CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science MCQs Set 01

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for Class 10 Social Science: Political Science

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Practice Political Science MCQs for Class 10 Social Science

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: The original Constitution had how many Articles, Parts and Schedules?
(a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts, 8 Schedules
(b) 395 Articles, 24 Parts, 12 Schedules
(c) 448 Articles, 22 Parts, 8 Schedules
(d) 370 Articles, 20 Parts, 6 Schedules
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 395 Articles, 22 Parts, 8 Schedules

Explanation:
1. The original Constitution had 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 8 Schedules.

Question 2: Part V of the Constitution deals with
(a) The Union
(b) The States
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Directive Principles
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) The Union

Explanation:
1. Parliament is provided for under Article 79.

Question 3: Article 79 provides that Parliament of the Union consists of
(a) The President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha only
(c) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha only
(d) President and PM
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) The President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

Explanation:
1. It is a bicameral legislature.

Question 4: The 44th Amendment provides that Fundamental Rights under Articles 20 and 21 cannot be
(a) Suspended during a national emergency
(b) Amended by Parliament
(c) Enforced against the State
(d) Waived
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Suspended during a national emergency

Explanation:
1. It was passed in 1978.

Question 5: The 102nd Amendment gave constitutional status to the
(a) National Commission for Backward Classes
(b) NHRC
(c) Election Commission
(d) NITI Aayog
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) National Commission for Backward Classes

Explanation:
1. It was enacted in 2018.

Question 6: The 103rd Amendment Act, 2019 provides 10% reservation for
(a) Economically Weaker Sections
(b) Women
(c) Scheduled Castes
(d) OBCs
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Economically Weaker Sections

Explanation:
1. It is for the economically weaker sections of the general category.

Question 7: Which Article is related to 'Equal Justice and Free Legal Aid'?
(a) Article 39
(b) Article 39A
(c) Article 43
(d) Article 43A
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Article 39A

Explanation:
1. Article 39A, added by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to provide free legal aid.

Question 8: Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India contains the provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years?
(a) Article 45
(b) Article 35
(c) Article 44
(d) Article 53
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Article 45

Explanation:
1. Article 45 contains the provision to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.

Question 9: Which of the following articles of the Constitution is directed to establish Uniform Civil Code?
(a) Article 45
(b) Article 39
(c) Article 44
(d) Article 40
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Article 44

Explanation:
1. Article 44 under DPSP states that State shall endeavour to provide for its citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.

Question 10: The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in
(a) Part IV
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV-A
(d) Part V
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Part IV

Explanation:
1. Articles 36-51 in Part IV contain the DPSP.

Question 11: In case of conflict between Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights, which prevails?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles
(c) The Parliament decides
(d) The President decides
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Fundamental Rights

Explanation:
1. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable.

Question 12: Elections to the Lok Sabha are held on the basis of adult suffrage under Article
(a) 326
(b) 324
(c) 325
(d) 327
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 326

Explanation:
1. The voting age is 18 years.

Question 13: President's Rule in a state is imposed under
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 352
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 370
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Article 356

Explanation:
1. Article 356 deals with failure of constitutional machinery in a state.

Question 14: The declaration of Constitutional Emergency in an Indian State has to be approved by the Parliament within a period of
(a) 2 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 2 months

Explanation:
1. A proclamation of emergency must be approved by Parliament within two months.

Question 15: National Emergency can be proclaimed on a written request of the
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) Prime Minister alone
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Union Cabinet

Explanation:
1. It must be approved by Parliament within one month.

Question 16: President's Rule in a State is imposed under Article
(a) 356
(b) 352
(c) 360
(d) 365
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 356

Explanation:
1. It is imposed on failure of the constitutional machinery.

Question 17: The Parliament of Germany is called the
(a) Bundestag
(b) Diet
(c) Duma
(d) Cortes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Bundestag

Explanation:
1. The lower house is the Bundestag.

Question 18: The Parliament of Iran is called the
(a) Majlis
(b) Knesset
(c) Duma
(d) Diet
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Majlis

Explanation:
1. It is a unicameral body.

Question 19: The idea of judicial review was borrowed from
(a) USA
(b) UK
(c) Australia
(d) Canada
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) USA

Explanation:
1. The independence of the judiciary also came from the USA.

Question 20: Which of the following is NOT a Fundamental Duty of citizens?
(a) Duty to safeguard public property
(b) Duty to abide by the constitution
(c) Duty to pay taxes on time
(d) Duty to protect the natural environment
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Duty to pay taxes on time

Explanation:
1. Duty to pay taxes on time is not a Fundamental Duty under Article 51 A of Part IV–A of the constitution.

Question 21: Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 86th Amendment
(d) 73rd Amendment
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment

Explanation:
1. Article 51-A was inserted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.

Question 22: The number of Fundamental Duties after the 86th Amendment is
(a) Eleven
(b) Ten
(c) Twelve
(d) Nine
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Eleven

Explanation:
1. The 11th duty was added in 2002.

Question 23: The SR Bommai case (1994) is related to
(a) Imposition of President's Rule
(b) Right to privacy
(c) Mandal Commission
(d) Basic structure
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Imposition of President's Rule

Explanation:
1. It affected Centre-State relations.

Question 24: The Minerva Mills case (1980) fortified the doctrine of
(a) Basic structure
(b) Creamy layer
(c) Judicial activism only
(d) Federalism
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Basic structure

Explanation:
1. It followed the Keshavananda Bharati case.

Question 25: The Zero Hour follows the
(a) Question Hour
(b) Adjournment Motion
(c) Calling Attention
(d) No Confidence Motion
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Question Hour

Explanation:
1. Members raise urgent matters without notice.

Question 26: An Ordinance is promulgated by the head of State when the legislature is
(a) Not in session
(b) In session
(c) Dissolved only
(d) Divided
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Not in session

Explanation:
1. It is under Article 123 for the President.

Question 27: An Adjournment Motion needs the support of how many members for admission?
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 10
(d) 25
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 50

Explanation:
1. It cannot be moved in the Rajya Sabha.

Question 28: The No-Confidence Motion needs the support of how many members for admission?
(a) 50
(b) 25
(c) 100
(d) 10
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 50

Explanation:
1. If passed, the Council of Ministers must resign.

Question 29: Who was the first Lokpal of India?
(a) A R Lakshmanan
(b) G S Singhvi
(c) Pinaki Chandra Ghose
(d) Madan Lokur
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Pinaki Chandra Ghose

Explanation:
1. Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose was appointed the first Lokpal in March 2019.

Question 30: Mandal Commission was established by which of the following Prime Ministers of India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) VP Singh
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Morarji Desai

Explanation:
1. The Mandal Commission on backward classes was set up in 1979 by the Morarji Desai government.

Question 31: A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for
(a) 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier
(b) 5 years or age 60
(c) 4 years
(d) until age 70
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 6 years or until age 65, whichever is earlier

Explanation:
1. UPSC members serve six years or until age 65.

Question 32: The word Ombudsman, used for anti-corruption institutions like Lokpal, comes from which language?
(a) Swedish
(b) German
(c) French
(d) Latin
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Swedish

Explanation:
1. Ombudsman is a Swedish word meaning commissioner.

Question 33: The Lokayukta of a state is appointed by the
(a) Governor
(b) President
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Chief Justice
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Governor

Explanation:
1. The Governor appoints the Lokayukta.

Question 34: UPSC members hold office for
(a) 6 years or until age 65
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years or 62
(d) 6 years or 62
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 6 years or until age 65

Explanation:
1. They are appointed by the President.

Question 35: The retirement age of a UPSC member is
(a) 65 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 70 years
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 65 years

Explanation:
1. The retirement age for a State PSC member is 62.

Question 36: The "Yellow Book" is the official publication of
(a) France
(b) Britain
(c) Italy
(d) Germany
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) France

Explanation:
1. Yellow Book is the French official publication.

Question 37: The "White Paper" is an official document of the Government of
(a) Britain and India
(b) China only
(c) Japan only
(d) France only
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Britain and India

Explanation:
1. It sets out government policy on a particular issue.

Question 38: The Advocate General of a State has the right to speak in the Legislature but
(a) Not to vote
(b) To vote
(c) To propose bills
(d) To dissolve it
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Not to vote

Explanation:
1. His functions are like those of the Attorney General.

Question 39: Article 343 is related to which?
(a) Official languages
(b) Election Commission
(c) National Emergency
(d) Supreme Court
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Official languages

Explanation:
1. Article 343 declares Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union.

Question 40: The 74th Amendment Act, 1992 relates to
(a) urban local bodies (municipalities)
(b) Panchayati Raj
(c) the Election Commission
(d) Finance Commission
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) urban local bodies (municipalities)

Explanation:
1. It added Part IX-A.

Question 41: The anti-defection law was passed in
(a) 1985
(b) 1975
(c) 1989
(d) 1992
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 1985

Explanation:
1. The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 added the Tenth Schedule.

Question 42: Political parties are registered with the Election Commission under the
(a) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(b) Constitution only
(c) Anti-defection law
(d) Companies Act
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Representation of the People Act, 1951

Explanation:
1. Recognition is given on election performance.

Question 43: How many members can the President nominate to the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 14
(b) 16
(c) 10
(d) 12
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) 12

Explanation:
1. The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha; nomination of 2 Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha ended with the 104th Amendment (2020).

Question 44: Which of the following is not a category under which the President nominates a Member to the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Literature
(b) Art
(c) Science
(d) State Service
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) State Service

Explanation:
1. Twelve members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President of India for their contributions towards arts, literature, sciences, and social services.

Question 45: The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of
(a) 6 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 3 years
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 6 years

Explanation:
1. One-third of the members retire every two years.

Question 46: Article 80 lays down the maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as
(a) 250
(b) 245
(c) 275
(d) 552
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 250

Explanation:
1. Of these 238 represent states and UTs and 12 are nominated.

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