ICSE Class 10 Geography Board Exam Question Paper 2019 with Solutions

ICSE Board
Class X Geography
Board Paper - 2019

Part I (30 Marks)
Attempt all questions from this Part

Question I
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map sheet No 45D/10 and answer the following questions:

[Figure: Survey of India Map sheet No 45D/10]

(a) (i) Give the six-figure grid reference for the temple that is located to the south west of Pithapura settlement. [1 Mark]

Answer: 201214

Teacher's Note:
a) Always take eastings first and then northings.
b) Estimate the third and sixth digits carefully by dividing the grid square into tenths.
c) Ensure the grid square 2021 is correctly identified before interpolating.

(a) (ii) Give the four-figure grid reference for a settlement where people of the region meet socially and for trade at least once in a year. [1 Mark]

Answer: Village Pamera 1622 or Village Malgaon 1520.

Teacher's Note:
a) A settlement with an annual fair is marked with a temple or festival symbol.
b) Give the four-figure grid reference clearly.
c) Mentioning the village name adds clarity.

(b) (i) What is the pattern of drainage seen in the grid square 2118? [1 Mark]

Answer: Radial

Teacher's Note:
a) Look at streams originating from a central highland point and flowing outwards.
b) Radial drainage is typical of conical hills or domes.
c) Keep drainage pattern terms accurate.

(b) (ii) What is the pattern of settlement seen in the grid square 1923? [1 Mark]

Answer: Nucleated or clustered.

Teacher's Note:
a) Nucleated settlements have closely spaced houses grouped together.
b) They are usually found in fertile agricultural plains.
c) Use standard settlement terminology.

(c) What do each of the two numbers (281 printed in black colour and 20 printed in red colour) in the grid square 1818 indicate? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. 281 in Black indicates Spot Height.
2. 20 in Red indicates Mile stone.

Teacher's Note:
a) Black numbers generally indicate spot heights or survey heights.
b) Red numbers along roads indicate distances in miles (mile stones).
c) Distinguish carefully between contour values, spot heights, and milestones.

(d) (i) Name any two man-made features in grid square 2419. [1 Mark]

Answer: Cart track, lined perennial well, houses.

Teacher's Note:
a) Man-made features include tracks, buildings, wells, and bridges.
b) List any two distinct features visible in the specified grid.
c) Verify symbols from the conventional signs key.

(d) (ii) Name any two natural features in grid square 2118. [1 Mark]

Answer: Seasonal streams, hill Bhumi Magri.

Teacher's Note:
a) Natural features include streams, rivers, hills, and forests.
b) Ensure the features listed are physical rather than anthropogenic.
c) Check hill names if printed on the map.

(e) What is the significance of the following? [2 Marks]
(i) Fire line in grid square 2417.
(ii) Water body found in grid square 2221.

Answer:
(i) Fire line is a clearing made in the forest to prevent the spread of fire.
(ii) It is the Tokra reservoir / Talao which provides the supply of water for domestic as well as agricultural use.

Teacher's Note:
a) Fire lines are important forest management features.
b) Reservoirs and tanks (talaos) indicate water storage for irrigation and domestic needs.
c) Write clear, direct explanations for map symbols.

(f) Calculate the area of the region between 16 and 19 Easting's and 18 and 22 Northings. Give your answer in Kilometer square. [2 Marks]

Answer:
Distance on the map between eastings 16 to 19 = 6 cm.
Distance on the map between northings 18 to 22 = 8 cm.
As per scale, 2 cm on the map is equal to 1 km on the ground.
6 cm on the map is equal to 3 km on the ground (1/2 x 6 = 3 km).
8 cm on the map is equal to 4 km on the ground (1/2 x 8 = 4 km).
Thus, Area = 3 km x 4 km = 12 sq km.

Teacher's Note:
a) Note the standard topographical map scale where 2 cm represents 1 km.
b) Calculate the length and breadth in kilometers first.
c) Multiply length by breadth to get the final area in square kilometers.

(g) Give a reason for each of the following: [2 Marks]
(i) The water in some of the wells in north west quarter of the map is not fit for drinking.
(ii) The region near Anadra and Gulabganj has many causeways.

Answer:
(i) The water in the wells in the north-west quarter of the map is brackish, meaning the water in these wells is salty and not suitable for drinking.
(ii) Area between Gulabganj and Anadra is a region of scanty rainfall with a number of seasonal streams, so elevated roads across minor streams are possible, leading to the region having many causeways.

Teacher's Note:
a) Brackish water wells are indicated on maps where groundwater has high salt content.
b) Causeways are built across seasonal streams in arid or semi-arid regions.
c) Give concise geographical reasons.

(h) (i) What is the main means of irrigation used by people living in the area shown on the map? [1 Mark]

Answer: Canal and lined perennial wells.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify irrigation symbols like lined wells with water channels or canals.
b) State both major means if applicable.
c) Keep answers precise.

(h) (ii) What is the main occupation of the people of the region shown on the map? [1 Mark]

Answer: Agriculture.

Teacher's Note:
a) Presence of agricultural land, wells, and rural settlements indicates farming.
b) Agriculture is the primary occupation in rural topographical sheets.
c) Direct one-word or short-phrase answer.

(i) Which according to you is the most important settlement? Give a reason to support your answer. [2 Marks]

Answer: Anadra is the most important settlement as it has a post and a telegraph office, dak bungalow, police chowki and a dispensary.

Teacher's Note:
a) Important settlements are identified by administrative and public utility symbols.
b) Look for post offices, police stations, and inspection bungalows.
c) State the settlement name and support with map evidence.

(j) Name any two means of transport used by the people living in the area shown on the map extract. [2 Marks]

Answer: Metalled roads and cart tracks.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify transport routes from the red and black lines representing roads and tracks.
b) List any two valid transport routes.
c) Keep answers factual.

Question 2
On the outline map of India provided:
(a) Shade and label the Gangetic Plain. [1 Mark]
(b) Shade and label an area of laterite soil in North India. [1 Mark]
(c) Mark and label the Karakoram Mountains. [1 Mark]
(d) Mark and name the Palk Strait. [1 Mark]
(e) Shade and label the river Cauveri. [1 Mark]
(f) Mark and name Mumbai. [1 Mark]
(g) Mark and name the Nathu La Pass. [1 Mark]
(h) Mark and name Digboi. [1 Mark]
(i) Shade and name the Deccan Plateau. [1 Mark]
(j) Shade and label the river Jhelum. [1 Mark]

[Figure: Outline political map of India for marking geographical features]

Answer:
(a) Gangetic Plain shaded and labeled across northern India.
(b) Laterite soil area shaded and labeled in parts of the northeastern region or northern uplands.
(c) Karakoram Mountains marked and labeled in the extreme northern tip.
(d) Palk Strait marked and named between India and Sri Lanka.
(e) River Cauveri shaded and labeled in southern India.
(f) Mumbai marked and named on the western coast.
(g) Nathu La Pass marked and labeled in Sikkim.
(h) Digboi marked and named in Assam.
(i) Deccan Plateau shaded and labeled across peninsular India.
(j) River Jhelum shaded and labeled in Jammu and Kashmir.

Teacher's Note:
a) Practise map pointing regularly on outline maps of India.
b) Use correct shading for regions and clear dots/lines for cities and rivers.
c) Ensure all labels are clearly legible.

PART II (50 Marks)
Attempt any five questions from this Part

Question 3

(a) (i) What type of wind is 'Monsoon'? What is the direction during summer? [1 Mark]

Answer: Monsoon wind is a periodic wind. Its direction during summer is South West to North East.

Teacher's Note:
a) Monsoons reverse their direction periodically with the seasons.
b) Summer monsoons blow from sea to land (South-West).
c) Mention both the wind type and direction for full marks.

(a) (ii) Mention two characteristics of the Indian monsoon. [1 Mark]

Answer:
1. South-West monsoon is erratic in nature.
2. Distribution of rainfall is uneven.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight uncertainty and uneven spatial distribution.
b) Mention seasonal character or orographic influence.
c) Keep points concise.

(b) With reference to the summer season in India, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention the duration of the summer season in India.
(ii) What is the atmospheric pressure condition during summer season over the central part of India? [2 Marks]

Answer:
(i) The summer season or hot dry season in India commences in March and continues till the end of May.
(ii) During the summer season as the whole country heats up, low pressure conditions over the central part of India become severe and a low pressure trough develops between Thar Desert and Chotanagpur Plateau.

Teacher's Note:
a) State exact months for the season.
b) Connect high temperatures with low pressure development.
c) Mention the thermal low pressure trough.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Goa receives heavier rainfall than Puducherry.
(ii) Mawsynram receives the highest average annual rainfall.
(iii) Mangaluru is cooler than Delhi in summer season.

Answer:
(i) Goa is located on the western coast of India and receives heavy rainfall from the Arabian Sea branch of SW monsoon, while Puducherry is on the eastern coast in the rain shadow area of the Western Ghats and receives less rain.
(ii) Mawsynram is situated along the edge of the Meghalaya plateau and stands at the end of a funnel-shaped valley, on the windward side of the Khasi hills which acts as a trap for the rain-bearing Bay of Bengal branch of the SW monsoon.
(iii) Mangaluru is situated on the western coast and enjoys the moderating influence of the sea, whereas Delhi lies in the interior and experiences a continental type of climate with very hot summers.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast coastal locations and rain shadow effects.
b) Explain funnel-shaped topography for Mawsynram.
c) Differentiate maritime and continental influences on temperature.

(d) Study the data of distribution of temperature and rain for Station X and answer the questions that follow. [3 Marks]

(i) Where is Station X situated?
(ii) Calculate the annual range of temperature for Station X.
(iii) Name the winds that bring maximum rainfall to this station.

Answer:
(i) Station X is situated in the interior parts of the country.
(ii) Annual range of temperature = Maximum temperature - Minimum temperature = 42°C - 10°C = 32°C.
(iii) SW monsoon wind.

Teacher's Note:
a) High annual range of temperature indicates an interior continental location.
b) Show subtraction clearly for temperature range.
c) Heavy summer rainfall months correspond to South-West monsoon winds.

Question 4

(a) (i) Name the Indian soil which is formed due to the weathering of basic igneous rocks.
(ii) Name two states of India where this type of soil is found. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(i) Black Soil.
(ii) Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Teacher's Note:
a) Black soil (Regur) is derived from basaltic lava rocks.
b) Maharashtra and Gujarat are major black soil regions.
c) Keep answers precise and direct.

(b) Name the following: [2 Marks]
(i) An important transported soil of India.
(ii) Soil that is rich in iron oxide.

Answer:
(i) Alluvial Soil
(ii) Red Soil

Teacher's Note:
a) Alluvial soils are deposited by rivers (transported).
b) Red soils derive their red color from iron oxide.
c) Answer with exact soil names.

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Terrace farming is an ideal soil conservation method for hilly regions.
(ii) Dry farming is preferred in areas with red soil.
(iii) Wind is a common agent of soil erosion in arid regions.

Answer:
(i) Terraced farming checks erosion as it cuts steps along slopes, reducing the velocity and direct flow of water down the slopes.
(ii) Red soil has lower moisture retention and areas with red soil often receive moderate rainfall, making drought-resistant crops and dry farming suitable.
(iii) Arid regions have sparse vegetation and loose sandy soil, allowing strong dry winds to easily blow away the topsoil.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain how steps break water runoff velocity.
b) Relate red soil properties to water availability.
c) Mention lack of vegetation and wind action in arid zones.

(d) Briefly answer the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Mention one way in which man is responsible for soil erosion.
(ii) How can deepening of the river bed help in preventing soil erosion?
(iii) Mention a physical characteristic of Laterite soil.

Answer:
(i) Deforestation through indiscriminate cutting down of trees leaves soil exposed to wind and water erosion.
(ii) Deepening of the river bed increases carrying capacity, preventing rivers from overflowing and causing massive bank erosion during floods.
(iii) Laterite soil is coarse, porous, and lacks fertility due to leaching caused by heavy rainfall.

Teacher's Note:
a) Anthropogenic factors like deforestation accelerate soil loss.
b) Emphasize flood control through channel deepening.
c) Mention leaching and porosity for laterite soil.

Question 5

(a) Give two reasons to explain as to why we need to conserve our forest resource. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Forests help maintain ecological balance, regulate climate, and absorb carbon dioxide.
2. They prevent soil erosion, conserve groundwater, and protect wildlife habitats.

Teacher's Note:
a) Focus on environmental and economic importance of forests.
b) Mention soil and water conservation.
c) Write two distinct points.

(b) (i) Mention two conditions required for the growth of Littoral Forest.
(ii) State one characteristic feature of the forest found in the Nilgiri Hills. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(i) 1. Delta regions or creeks and estuaries prone to tidal influence.
2. High rainfall and warm tropical temperature.
(ii) Mountain forests consist of mixed deciduous and coniferous trees with tall trees and dense undergrowth.

Teacher's Note:
a) Littoral/mangrove forests thrive in tidal coastal areas.
b) Nilgiri mountain forests show altitudinal zonation.
c) Keep answers clear and specific.

(c) (i) Give two reasons to explain as to why the Tropical Evergreen Forests are difficult to exploit for commercial purpose.
(ii) Name any two trees found in Tropical Evergreen forests. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(i) 1. Trees do not grow in pure stands; multiple species are intermixed.
2. Dense undergrowth and lack of transport facilities make access difficult.
(ii) Rosewood and Mahogany.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mixed stand distribution makes commercial logging uneconomical.
b) Dense undergrowth hinders movement.
c) Name standard evergreen timber species.

(d) Briefly explain each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) The trees in the Tropical Desert Forests have stunted growth.
(ii) There is a gradual increase in the forest cover in India in recent times.
(iii) The trees in Monsoon Deciduous forests, shed their leaves for about 6-8 weeks during March and April.

Answer:
(i) Tropical desert trees have stunted growth due to scanty rainfall and constant dry winds.
(ii) Forest cover has increased due to government afforestation programs like Van Mahotsav and strict conservation laws.
(iii) Deciduous trees shed leaves to reduce transpiration and conserve moisture during the dry summer months.

Teacher's Note:
a) Relate desert plant features to water scarcity.
b) Mention afforestation initiatives for cover increase.
c) Explain physiological purpose of leaf shedding.

Question 6

(a) "The modern means of irrigation are gaining popularity". Give two reasons to justify this statement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Modern methods like drip and sprinkler irrigation prevent water wastage through seepage and evaporation.
2. They ensure high water application efficiency and are suitable for undulating terrain.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight water conservation benefits.
b) Mention high efficiency and uniform distribution.
c) Provide two clear reasons.

(b) Mention two factors that favour the development of tube well irrigation in Punjab. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Soft alluvial soil facilitates easy digging of tube wells.
2. High groundwater table with perennial water supply.

Teacher's Note:
a) Soft alluvial plains allow deep boring.
b) Plentiful groundwater recharge supports continuous pumping.
c) Mention soil and water table factors.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Most of the South Indian states are not suitable for development of canal irrigation.
(ii) There is an urgent need for water conservation in India.
(iii) Development of irrigation is essential for the growth of the agriculture sector of India.

Answer:
(i) South Indian rivers are non-perennial and flow over uneven rocky terrain of the Deccan plateau, making canal construction difficult.
(ii) Growing population, industrial pollution, and over-extraction of groundwater are depleting freshwater resources rapidly.
(iii) Indian agriculture depends heavily on erratic monsoon rains; reliable irrigation ensures multiple cropping and higher crop yields.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast peninsular rocky terrain with northern alluvial plains.
b) Mention water table depletion and rising demand.
c) Highlight monsoon dependence of Indian farming.

(d) Briefly explain the following terms: [3 Marks]
(i) Inundation canal.
(ii) Rooftop rainwater harvesting.
(iii) Surface water.

Answer:
(i) Inundation canals are taken out from perennial rivers without regulation gates, receiving water only when rivers are in flood.
(ii) Rooftop rainwater harvesting is the technique of capturing rainwater from roofs and storing it in tanks or recharging groundwater aquifers.
(iii) Surface water refers to water available on the Earth's surface in rivers, lakes, ponds, and streams.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define inundation canals based on flood flow dependency.
b) Explain rainwater collection from rooftops.
c) Differentiate surface water from groundwater.

Question 7

(a) Give two advantages of using bio-gas as a source of power. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Bio-gas is an eco-friendly, renewable energy source that emits fewer greenhouse gases than fossil fuels.
2. It utilizes organic waste and agricultural residue, providing cheap fuel and organic manure.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention eco-friendly and renewable nature.
b) Highlight waste utilization and fertilizer byproduct.
c) Write two clear points.

(b) Name the following: [2 Marks]
(i) A metallic mineral for which the Balaghat district of Madhya Pradesh is famous.
(ii) The Multi-purpose project based on the River Sutlej.

Answer:
(i) Copper (or Manganese)
(ii) Bhakra Nangal Project

Teacher's Note:
a) Balaghat is renowned for copper and manganese deposits.
b) Bhakra Nangal is located on the Sutlej River.
c) Provide exact mineral and project names.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Odisha has benefitted greatly from the Hirakud project.
(ii) Copper is used to make electric wires.
(iii) India's location is advantageous for the generation of solar power.

Answer:
(i) Hirakud project provides canal irrigation, flood control, and hydroelectricity to support industries and agriculture in Odisha.
(ii) Copper is an excellent conductor of electricity with high ductility.
(iii) India is a tropical country located near the equator, receiving abundant sunlight for over 300 days a year.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention irrigation and power benefits of Hirakud.
b) State electrical conductivity property of copper.
c) Relate tropical location to solar insulation.

(d) Briefly answer the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Name a mineral used to generate nuclear power.
(ii) Why is petroleum often referred to as "liquid gold"?
(iii) State one disadvantage of using coal as a source of power.

Answer:
(i) Uranium (or Thorium)
(ii) Petroleum is called liquid gold because of its high economic value and immense utility as a source of energy and petrochemical products.
(iii) Burning coal emits large amounts of carbon dioxide and pollutants, causing air pollution and contributing to global warming.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name radioactive minerals correctly.
b) Explain economic importance of petroleum.
c) Mention environmental pollution caused by coal combustion.

Question 8

(a) Mention two steps taken by the government to boost agricultural production in India. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Distribution of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds and subsidized fertilizers.
2. Provision of institutional agricultural credit and expansion of irrigation facilities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention HYV seeds and modern inputs.
b) Include credit and irrigation support.
c) Write two distinct points.

(b) (i) Name two varieties of millet grown in India.
(ii) What is the soil requirement for growing millet? [2 Marks]

Answer:
(i) Jowar and Bajra.
(ii) Millets can grow on inferior, sandy, loamy, shallow, and well-drained soils.

Teacher's Note:
a) Name common millets accurately.
b) Note that millets are hardy crops requiring less fertile soil.
c) Keep answers concise.

(c) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follows:

[Figure: Picture of cotton bolls opening up on a plant]

(i) Mention the climatic condition that is suitable for the cultivation of this crop.
(ii) Name the state that produces the largest amount of this crop.
(iii) In which cropping season is this crop grown in India? [3 Marks]

Answer:
(i) Warm temperature (21°C to 27°C), moderate rainfall (50-100 cm), and 200 frost-free days.
(ii) Gujarat (or Maharashtra).
(iii) Kharif season.

Teacher's Note:
a) Identify the crop as cotton from the bolls.
b) Mention temperature, frost-free days, and moderate rainfall.
c) State leading producer state and kharif season.

(d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Cultivation of wheat is confined to the northern part of India.
(ii) Practicing mixed farming gives security to farmers.
(iii) Ratoon cropping is gaining popularity among sugarcane cultivations.

Answer:
(i) Wheat requires a cool winter climate and moderate rainfall during growth, which is prevalent in northern India.
(ii) Mixed farming involves crop cultivation and livestock rearing simultaneously, providing financial security if crop failure occurs.
(iii) Ratoon cropping saves the cost and time of replanting since crops sprout from leftover roots, leading to earlier maturity.

Teacher's Note:
a) Relate wheat to northern winter climate.
b) Explain dual income benefit in mixed farming.
c) Highlight cost and time-saving benefits of ratoon cropping.

Question 9

(a) Where do the following iron and steel plants get their supply of iron ore from? [2 Marks]
(i) Bhilai Iron and Steel Plant.
(ii) Vishakhapatnam Steel Plant.

Answer:
(i) Bhilai gets iron ore from Dalli-Rajhara range.
(ii) Vishakhapatnam gets iron ore from Bailadila mines.

Teacher's Note:
a) Link steel plants to their respective iron ore mines.
b) Bhilai sources from Dalli-Rajhara.
c) Vishakhapatnam sources from Bailadila.

(b) 'Karnataka has developed as an important state for the growth of the Silk industry'. Give two reasons to justify the statement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Availability of favorable climatic conditions for sericulture and mulberry cultivation throughout the year.
2. Abundant supply of soft water needed for silk processing and reeling.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention favorable climate and mulberry leaf supply.
b) Highlight soft water availability.
c) Write two valid points.

(c) With reference to sugar industries answer the following questions: [3 Marks]
(i) Why should these industries be located close to the sugarcane growing areas?
(ii) Name two by-products of the sugar industry.
(iii) Mention one leading sugar producing state in North India and one in South India.

Answer:
(i) Sugarcane is a weight-losing perishable crop; its sucrose content decreases rapidly if not crushed within 24 hours of harvesting.
(ii) Molasses and Bagasse.
(iii) North India: Uttar Pradesh; South India: Maharashtra.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain perishable and weight-losing nature of sugarcane.
b) List standard by-products like molasses and bagasse.
c) Name top producing states correctly.

(d) Give a reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Ahmedabad is an important cotton textile producing centre in India.
(ii) Cottage industries are significant for our economy.
(iii) Petrochemical industries are usually located close to the oil refineries.

Answer:
(i) Ahmedabad is located in the heart of cotton-growing Gujarat, has humid climate, cheap labor, and good transport connectivity.
(ii) Cottage industries provide rural employment, require low capital, and preserve traditional handicrafts.
(iii) Petrochemical industries depend directly on petroleum products and raw materials supplied by oil refineries.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention raw material access and transport for Ahmedabad.
b) Emphasize employment generation in cottage industries.
c) Link petrochemical plants directly to refinery proximity.

Question 10

(a) "Roadways are an important means of transport in India". Give two reasons to justify the statement. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Roads provide door-to-door service and can be constructed in remote, hilly, and difficult terrains where railways cannot reach.
2. They act as feeders to railways, ports, and airports, connecting rural areas to urban markets.

Teacher's Note:
a) Highlight door-to-door connectivity and flexibility.
b) Mention accessibility in hilly and remote areas.
c) Write two clear points.

(b) (i) Why are South Indian rivers not ideal for inland water transport?
(ii) Mention one advantage of coastal shipping. [2 Marks]

Answer:
(i) South Indian rivers are non-perennial, seasonal, and flow over uneven rocky terrain with waterfalls.
(ii) Coastal shipping is a cheap and eco-friendly mode of transport for bulky goods over long distances along the coast.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain seasonal flow and rocky terrain of peninsular rivers.
b) Mention economic and eco-friendly nature of shipping.
c) Keep answers precise.

(c) Give a reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Nearly seventy percent of Indians do not use air transport.
(ii) A well-developed transport network is important for industrial growth.
(iii) Water transport is not as popular as land transport in India.

Answer:
(i) Air transport is very expensive and unaffordable for the majority of the population.
(ii) Transport networks ensure smooth supply of raw materials to industries and delivery of finished goods to markets.
(iii) Water transport is much slower compared to land transport and depends heavily on navigable rivers and seasonal water levels.

Teacher's Note:
a) Relate air transport cost to low average incomes.
b) Connect transport to raw material supply and market access.
c) Mention speed and reliability limitations of inland water transport.

(d) (i) "The railway is an important means of transport as compared to airways." State two reasons to support the statement.
(ii) Mention one disadvantage of rail transport. [3 Marks]

Answer:
(i) 1. Railways are much cheaper than airways for carrying bulky and heavy goods over long distances.
2. Railways can carry large numbers of passengers and freight economically and efficiently.
(ii) Railways are inflexible as they operate only on fixed tracks and cannot provide door-to-door service.

Teacher's Note:
a) Contrast cost-effectiveness of rail versus air.
b) Highlight bulk carrying capacity of trains.
c) Mention lack of door-to-door connectivity as a drawback.

Question 11

(a) What impact does the waste accumulation have on the following? [2 Marks]
(i) Quality of air around us
(ii) Quality of water around us

Answer:
(i) Accumulated waste releases foul odors and toxic gases like methane, causing severe air pollution.
(ii) Runoff from garbage dumps and untreated industrial waste pollutes rivers and groundwater bodies, making water unfit for use.

Teacher's Note:
a) Explain toxic gas emissions affecting air quality.
b) Mention water contamination through leachate and runoff.
c) Keep answers structured by sub-parts.

(b) Mention two ways in which the decomposition of waste in open areas can affect human health. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Decomposition in open areas breeds flies, mosquitoes, and rodents that spread vector-borne diseases like malaria and cholera.
2. Release of noxious gases causes respiratory problems and chemical poisoning among nearby residents.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention disease vectors breeding on garbage.
b) Highlight respiratory hazards from foul gases.
c) Write two distinct health impacts.

(c) (i) What can an individual do to reduce waste at home?
(ii) Why must segregation of waste be done before disposal?
(iii) How has composting proven to be a great help in managing waste?

Answer:
(i) Practice the 3Rs (Reduce, Reuse, Recycle), compost organic kitchen waste, and avoid single-use plastics.
(ii) Segregation separates biodegradable waste from non-biodegradable waste, facilitating easy recycling and proper scientific disposal.
(iii) Composting converts organic kitchen and garden waste into nutrient-rich organic manure, reducing the volume of waste sent to landfills.

Teacher's Note:
a) Emphasize individual waste reduction habits.
b) Explain importance of separating wet and dry waste.
c) Highlight conversion of organic waste into manure.

(d) Give a reason for each of the following: [3 Marks]
(i) Trees must be planted in the industrial areas.
(ii) Chemical fertilizers must be replaced by organic manure.
(iii) Plastic and polythene products must be banned.

Answer:
(i) Trees act as green buffers that absorb harmful industrial gases, trap dust, and reduce noise pollution.
(ii) Unlike chemical fertilizers that degrade soil fertility and pollute groundwater over time, organic manure improves soil texture and microbial activity.
(iii) Plastics are non-biodegradable, persist in the environment for centuries, choke drains, and harm marine and terrestrial animals.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention pollution-absorbing role of trees in industrial zones.
b) Compare long-term soil health benefits of organic manure.
c) Highlight non-biodegradable and hazardous nature of plastics.