CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science MCQs Set 02

Download CBSE MCQs for Class 10 Social Science: Political Science

Review structured MCQ sets for Class 10 Social Science Political Science. Built according to official CBSE guidelines, these downloadable questions support daily revision and core concept reinforcement.

Chapter-wise Objective Questions: Political Science

Navigate directly to the 50 objective questions for Political Science using the digital viewer below. Each practice set includes verified answer keys, allowing students to instantly cross-check their work and identify areas requiring further revision.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: The Rajya Sabha was first constituted and held its first sitting on
(a) 3 April 1952
(b) 13 May 1952
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 15 August 1947
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 3 April 1952

Explanation:
1. The first sitting was on 3 April 1952.

Question 2: How many members of the Rajya Sabha retire from the house every 2 years ?
(a) 1/6 of the total members
(b) 1/3 of the total members
(c) 1/12 of the total members
(d) 5/6 of the total members
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 1/3 of the total members

Explanation:
1. One-third of the Rajya Sabha members retire every two years.

Question 3: The right to nominate members to the Rajya Sabha rests with
(a) The President
(b) The Vice President
(c) The Judiciary
(d) The Lok Sabha
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) The President

Explanation:
1. The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.

Question 4: If the name of a tribe has to be excluded from the list of Scheduled Tribe , who has the power for such exclusion?
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(d) Union Council of Ministers
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Parliament

Explanation:
1. Under Article 342 only Parliament can include or exclude a tribe from the Scheduled Tribes list.

Question 5: The Panchayati Raj system was given constitutional status by the
(a) 73rd Amendment
(b) 74th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 73rd Amendment

Explanation:
1. It was passed in 1992.

Question 6: The Constitution of India describes India as
(a) a union of states
(b) quasi-federal
(c) a federation of states and union territories
(d) a unitary state
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) a union of states

Explanation:
1. Article 1 says 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States'.

Question 7: Which of the following is a Union Territory formed by bifurcating the state of Jammu and Kashmir in 2019?
(a) Shimla
(b) Srinagar
(c) Ladakh
(d) Jammu
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Ladakh

Explanation:
1. The J&K Reorganisation Act, 2019 created the UTs of Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh.

Question 8: In which year did India take Goa from the Portuguese?
(a) November 1949
(b) December 1961
(c) August 1962
(d) July 1963
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) December 1961

Explanation:
1. India liberated Goa, Daman and Diu from Portuguese rule in December 1961 (Operation Vijay).

Question 9: By which name(s) is our country mentioned in the Constitution?
(a) India and Bharat
(b) India and Hindustan
(c) Bharat only
(d) India, Bharat and Hindustan
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) India and Bharat

Explanation:
1. Article 1: 'India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.'

Question 10: Which among the following is the 25th state of India?
(a) Goa
(b) Mizoram
(c) Nagaland
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Goa

Explanation:
1. On May 30th 1987, the Goa government accepted the 57th Constitutional Amendment and gave up its territorial claim.

Question 11: By what name or names is our country mentioned in the Constitution?
(a) India and Bharat
(b) India and Hindustan
(c) Bharat only
(d) India, Bharat and Hindustan
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) India and Bharat

Explanation:
1. Article 1 says "India, that is Bharat".

Question 12: Which Articles empower Parliament to form new states?
(a) Articles 2 and 3
(b) Articles 1 and 2
(c) Articles 4 and 5
(d) Articles 5 and 6
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Articles 2 and 3

Explanation:
1. Articles 2 and 3 deal with admission and formation of new states.

Question 13: The first linguistic state of India was
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation:
1. Andhra State was created in 1953.

Question 14: Who among the following is known as the guardian of the ‘Public Purse’ in India?
(a) The President
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) The Finance Minister
(d) The Parliament
(e) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) The Comptroller and Auditor General

Explanation:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General is called the guardian of the public purse because it audits all government spending.

Question 15: What is the term of office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
(a) 6 years
(b) Up to 65 years of age
(c) Up to 64 years of age
(d) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier

Explanation:
1. The CAG holds office for 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.

Question 16: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed under which Article?
(a) Article 148
(b) Article 76
(c) Article 124
(d) Article 280
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Article 148

Explanation:
1. Article 148 provides for the CAG.

Question 17: The first Comptroller and Auditor General of India was
(a) V. Narahari Rao
(b) M.C. Setalvad
(c) B.R. Ambedkar
(d) Sukumar Sen
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) V. Narahari Rao

Explanation:
1. V. Narahari Rao was the first CAG.

Question 18: The first Attorney General of India was
(a) M.C. Setalvad
(b) V. Narahari Rao
(c) K. Parasaran
(d) Soli Sorabjee
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) M.C. Setalvad

Explanation:
1. M.C. Setalvad held the office from 1950 to 1963.

Question 19: Article 76 provides for
(a) the Attorney General of India
(b) the CAG
(c) the Advocate General
(d) the Solicitor General
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) the Attorney General of India

Explanation:
1. The Attorney General is the government's chief legal advisor.

Question 20: The CAG is appointed by the President under Article
(a) 148
(b) 76
(c) 124
(d) 165
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 148

Explanation:
1. He can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge.

Question 21: In which respect have the Centre-State relations been specifically termed as municipal relations?
(a) Centre's control of the State in the legislative sphere
(b) Centre's control of the State in Financial matter
(c) Centre's control of the State in the administrative sector
(d) Centre's control of the State in the planning process
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Centre's control of the State in the planning process

Explanation:
1. Because the Centre controls State plans and grants through the planning process, Centre-State relations were called 'municipal relations'.

Question 22: Which of the following commissions was appointed by the Central Government on Union-State relations in 1983?
(a) Sarkaria commission
(b) Dutt commission
(c) Setalvad commission
(d) Rajamannar commission
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Sarkaria commission

Explanation:
1. Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by the central government to examine the central-state relationship.

Question 23: What are the ‘residuary powers’?
(a) Powers which are enumerated in the State List
(b) Powers which are included in the Union List
(c) Powers which are enumerated in the Concurrent List
(d) Powers which are not mentioned in any of the lists
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Powers which are not mentioned in any of the lists

Explanation:
1. Residuary powers are powers not mentioned in any of the three lists.

Question 24: Which amongst the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Law Commission
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Parliament

Explanation:
1. Article 11 empowers Parliament to make any law regulating the right of citizenship.

Question 25: In which Part of the Constitution are the provisions on citizenship given?
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Part II

Explanation:
1. Part II (Articles 5–11) deals with citizenship.

Question 26: How many modes are there for the acquisition of Indian citizenship prescribed under the Citizenship act of 1955?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 7
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 5

Explanation:
1. Citizenship of India can be acquired by 5 ways under the Citizenship Amendment Act of 1955.

Question 27: In which Part of the Constitution are the details of citizenship given?
(a) Part I
(b) Part II
(c) Part III
(d) Part IV
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Part II

Explanation:
1. Part II (Articles 5-11) deals with citizenship.

Question 28: The Supreme Court at Calcutta was established by the
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitt's India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1793
(d) Charter Act of 1813
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Regulating Act of 1773

Explanation:
1. The Regulating Act of 1773 set up the Supreme Court at Fort William, Calcutta (1774), with Sir Elijah Impey as Chief Justice.

Question 29: Under which Act was the Indian (central) legislature made bicameral?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(c) Government of India Act, 1915
(d) Government of India Act, 1919
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Government of India Act, 1919

Explanation:
1. The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu–Chelmsford reforms) created the Council of State and the Legislative Assembly.

Question 30: The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because
(a) This day was being celebrated as Independence (Purna Swaraj) Day since 1930
(b) This was desired by the farmers of India
(c) The British did not want to leave India earlier than this date
(d) It was an auspicious day
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) This day was being celebrated as Independence (Purna Swaraj) Day since 1930

Explanation:
1. 26 January was chosen because Purna Swaraj Day had been celebrated on that date since 1930 (following the 1929 Lahore resolution).

Question 31: When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
(a) 26 November 1949
(b) 26 January 1949
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 26 November 1950
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 26 November 1949

Explanation:
1. The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950.

Question 32: Which act abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced provincial autonomy in its place?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Government of India Act, 1935

Explanation:
1. The Government of India Act, 1935 abolished dyarchy and introduced responsible government in the provinces, that is, the Governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature.

Question 33: When our Constitution was adopted?
(a) 26 November 1949
(b) 26 January 1949
(c) 26 January 1950
(d) 26 November 1950
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 26 November 1949

Explanation:
1. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949; it came into force on 26 January 1950.

Question 34: Who is the chairman of the constitution drafting committee—
(a) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
(b) N. Gopalaswami
(c) B. R. Ambedkar
(d) K. M Munshi
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation:
1. The correct answer is B. R. Ambedkar.

Question 35: What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Coterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(b) Coterminous with the tenure of the President
(c) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
(d) 5 years
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha

Explanation:
1. The PM's term is not fixed; he stays in office as long as he has the confidence of the Lok Sabha majority.

Question 36: Which Article deals with the appointment of the Prime Minister and other ministers?
(a) Article 76
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 75
(d) Article 72
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Article 75

Explanation:
1. Article 75: the President appoints the PM, and other ministers on the PM's advice.

Question 37: Who among the following was the first Law Minister of Independent India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Abul Kalam Azad
(c) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
(d) Asaf Ali
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar

Explanation:
1. BR Ambedkar was the first Law Minister of Independent India. He had great skill in the field of law and a foresighted vision of social justice.

Question 38: Article 74 of the Constitution provides for
(a) a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as head to aid and advise the President
(b) the Attorney General
(c) the Election Commission
(d) the Governor
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister as head to aid and advise the President

Explanation:
1. Article 74(1) provides for the Council of Ministers.

Question 39: If the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion, then
(a) the entire Council of Ministers has to resign
(b) only the Prime Minister resigns
(c) only the concerned minister resigns
(d) the President dissolves the Rajya Sabha
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) the entire Council of Ministers has to resign

Explanation:
1. The Council is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

Question 40: Under Article 75(1), the Prime Minister is appointed by the
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Vice-President
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) President

Explanation:
1. The President appoints the PM and, on his advice, other ministers.

Question 41: The Finance Commission is established under which Article?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 148
(d) Article 324
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Article 280

Explanation:
1. Article 280 provides for the Finance Commission.

Question 42: The Finance Commission is established under Article
(a) 280
(b) 270
(c) 148
(d) 324
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 280

Explanation:
1. It is a quasi-judicial body.

Question 43: The Finance Commission consists of a chairman and how many other members?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Four

Explanation:
1. It is appointed every five years.

Question 44: What does the word 'electronic' imply in the term e-Governance?
(a) Excellence driven governance
(b) Safeguarded governance
(c) Technology driven governance
(d) None of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Technology driven governance

Explanation:
1. e-Governance means using information and communication technology to deliver government services.

Question 45: The presidential form of government consists of which of the following?
(a) Popular election of the President
(b) No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
(c) Fixed term of office
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:
1. A presidential system has a popularly elected President with a fixed term and a separate executive and legislature.

Question 46: A presidential form of government consists of the following:
(a) Popular election of the President
(b) No overlap in membership between the executive and the legislature
(c) Fixed term of office
(d) All of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:
1. A presidential system has a popularly elected President, separation of executive and legislature, and a fixed term.

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