i) What is the black horizontal line drawn between 18 and 19 Northings? [1 Mark]

Answer: Latitude line (specifically 24° 15' North parallel of latitude).

Teacher's Note:
a) Grid lines are numbered, but specific marginal lines indicate latitude or longitude values.
b) Check the map margins for exact degree and minute values.
c) Distinguish between grid lines and graticule/latitude-longitude lines.

(h) (ii) Name the most important settlement of the region shown on the map extract. [1 Mark]

Answer: Anadra

Teacher's Note:
a) Identified by larger font size and administrative importance on the map.
b) Acts as the central hub for surrounding smaller villages.
c) Students should look for prominent settlement names written in capital letters.

(i) Draw the conventional symbol for each of the following:
(i) Lined perennial well. [1 Mark]

Answer: A small blue circle or a blue dot representing a lined perennial well.

Teacher's Note:
a) Blue colour indicates water features.
b) Unlined wells are black circles, while perennial wells are solid blue.
c) Neat freehand sketching with correct coloring is required.

(i) (ii) Seasonal tank. [1 Mark]

Answer: An outline of a tank with a dry bed (or black embankment outline without blue wash, often with dry grass or inner shading indicating dry conditions).

Teacher's Note:
a) Perennial tanks are washed in blue with a black embankment.
b) Seasonal/dry tanks lack blue wash or contain black stippling/text indicating dry bed.
c) Accuracy in conventional signs is essential.

(j) (i) Give one evidence to prove that the regions shown on the map extract receive scanty rainfall. [1 Mark]

Answer: Presence of numerous dry streams, dry tanks, or broken ground / open scrub.

Teacher's Note:
a) Seasonal water channels and dry tanks indicate intermittent water availability.
b) Open scrub vegetation thrives in arid or semi-arid conditions.
c) Any one valid topographical evidence is sufficient.

(j) (ii) What is .5r in the grid square 0321? [1 Mark]

Answer: Relative height of 5 metres (embankment or relative relief).

Teacher's Note:
a) The prefix '.' with a number indicates relative height.
b) 'r' stands for relative depth or height of an embankment or feature.
c) It indicates the height of the feature above the surrounding ground level.

Question 2
On the outline map of India provided:

[Figure: Outline political map of India]

(a) Mark and name Nilgiris. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked at the tri-junction of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka in southern India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Clearly point to the hill range in southern India.
b) Label 'Nilgiris' legibly near the marked location.
c) Accuracy in geographical positioning is tested.

(b) Mark and name Kochi. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked on the western coast of India in the state of Kerala.

Teacher's Note:
a) Locate on the Malabar Coast.
b) Mark with a clear dot and label 'Kochi'.
c) Must be distinguished from other coastal cities like Thiruvananthapuram or Mangaluru.

(c) Mark and name the Karakoram Pass. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked at the extreme northern tip of India in the Karakoram range.

Teacher's Note:
a) Located on the border between India and China in Ladakh.
b) Use an arrow if necessary to avoid crowding.
c) Must be marked precisely on the mountain pass location.

(d) Mark and name 82½°E Longitude. [1 Mark]

Answer: Drawn as a straight vertical line passing through Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh representing the Standard Meridian of India.

Teacher's Note:
a) Runs from north to south across the country.
b) Must be clearly labeled as '82½°E Longitude' or 'Standard Meridian'.
c) Passes through Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh.

(e) Shade and name the Coromandel Coastal Plain. [1 Mark]

Answer: Shaded along the southeastern coast of India (spanning parts of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh).

Teacher's Note:
a) Situated between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.
b) Distinct from the Malabar or Konkan coasts.
c) Shading must be neat and clearly labeled.

(f) Mark and name the River Brahmaputra. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked entering through Arunachal Pradesh, flowing through Assam, and entering Bangladesh.

Teacher's Note:
a) Trace the river course accurately across northeastern India.
b) Label 'River Brahmaputra' along its course in Assam.
c) Show proper flow direction if required.

(g) Mark and name the Gulf of Kutch. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked in the western part of Gujarat (northern inlet of the Arabian Sea surrounding the Kutch peninsula).

Teacher's Note:
a) Distinguished from the Gulf of Khambhat which lies further south.
b) Label clearly as 'Gulf of Kutch'.
c) Indicated by the water indentation on the northwest coast of Gujarat.

(h) Mark and name the Satpura. [1 Mark]

Answer: Marked as a hill range running parallel to the Vindhyas across central India (Madhya Pradesh/Maharashtra border).

Teacher's Note:
a) Located between the Narmada and Tapti river valleys.
b) Label 'Satpura Range' clearly.
c) Must be horizontally oriented across central peninsular India.

(i) Mark using arrows, the direction of the South West Monsoon wind during summer over the Arabian Sea and label it. [1 Mark]

Answer: Arrows drawn moving from the Arabian Sea towards the western coast of India in a north-easterly/northerly direction, labeled 'South-West Monsoon (Arabian Sea Branch)'.

Teacher's Note:
a) Arrowheads must point towards the Indian landmass.
b) Must originate over the Arabian Sea.
c) Labeling is compulsory to earn full credit.

(j) Shade and label a sparsely populated region in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Shaded over Ladakh, Thar Desert (Western Rajasthan), or North-East India, labeled accordingly (e.g., Thar Desert / Ladakh).

Teacher's Note:
a) Regions with hostile terrain, extreme climate, or dense forests qualify.
b) Any one recognized sparsely populated region must be shaded.
c) Clear labeling is essential.

PART II (50 Marks)
Attempt any five questions from this Part

Question 3

(a) (i) Name one state in the north western part of India that receives rainfall during winter. [1 Mark]

Answer: Punjab (or Haryana / Himachal Pradesh / Jammu and Kashmir).

Teacher's Note:
a) Northwestern states experience winter rainfall.
b) Accept any one correct state.
c) Essential geographical fact regarding India's climate.

(a) (ii) What is the source of this rainfall? [1 Mark]

Answer: Temperate cyclones originating in the Mediterranean Sea, known as Western Disturbances.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords required: 'Western Disturbances' or 'Temperate cyclones'.
b) Crucial for winter crops like wheat in northwestern India.
c) Mentioning the Mediterranean Sea adds completeness.

(b) Give a reason for each of the following:
(i) Rainy season in India is after the summer season. [1 Mark]

Answer: Intense heating of the Indian subcontinent during summer creates a deep low-pressure area, which attracts moisture-laden South-West Monsoon winds from the surrounding seas, leading to the rainy season.

Teacher's Note:
a) High summer temperatures establish low pressure.
b) Low pressure draws winds from high pressure over the oceans.
c) Causes the onset of monsoon rains following the peak summer months.

(b) (ii) Tamil Nadu has more rainy months than Kerala, yet, Kerala receives more rainfall than Tamil Nadu. [1 Mark]

Answer: Kerala receives heavy rainfall from the South-West Monsoons during summer and retreating monsoons, whereas Tamil Nadu lies in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats during summer and receives rainfall mainly from the retreating/north-east monsoons over a longer period but in lesser quantities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Kerala gets intense rain from the Arabian Sea branch.
b) Tamil Nadu experiences more months of light rainfall from retreating winds.
c) Intensity vs duration is the core concept.

(c) (i) What do you understand by the term "Burst of Monsoon"? Name the state that experiences the "Burst of Monsoon". [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. The sudden onset of the moisture-laden South-West Monsoon winds, accompanied by violent thunder, lightning, and heavy downpour, is called the "Burst of Monsoon".
2. It marks the abrupt transition from the dry summer season to the wet rainy season.
3. The state that first experiences the "Burst of Monsoon" is Kerala.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define the sudden arrival with thunder and heavy rain.
b) Mention Kerala as the first landfall state.
c) All parts of the question must be answered to get full 3 marks.

(c) (ii) Even though India gets abundant rainfall during the rainy season, yet, some places experience drought. Explain giving suitable examples. [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. India's rainfall is seasonal, unequal, and erratic in nature.
2. Certain regions lie in rain shadow areas where moisture-laden winds do not shed adequate rain, leading to drought conditions.
3. Example: Parts of Rajasthan (Thar desert) or interior Karnataka and Rayalaseema in Andhra Pradesh experience drought despite the country receiving abundant overall rainfall.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain the uneven distribution of rainfall.
b) Highlight the role of rain shadow zones.
c) Provide a correct geographical example like western Rajasthan or interior Karnataka.

(c) (iii) Why is Shimla colder than Delhi during summer? [3 Marks]

Answer:
1. Shimla is located at a much higher altitude compared to Delhi.
2. Temperature decreases with an increase in altitude (Normal Lapse Rate of temperature, approx. 1°C per 166 meters of ascent).
3. Therefore, despite both experiencing summer, Shimla remains significantly cooler than Delhi.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the difference in altitude/elevation.
b) State the principle of lapse rate (temperature drops with height).
c) Keep the explanation concise and scientifically accurate.

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow: [3 Marks]

(i) Calculate the annual range of temperature.
(ii) State whether the station is located in the coastal area or in the continental interior.
(iii) Name the wind that brings most of the rainfall to this area.

Answer:
(i) Maximum temperature = 41.0°C (July), Minimum temperature = 8.4°C (January). Annual Range of Temperature = 41.0°C - 8.4°C = 32.6°C.
(ii) Continental interior (indicated by the high annual range of temperature of 32.6°C).
(iii) South-West Monsoon winds (specifically the Bay of Bengal / Arabian Sea branch).

Teacher's Note:
a) Range is calculated as Highest Temperature minus Lowest Temperature.
b) High temperature range signifies continental location (extreme summers and winters).
c) Heavy summer/monsoon rainfall is brought by South-West Monsoon winds.

Question 4

(a) (i) Name the parent rock that contributes to the formation of red soil. [1 Mark]

Answer: Ancient crystalline and metamorphic rocks (such as acid granites and gneisses).

Teacher's Note:
a) Red soil is residual soil formed by the decomposition of ancient crystalline rocks.
b) Keywords: Crystalline or metamorphic rocks.
c) Essential pedological fact.

(a) (ii) How does this soil get its 'red' colour? [1 Mark]

Answer: Due to the wide diffusion of iron oxides in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.

Teacher's Note:
a) Iron oxide (ferric oxide) imparts the characteristic red hue.
b) When hydrated, it appears yellow, but in dry form, it is red.
c) Must mention iron content.

(b) Name the following:
(i) a soil that occurs insitu and is good for cotton crop. [1 Mark]

Answer: Regur soil / Black soil

Teacher's Note:
a) Black soil is formed insitu (weathered in place from volcanic basalt rocks).
b) Highly suitable for growing cotton.
c) Also known as black cotton soil.

(b) (ii) soil that is formed due to high temperature and heavy rainfall. [1 Mark]

Answer: Laterite soil

Teacher's Note:
a) Formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods.
b) Subject to intense leaching.
c) Infertile unless heavily fertilized.

(c) With reference to Alluvial Soil answer the following:
(i) What are the two types of Alluvial Soil? [1 Mark]

Answer: Khadar (new alluvium) and Bhangar (older alluvium).

Teacher's Note:
a) Khadar is sandy, fertile, and renewed annually by floods.
b) Bhangar is older, clayey, and contains kankar (calcium carbonate nodules).
c) Both terms must be stated correctly.

(c) (ii) Name an area where Alluvial soil is found. [1 Mark]

Answer: Northern Plains of India (or Ganga-Brahmaputra valley / delta regions).

Teacher's Note:
a) Deposited by rivers originating in the Himalayas.
b) Covers large parts of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Bihar.
c) Any valid regional location is accepted.

(c) (iii) Name two crops that grow well in this soil. [1 Mark]

Answer: Rice and Wheat (or sugarcane, jute, pulses).

Teacher's Note:
a) Alluvial soil is extremely fertile and supports diverse crops.
b) Mention any two staple or cash crops.
c) Rice and wheat are the most prominent examples.

(d) (i) Define the term 'Residual' soil. [1 Mark]

Answer: Soils that are formed in situ by the weathering of parent rocks and remain at the place of their formation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Key phrase: formed in situ (at the same place).
b) Examples include red soil and black soil.
c) Contrasted with transported soils like alluvium.

(d) (ii) Name two crops that are grown on laterite soil. [1 Mark]

Answer: Tea, coffee, rubber, cashewnut, or tapioca (any two).

Teacher's Note:
a) Laterite soil is acidic and deficient in plant nutrients, but suitable for plantation crops with manure.
b) Tea and coffee are classic examples.
c) Mention any two.

(d) (iii) Name two important agents of soil erosion. [1 Mark]

Answer: Running water and Wind (or human activities like deforestation and overgrazing).

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural agents are primarily water (sheet/gully erosion) and wind.
b) Water is the most active agent in wet/hilly regions.
c) Wind is dominant in arid/semi-arid regions.

Question 5

(a) State two ways by which forests help in protecting the environment. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Forests absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen, thus regulating the carbon cycle and reducing global warming.
2. Tree roots bind the soil firmly, preventing soil erosion and controlling floods by regulating surface runoff.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on climate regulation and soil/water conservation.
b) Write two distinct, well-explained points.
c) Avoid vague general statements.

(b) With reference to Tropical Deciduous forests answer the following questions:
(i) Name two states where it is found. [1 Mark]

Answer: Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh (or Odisha, Jharkhand, Maharashtra).

Teacher's Note:
a) Also known as monsoon forests.
b) Found extensively in central and peninsular India.
c) Accept any two valid states.

(b) (ii) Name two important trees found in this forest. [1 Mark]

Answer: Teak and Sal (or Shisham, sandalwood, neem).

Teacher's Note:
a) These trees are economically very valuable.
b) They shed their leaves during the dry season.
c) Teak and Sal are the most prominent species.

(c) Briefly explain the following:
(i) Why are Tropical Evergreen forests called "Evergreen"? [1 Mark]

Answer: They do not shed all their leaves at one particular time of the year; different trees shed their leaves in different seasons, so the forest always appears green.

Teacher's Note:
a) Key concept: No single shedding season.
b) Continuous foliage cover makes them look green throughout the year.
c) Crucial characteristic of rainforest vegetation.

(c) (ii) Why is afforestation essential in the cities that have Iron and Steel industries? [1 Mark]

Answer: To absorb heavy carbon emissions, reduce air pollution caused by industrial smoke, and act as a green buffer to maintain ecological balance.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on pollution control and oxygen generation.
b) Heavy industries release large amounts of toxic gases and particulate matter.
c) Green belts act as natural filters.

(c) (iii) How do forests act as a source of income for the people. [1 Mark]

Answer: Forests provide timber, firewood, medicinal plants, rubber, resin, and minor forest produce (lac, honey, gum) which provide employment and livelihood to local communities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention commercial timber and minor forest produce (MFP).
b) Source of livelihood for tribal and rural populations.
c) Economic importance of forestry.

(d) Give a reason for each of the following:
(i) The Tropical Deciduous forest is commercially the most important forest belt in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Because they contain commercially valuable and durable timber trees like teak and sal, grow in pure stands, and are easily accessible compared to dense evergreen forests.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the presence of valuable timber species like teak and sal.
b) Trees grow in relatively open stands making logging easier.
c) High commercial demand in construction and furniture.

(d) (ii) Tropical Evergreen forests occur on the windward side of Western Ghats. [1 Mark]

Answer: Because the windward side receives heavy orographic rainfall (over 200 cm) from the South-West Monsoons, which is essential for the growth of evergreen vegetation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link heavy orographic rainfall to the windward side.
b) Evergreen plants require high annual rainfall and humidity.
c) Leeward side remains in the rain shadow and lacks such forests.

(d) (iii) It is very difficult to move through tidal forests. [1 Mark]

Answer: Due to dense tangled mangrove roots (stilt roots/pneumatophores), swampy muddy terrain, and waterlogged deltaic conditions.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention swampy/marshy soil conditions.
b) Mention complex, tangled aerial roots.
c) Makes human movement extremely difficult.

Question 6

(a) Mention any two methods of recharging ground water aquifers. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Rainwater harvesting (storing rooftop rainwater and directing it into borewells or recharge pits).
2. Construction of check dams, percolation tanks, and contour bunds to slow down surface runoff and allow water to percolate into the ground.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on artificial recharge techniques.
b) Mention rooftop harvesting and percolation tanks/check dams.
c) Two distinct methods required.

(b) (i) Name the most common means of irrigation used in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Well and tubewell irrigation

Teacher's Note:
a) Accounts for the largest share of net irrigated area in India.
b) Crucial for agricultural productivity.
c) Wells and tubewells tap underground water sources.

(b) (ii) Give one reason for the popularity of this means of irrigation in our country. [1 Mark]

Answer: They are an independent and cheap source of water that can be operated easily by farmers whenever required without depending on canals or monsoons.

Teacher's Note:
a) Farmers have direct control over water supply.
b) Underground water is widely available in many agricultural plains.
c) Avoids dependence on government canal schedules.

(c) (i) Name two states of India where Canal irrigation is extensively used. [1 Mark]

Answer: Punjab and Haryana (or Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan).

Teacher's Note:
a) Northern plains have perennial rivers suitable for canals.
b) Accept any two correct states.
c) Punjab and Uttar Pradesh are primary examples.

(c) (ii) Name the types of canals used in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Inundation canals and Perennial canals.

Teacher's Note:
a) Inundation canals draw water only when rivers are flooded during monsoons.
b) Perennial canals draw water throughout the year through dams and barrages.
c) Essential classification.

(c) (iii) Mention one point of difference between the types of canals mentioned by you. [1 Mark]

Answer: Perennial canals supply water throughout the year with the help of dams/barrages, whereas inundation canals receive water only during the rainy season when rivers are flooded.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast water availability duration (year-round vs seasonal flood-based).
b) Clearly state the distinction.
c) Direct and concise comparison.

(d) (i) What geographical conditions make irrigation necessary in the country? [1 Mark]

Answer: Seasonal, uncertain, and uneven distribution of monsoon rainfall, coupled with long dry spells during the crop-growing season.

Teacher's Note:
a) Monsoons are erratic and unreliable.
b) High evaporation rates and dry winters necessitate artificial watering.
c) Essential for high-yielding crop varieties.

(d) (ii) How has irrigation changed the cropping pattern in India? [1 Mark]

Answer: It has enabled farmers to cultivate water-intensive cash crops (like sugarcane, rice, wheat) in semi-arid and low-rainfall regions, and practice multiple cropping instead of relying on a single monsoon crop.

Teacher's Note:
a) Shift from subsistence to commercial/cash crop farming.
b) Enabled multi-cropping throughout the year.
c) Reduced dependence on monsoon rains.

(d) (iii) Why is there a scarcity of surface water in our country? [1 Mark]

Answer: Due to rapid population growth, intensive industrialization, expansion of agriculture requiring high water use, and massive pollution of rivers and lakes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Cite increasing demands from population, agriculture, and industry.
b) Mention water pollution reducing usable supply.
c) Seasonal nature of rainfall adds to the crisis.

Question 7

(a) (i) Why is iron ore called the back bone of our modern industry? [1 Mark]

Answer: Because it is the fundamental raw material used for making steel, which is essential for heavy machinery, tools, transport, construction, and all manufacturing industries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Steel derived from iron ore forms the base of industrial infrastructure.
b) Without it, machine tools and heavy engineering cannot exist.
c) Core industrial concept.

(a) (ii) Mention two uses of iron ore. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. Manufacturing of steel for construction, bridges, and buildings.
2. Making heavy machinery, railway tracks, and transport vehicles.

Teacher's Note:
a) Give two distinct practical uses.
b) Mention construction and manufacturing/machinery.
c) Simple and direct answer.

(b) Mention one agricultural and one industrial problem solved by the Bhakra Nangal Dam. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Agricultural problem solved: Provides assured perennial irrigation to drought-prone and low-rainfall areas of Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan.
2. Industrial problem solved: Generates hydroelectric power which is supplied to industries in northern India.

Teacher's Note:
a) One mark for agriculture (irrigation).
b) One mark for industry (hydroelectric power generation).
c) Both sectors must be addressed clearly.

(c) (i) Name the state that is the leading producer of Manganese. [1 Mark]

Answer: Odisha (or Madhya Pradesh / Maharashtra / Karnataka depending on annual rankings, Odisha is widely accepted as leading producer).

Teacher's Note:
a) Manganese is essential for steel manufacturing.
b) Odisha is the top producer state in India.
c) Check current standard textbook reference.

(c) (ii) Name the mineral oil field of India which is the largest producer of Petroleum. [1 Mark]

Answer: Mumbai High

Teacher's Note:
a) Located offshore in the Arabian Sea near Mumbai.
b) Accounts for the highest share of India's indigenous petroleum production.
c) Must be spelled correctly.

(c) (iii) Mention two advantages of using Geothermal energy over coal. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. It is a clean, renewable, and eco-friendly source of energy that does not cause air pollution or greenhouse gas emissions like coal.
2. It is inexhaustible and not subject to depletion or mining hazards associated with coal.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on environmental friendliness (no pollution).
b) Focus on renewability (inexhaustible vs finite fossil fuels).
c) Two clear comparative points.

(d) (i) Mention one disadvantage of using natural gas as a source of power. [1 Mark]

Answer: It is highly flammable and hazardous to transport/store, or it is a non-renewable fossil fuel that produces greenhouse gases when burned.

Teacher's Note:
a) Can mention safety risks (highly explosive/flammable pipeline transport).
b) Can mention it being a finite fossil fuel.
c) Any one valid disadvantage is accepted.

(d) (ii) How is the residue from a Bio-gas plant put to use? [1 Mark]

Answer: It is used as high-quality organic manure (fertilizer) rich in nutrients to improve soil fertility.

Teacher's Note:
a) Slurry residue serves as excellent manure for agriculture.
b) Completes the organic recycling loop.
c) Essential benefit of biogas plants.

(d) (iii) Why is the use of alternative sources of energy becoming essential in modern time? [1 Mark]

Answer: Due to the rapid depletion of conventional fossil fuels (coal, petroleum), rising global energy demands, and environmental pollution / global warming caused by fossil fuel combustion.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention depletion of fossil fuels.
b) Mention environmental pollution and climate change.
c) Shift towards sustainable/renewable energy.

Question 8

(a) Mention two points of difference between subsistence farming and commercial farming. [2 Marks]

Answer:

Teacher's Note:
a) Difference must cover objective (family consumption vs profit) and methods (traditional vs modern).
b) Presenting in a tabular format ensures clarity.
c) Both points must be distinct.

(b) Explain briefly the following terms:
(i) Ginning. [1 Mark]

Answer: The process of separating raw cotton fibers from cotton seeds after harvesting.

Teacher's Note:
a) Key process in cotton processing.
b) Separates lint from seeds before spinning.
c) Standard agricultural terminology.

(b) (ii) Ratooning. [1 Mark]

Answer: A method of cultivating sugarcane where the new crop is grown from the stubble or roots of the previously harvested crop instead of planting fresh seeds/setts.

Teacher's Note:
a) Saves time, labor, and cost of planting new setts.
b) Frequently practiced in sugarcane cultivation.
c) Clear definition required.

(c) With reference to the wheat crop answer the following questions:
(i) Name the state which is the leading producer of this crop in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Uttar Pradesh

Teacher's Note:
a) Uttar Pradesh is the top wheat-producing state in India.
b) Punjab and Haryana follow closely in productivity.
c) Simple factual answer.

(c) (ii) Mention the climatic condition found suitable for the cultivation of this crop. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Temperature: Cool climate during growing season (10°C to 15°C) and bright sunshine during harvesting (20°C to 25°C).
2. Rainfall: Moderate rainfall ranging between 50 cm and 75 cm, well-distributed throughout the growing season.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention temperature requirements (cool winter, warm summer at harvest).
b) Mention rainfall range (50-75 cm).
c) Essential climatic parameters for Rabi crops.

(d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following:
(i) Cultivation of rice requires flat level land. [1 Mark]

Answer: Because rice fields (paddy fields) need to be flooded with standing water for a long duration during their growing stage, which is only possible on flat terrain.

Teacher's Note:
a) Water retention is critical for paddy cultivation.
b) Sloping land would cause water runoff.
c) Flat plains facilitate inundation.

(d) (ii) Pulses are important rotation crops. [1 Mark]

Answer: Because they are leguminous plants that have nitrogen-fixing bacteria in their root nodules, which restore soil fertility naturally.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keywords: Leguminous, nitrogen fixation, restores soil fertility.
b) Reduces chemical fertilizer dependency.
c) Standard agronomic practice.

(d) (iii) Bajra and Jowar are grown as dry crops. [1 Mark]

Answer: Because they are drought-resistant millets that require very little rainfall and can thrive in poor, sandy, or inferior soils where other crops fail.

Teacher's Note:
a) Drought-resistant nature of millets.
b) Grown in low rainfall areas (arid/semi-arid regions).
c) Explains their status as dry-farming crops.

Question 9

(a) Give two reasons as to why Mumbai has developed into an important cotton textile centre. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Proximity to the black cotton soil region of Maharashtra ensures an abundant supply of raw cotton.
2. Humid climate of Mumbai is highly favorable for spinning cotton yarn without thread breakage.
3. Availability of cheap hydroelectric power, port facilities for exporting goods, and financial capital support.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention raw material availability (black soil region).
b) Mention humid climate and port/market facilities.
c) Any two strong locational factors required.

(b) (i) What are Basic Industries? [1 Mark]

Answer: Industries whose products are used as raw materials to manufacture other goods and finished products for other industries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Also known as key industries.
b) Provide raw materials for secondary/consumer industries.
c) Example: Iron and steel industry.

(b) (ii) Give one example of a Basic Industry in India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Iron and Steel industry (or Aluminium smelting / Petrochemical industry).

Teacher's Note:
a) Iron and steel is the prime example.
b) Serves as the foundation for other manufacturing sectors.
c) Simple, direct answer.

(c) (i) State two problems faced by the Silk Industry of India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Competition from cheaper synthetic and artificial silks in the global and domestic market.
2. Outdated machinery and traditional methods of reeling and processing resulting in lower quality output.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention synthetic competition.
b) Mention obsolete technology/machinery.
c) Two distinct industrial challenges.

(c) (ii) Mention the most important factor for location of Sugar industries. [1 Mark]

Answer: Proximity to sugarcane-producing areas (weight-losing and perishable raw material).

Teacher's Note:
a) Sugarcane is perishable and loses sucrose content quickly after harvesting.
b) Must be located close to farms to avoid weight loss and spoilage during transit.
c) Classic example of raw-material-oriented industry.

(d) Briefly answer the following:
(i) From where does the Rourkela Steel plant obtain its supply of coal? [1 Mark]

Answer: Jharia coalfields (in Jharkhand) or Talcher / Bokaro.

Teacher's Note:
a) Rourkela (Odisha) sources coking coal from nearby Jharia or Bokaro fields.
b) Essential raw material linkage.
c) Standard map-based industrial geography fact.

(d) (ii) From where does the Tata Iron and Steel plant obtain its supply of iron ore? [1 Mark]

Answer: Noamundi mines (in Singhbhum district of Jharkhand / Mayurbhanj in Odisha).

Teacher's Note:
a) TISCO (Jamshedpur) obtains iron ore from nearby rich mines like Noamundi and Badampahar.
b) Ensures minimum transportation cost.
c) Precise mine name is expected.

(d) (iii) Name two cities that are important for the production of Electronics. [1 Mark]

Answer: Bengaluru and Hyderabad (or Chennai, Pune, Mumbai, Delhi, Noida).

Teacher's Note:
a) Bengaluru is known as the Silicon Valley of India.
b) Hyderabad is another major IT and electronics hub.
c) Accept any two correct electronics manufacturing hubs.

Question 10

(a) With reference to Waterways answer the following questions:
(i) Mention two advantages of inland water transport. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is the cheapest mode of transport for bulky and heavy goods over long distances as it requires no track construction or maintenance.
2. It is eco-friendly and fuel-efficient, producing minimal carbon emissions compared to roadways and railways.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention cost-effectiveness for heavy/bulky cargo.
b) Mention environmental benefits and low fuel consumption.
c) Two distinct advantages required.

(a) (ii) Why is inland water transport not well developed in India? [1 Mark]

Answer: Because many rivers are seasonal and dry up in summer, navigation is hindered by waterfalls and rapids, and water is heavily diverted for irrigation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention seasonal rivers (lack of perennial water in southern rivers).
b) Mention diversion of water for agriculture.
c) Obstacles like dams and rapids.

(b) Even though all means of transport are well developed in India, yet, road transport remains the most popular means of transport. Justify this statement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Roads provide door-to-door service, connecting remote villages and towns where railways cannot reach.
2. Construction, maintenance, and operation costs of roads are much lower, and loading/unloading is flexible compared to railways or airways.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight door-to-door connectivity.
b) Highlight flexibility and lower construction cost.
c) Justification must be clear.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following:
(i) Roadways is not well developed in North East India. [1 Mark]

Answer: Due to rugged mountainous terrain, dense forests, heavy rainfall, frequent landslides, and numerous wide rivers that make road construction and maintenance extremely difficult.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention hilly/rugged terrain.
b) Mention heavy rainfall and dense vegetation.
c) Physical barriers restrict road expansion.

(c) (ii) Railways are under the public sector. [1 Mark]

Answer: Because railways require massive capital investment, serve as a public utility essential for national integration, and cannot be left solely to private profit-making enterprises.

Teacher's Note:
a) High capital requirement beyond private capacity.
b) Social welfare and national integration objective.
c) Strategic importance of rail network.

(c) (iii) A good network of transport is of great help for the development of the economy. [1 Mark]

Answer: Because it ensures the smooth movement of raw materials to industries and finished goods to markets, facilitates trade, generates employment, and integrates different regions of the country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Connects producers with markets.
b) Facilitates mobility of goods, services, and labor.
c) Lifeline of trade and economic growth.

(d) (i) Give two disadvantages of Airways. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is the most expensive mode of transport, making it unaffordable for common people and bulky freight.
2. It is heavily dependent on weather conditions and gets disrupted or grounded during fog, storms, and heavy rains.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention high cost/expense.
b) Mention weather vulnerability.
c) Two clear disadvantages.

(d) (ii) Why is there an increase of airway traffic in recent years? [1 Mark]

Answer: Due to globalization, increase in disposable incomes, growth of business travel, and the emergence of budget airlines making air travel faster and accessible to a larger population.

Teacher's Note:
a) Speed and time-saving advantage.
b) Rise of low-cost carriers (budget airlines).
c) Growth in corporate and leisure travel.

Question 11

(a) (i) What do you mean by segregation of waste? [1 Mark]

Answer: The sorting and separating of waste materials into different categories such as biodegradable (wet) and non-biodegradable (dry/recyclable) waste at the source of generation.

Teacher's Note:
a) Key concept: Sorting waste at source.
b) Distinguish between wet and dry waste.
c) Fundamental step in waste management.

(a) (ii) Why is segregation of waste essential before its disposal? [1 Mark]

Answer: Because it makes recycling easier, reduces the volume of waste sent to landfills, prevents hazardous materials from contaminating organic waste, and allows proper treatment (composting vs recycling).

Teacher's Note:
a) Facilitates recycling and composting.
b) Prevents toxic contamination.
c) Reduces landfill pressure.

(b) Why should sewage be treated before disposal? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To remove harmful pathogens, bacteria, and toxic pollutants so that it does not contaminate water bodies and spread water-borne diseases like cholera and typhoid.
2. To prevent eutrophication and destruction of aquatic life caused by organic waste depletion of dissolved oxygen in rivers and lakes.

Teacher's Note:
a) Health safety (preventing water-borne diseases).
b) Environmental safety (preventing aquatic pollution and eutrophication).
c) Two well-articulated reasons.

(c) Briefly answer each of the following:
(i) What is the effect of Waste accumulation on terrestrial life? [1 Mark]

Answer: It breeds disease-carrying vectors (mosquitoes, rats), contaminates soil and groundwater through toxic leachates, and harms animals that ingest plastic waste.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention disease vectors and soil contamination.
b) Mention harm to stray animals swallowing plastic.
c) Clear environmental impact.

(c) (ii) What are the consequences of Water pollution? [1 Mark]

Answer: It causes water-borne diseases among humans, destroys aquatic ecosystems, depletes dissolved oxygen (causing fish kills), and renders water unfit for drinking and agriculture.

Teacher's Note:
a) Health hazards for humans.
b) Destruction of aquatic biodiversity.
c) Loss of usable freshwater resources.

(c) (iii) What is the benefit of Composting? [1 Mark]

Answer: It converts organic kitchen/garden waste into nutrient-rich organic manure, which improves soil structure and reduces the volume of garbage sent to landfills.

Teacher's Note:
a) Produces natural fertilizer for plants.
b) Reduces municipal solid waste sent to dumping sites.
c) Eco-friendly waste disposal method.

(d) (i) How can recycling of Waste help in reducing waste? Explain with suitable examples. [1 Mark]

Answer: Recycling converts discarded materials into new usable products, reducing the need for raw materials. Example: Recycling old plastic bottles to make polyester fibers or recycling waste paper to produce new paper products.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain conversion of waste into new products.
b) Provide a relevant example (paper, plastic, or glass recycling).
c) Promotes circular economy.

(d) (ii) Mention one initiative taken by the Government to manage waste. [1 Mark]

Answer: Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (Clean India Mission) or the Plastic Waste Management Rules / implementation of Smart City waste segregation projects.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name a prominent government scheme.
b) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is the most widely recognized initiative.
c) Fosters cleanliness and proper waste handling.

(d) (iii) How can you as an individual contribute towards waste management? [1 Mark]

Answer: By practicing the 3Rs (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle), segregating wet and dry waste at home, avoiding single-use plastics, and composting organic kitchen waste.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention personal responsibility actions like segregation and reducing plastic use.
b) Practical contribution expected.
c) Concludes waste management theme.