CBSE Class 10 NCC Sample Paper 2026 27 with Solutions PDF Download

PART I: COMMON SUBJECTS (Total Marks: 49)

SECTION A

1. Choose the correct answer

I. When was Girls’ Division raised in NCC? [1 Mark]
A. 1946
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1949

Answer: D. 1949

Teacher's Note:
a) NCC itself was raised in 1948, and the Girls’ Division followed a year later in 1949.
b) Do not confuse the year NCC was formed (1948) with the year the Girls’ Division was raised.

II. The angle formed between toe-to-toe in attention position is- [1 Mark]
A. 45 degree
B. 20 degree
C. 30 degree
D. 10 degree

Answer: C. 30 degree

Teacher's Note:
a) In the attention position the heels are together and the toes are turned out at 30 degrees.
b) This is a basic drill fact from the Drill unit, so learn it exactly.

III. How many seats per course through Naval SSB are reserved for ‘C Certificate holders? [1 Mark]
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

Answer: C. 6

Teacher's Note:
a) Six seats per course through the Naval SSB are reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders.
b) Remember this as one of the career incentives of holding the NCC ‘C’ Certificate.

IV. Which of the following are Dos instructions to be followed by NCC Cadets performing disaster related tasks?
i. Assist in traffic management under supervision
ii. Cadets should operate away from the group
iii. collect data of the injured and casualties
iv. Cadets should be involved in removal of toxic material [1 Mark]
A. i, ii and iii
B. ii, iii and iv
C. Only i and iii
D. Only iii and iv

Answer: C. Only i and iii

Teacher's Note:
a) Cadets work under supervision and in groups, so helping with traffic and collecting data of the injured are Dos.
b) Working away from the group and handling toxic material are unsafe, so they are Don’ts.

V. There are two statements are marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Assertion (A): Communication is the exchange of information between people by means of speaking, writing or by using a common system of signs or behaviour.
Reason (R): An effective communication means having the skill to recognise if and when there are barriers to communication are resolved. [1 Mark]
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) First decide whether each statement is true on its own, then check if R explains A.
b) Communication and removing its barriers are part of the Personality Development and Leadership unit.

VI. Match Column A with Column B with regard to .22 Deluxe BA Rifle.
Column A | Column B
a. Muzzle Velocity | i. 10-15 rds/pm
b. Maximum Range | ii. 10 rounds
c. Magzine Capacity | iii. 1700 yards
d. Rapid Rate of Fire | iv. 2700/sec [1 Mark]
A. a-i; b-ii; c-iii; d-iv
B. a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i
C. a-iii; b-iv; c-ii; d-i
D. a-ii; b-I; c-iii; d-iv

Answer: B. a-iv; b-iii; c-ii; d-i

Teacher's Note:
a) Velocity is a speed (2700/sec), range is a distance (1700 yards), and capacity is a count of rounds (10 rounds).
b) Matching each item by its unit is a quick way to get the correct pairs.

VII. Which of the following are punishments for offences covered under POCSO Act?
a. Sexual Assault Section 7
b. Aggravated Sexual Assault Section 10
c. Sexual Harassment of the child Section 11
d. Use of child for pornographic purposes Section 12 [1 Mark]
A. a, b and c
B. b, c and d
C. Only a and b
D. Only a and c

Answer: D. Only a and c

Teacher's Note:
a) Check each pairing of offence and section number carefully, as the options differ only in the section numbers.
b) This topic belongs to the Social Awareness and Community Development unit.

VIII. Which of the following is NOT a bad habit in drill? [1 Mark]
A. Rolling of eyes
B. Dragging foot
C. Co-ordination
D. Clicking of heals

Answer: C. Co-ordination

Teacher's Note:
a) Co-ordination is a quality that good drill needs, not a fault.
b) Read the word NOT carefully; the other three options are all bad habits in drill.

IX. Which of the following is NOT a insect borne disease? [1 Mark]
A. Typhus
B. Diphtheria
C. Kala Azar
D. Filaria

Answer: B. Diphtheria

Teacher's Note:
a) Diphtheria is a bacterial infection spread by droplets, not by insects.
b) Typhus, Kala Azar and Filaria are spread by insects such as lice, sandflies and mosquitoes.

X. Which of the following is a safety guideline related to trekking? [1 Mark]
A. Do study the weather forecast of the area of trekking
B. Ensure good consumption of water
C. Carry essential medicines for minor injuries
D. Carry adequate woollens

Answer: A. Do study the weather forecast of the area of trekking

Teacher's Note:
a) Studying the weather forecast is the safety step taken before the trek starts.
b) This question is from the Adventure Training unit; mark the option given in the scheme.

XI. Which of the following is a renewable source? [1 Mark]
A. Coal
B. Geo-thermal
C. Oil
D. Natural Gas

Answer: B. Geo-thermal

Teacher's Note:
a) Geo-thermal energy comes from the heat inside the earth and does not run out.
b) Coal, oil and natural gas are fossil fuels, which are non-renewable.

SECTION B

2A. What is excretory system? Name any two excretory organs. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Excretion is the process by which waste products are removed out of the body. The organs doing this form the excretory system.
2. Two excretory organs: skin and kidney.

Teacher's Note:
a) The definition carries 1 mark and each organ carries half a mark.
b) Lungs and the gastrointestinal tract are also accepted as excretory organs.

OR

2B. What is respiratory system? Name two respiratory organs. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Respiration is the process by which oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is taken out of the body. The organs doing this form the respiratory system.
2. Two respiratory organs: nose and lungs.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention both oxygen in and carbon dioxide out in the definition.
b) Pharynx, larynx, trachea and bronchi are also accepted as respiratory organs.

3A. In which year Gandhiji returned to India? In which year he gave the call for Non-cooperation movement and why? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Gandhiji returned to India in 1915.
2. He gave the call for the Non-cooperation movement in 1920, against the ills of the British rule.

Teacher's Note:
a) Write both years clearly and give the reason (the ills of British rule) for full marks.
b) The marking scheme gives the year of the call as 1921; the movement was actually launched in 1920.

OR

3B. Who was universally recognised as the ‘Father of the Indian movement’? Which organisation was founded by him in 1916? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was universally recognised as the ‘Father of the Indian Movement’.
2. In 1916 he founded the Indian Home Rule League.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each part carries 1 mark, so write the full name and the full name of the organisation.
b) Do not confuse the Home Rule League with the Indian National Congress.

4. Enlist any four documents needed for conducting firing. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Firing Point Register
2. Butt Register
3. No Damage Certificate
4. Lead Deposit Certificate

Teacher's Note:
a) Each correct document carries half a mark.
b) Details of ammunition and fired cases is also an accepted answer.

5. Mention two purposes for which target group is put behind the firing point. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. To check and correct the firer’s aiming, holding and trigger operation.
2. To remove any obstruction or blockage, and to give improvement exercises and coaching for the mistakes of the firers.

Teacher's Note:
a) The marking scheme lists aiming, trigger operation, holding, removing obstruction and coaching as the value points.
b) Use the exact terms "aiming", "holding" and "trigger operation" in your answer.

6. Enlist any four core life skills. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Self-awareness
2. Empathy
3. Critical thinking
4. Decision-making

Teacher's Note:
a) Each life skill carries half a mark.
b) Creative thinking and problem solving are also accepted core life skills.

7A. Mention two ill-effects of female foeticide. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It leads to a skewed sex ratio, with fewer girls than boys in society.
2. It increases the trafficking of girls and women.

Teacher's Note:
a) Increase in rape and assault, and population decline, are also accepted points.
b) Write exactly two ill-effects as the question asks.

OR

7B. How can we prevent dowry? Mention any two ways of preventing dowry system. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Start the practice of dowry prohibition in your own family by not accepting dowry.
2. Educate family members about the law, which says that demanding, accepting or giving dowry is an offence.

Teacher's Note:
a) Encouraging women to fight for their rights and law enforcement are also accepted ways.
b) Keep each point short and practical.

8A. What is auxiliary fire services? Write two points. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It consists of eight persons with a trailer pump, which can throw water at the fire from a distance.
2. The members of this service are drawn from the Home Guards.

Teacher's Note:
a) The key facts are "eight persons", "trailer pump" and "Home Guards".
b) This topic is from the Civil Affairs unit.

OR

8B. What measures must be taken to prevent kitchen fires? Write about any two. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Do not keep inflammable material like petrol, kerosene or clothing near the fire or the gas.
2. Before lighting the gas, make sure there is no gas leakage.

Teacher's Note:
a) Keeping children away from gas, fire or stoves is also an accepted point.
b) Write exactly two measures as the question asks.

9. “Food is a potential source of infection and is liable to contamination by micro-organisms at any point during its journey from producer to consumer.” In the light of the given statement write four points related to hygiene of food handlers. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. A complete medical examination of food handlers must be done at the time of employment.
2. Regular health check-ups of food handlers should be done.
3. They should be regularly educated on health and hygiene.
4. They should be constantly reminded about hand washing, trimming nails, covering hair, wearing overalls and covering the mouth while coughing and sneezing during cooking.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each point carries 1 mark, so write four separate points.
b) Keep the answer within 80 words as the instructions require.

10A. Write any four points that are taken into consideration before the employment of NCC Cadets for assisting during natural disasters. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. SW cadets may be used for softer jobs, like giving medical help or manning exchanges during strikes of nurses or telephone operators.
2. Only SD cadets may be found suitable for helping in natural disasters like earthquakes, landslides and floods.
3. Suitable bonds have to be obtained from the parents of the cadets.
4. Adequate allowance has to be allocated for the cadets taking part in these activities.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the difference in roles of SW and SD cadets clearly.
b) Parents’ bonds and allowance for cadets are the two administrative points examiners look for.

OR

10B. What precautions should be taken when the storm hits? Mention any four. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Stay indoors and take shelter in the strongest part of your house.
2. Listen to the radio and follow the instructions given.
3. Open the windows on the sheltered side of your house if the roof begins to lift.
4. Do not go outside or to a beach during a break in the storm.

Teacher's Note:
a) A break in the storm can be the calm eye, so staying inside is the key safety point.
b) Write exactly four precautions, one mark each.

11A. What are the characteristics of Yoga? Enlist any four. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The yogic system of health exercises the skeletal muscles as well as the deep-seated smooth muscles of the body.
2. Very little energy and money is spent in yoga practices.
3. The nature of yogic practices is psycho-neuro-physical.
4. Intra-thoracic and intra-abdominal pressure are special characteristics of the yoga system of health.

Teacher's Note:
a) Use the keywords "smooth muscles", "little expenditure" and "psycho-neuro-physical".
b) Each characteristic carries 1 mark.

OR

11B. What is a wound? What is the aim of dressing a wound? Write about any three. [4 Marks]

Answer:
A wound is a break in the continuity of the skin or muscle membrane.
Aims of dressing a wound:
1. To protect the wound from infection.
2. To reduce swelling and help early healing.
3. To support the affected part.

Teacher's Note:
a) The definition carries 1 mark and the three aims carry 3 marks.
b) Enabling the person to carry out day-to-day routine is also an accepted aim.

12. What qualities are inculcated among NCC Cadets due to NCC training? What is institutional training. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Qualities inculcated by NCC training: discipline, character, comradeship, secular outlook, spirit of adventure and ideals of selfless service.
2. Institutional training is the training organised in schools and colleges in the form of parades.

Teacher's Note:
a) The qualities carry 3 marks and the meaning of institutional training carries 1 mark.
b) These qualities come from the aims of NCC, so link them to the NCC motto "Unity and Discipline".

SECTION C

13. Read the given extract carefully and answer the questions given below. [2 Marks]

The TSC is 12-day camp conducted in Delhi every year in the late autumn, in which the cadets are selected from all 17 directorates (30+3 SD/JD and SW/JW cadets from each directorate), by the selection procedure conducting 3 Pre-TSC camps each of 10/12 days in a week’s interval. The selected cadets then are sent to the TSC to represent their respective directorates in the following competitions:
i. Obstacle course-in which the obstacles include 6 feet wall, zig-zag, double ditch, balancing, 3 feet bar, left bar, right bar, incline, etc. It is done after wearing full tactical gear with rifles.
ii. Firing-it consists of two types-Shooting (Grouping, Snap shooting and application). It is done with a standard .22 rifle at the range of 25 meters and 50 meters.
iii. Map Reading- Which includes working with a compass, service protector and a map.
iv. Field Craft and battle Craft.
v. Tent Pitching.
vi. Health and Hygiene.

a. What is a TSC? [1 Mark]

Answer: TSC (Thal Sainik Camp) is a 12-day camp held in Delhi every year in late autumn. Cadets are selected from all 17 directorates (30+3 SD/JD and SW/JW cadets from each) through 3 Pre-TSC camps of 10/12 days each, held at a week’s interval.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention "12-day camp", "Delhi" and "all 17 directorates" for full marks.
b) The answer is taken directly from the first lines of the extract.

b. Which type of firing is done during TSC? [1 Mark]

Answer: Shooting of two types - Grouping, and Snap shooting and application. It is done with a standard .22 rifle at ranges of 25 meters and 50 meters.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention the weapon (.22 rifle) and both ranges (25 m and 50 m).
b) Read point ii of the extract carefully to find this answer.

14. Read the given source and answer the questions given below. [6 Marks]

Azad as a revolutionary
After the withdrawal of non-cooperation movement, the revolutionary movement reasserted itself. Azad was introduced to the revolutionaries by Manmath Nath Gupta and he joined the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army in 1922.
He was appointed the leader of the army in Uttar Pradesh and the Commander-in-Chief of the army in 1924. He thus became ‘instant trouble’ to the police in Punjab and Delhi. The first armed insurrection took place on 9th August, 1925, conceived by Ram Prasad Bismil and ably assisted by Chandra Shekhar. He was involved in the ‘Kakori Train Case’ in which the government treasury was seized while the train was in Lucknow, police unearthed Azad’s involvement in it. Ram Prasad and Ashfaq Ullah were hanged. Then came the murder of British officer Saunders at Lahore on December, 1928. Azad master-minded the throwing of a Red Pamphlet on the floor of the legislature on 8th April, 1929. The investigators discovered a huge bomb factory of the revolutionaries in Lahore. Many members of the army were arrested because of betrayals. Chandra Shekhar was left alone. On 6th July, 1930, Azad initiated an armed robbery in Delhi and collected Rs. 14000. Police was now on the trail of Azad and a reward of Rs. 10000 was on offer to capture him dead or alive. On 27th, February 1931 at 9.30 A.M. Azad went to Alfred Park to meet his comrades-in-arms. Someone had tipped the police and Azad was encircled by them. Knowing he was cornered, he took the small pistol in his possession and a few cartridges. He fought single handed with the police.

i. Who introduced Azad to revolutionaries? [1 Mark]
A. Ram Prasad Bismil
B. Bhagat Singh
C. Manmath Nath Gupta
D. Chandra Shekhar

Answer: C. Manmath Nath Gupta

Teacher's Note:
a) The second sentence of the source names Manmath Nath Gupta.
b) Ram Prasad Bismil planned the first armed insurrection; he did not introduce Azad.

ii. In which year did Azad joined the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army? [1 Mark]
A. 1920
B. 1922
C. 1924
D. 1925

Answer: B. 1922

Teacher's Note:
a) He joined in 1922 and became Commander-in-Chief in 1924.
b) Do not mix up the year of joining with the year of his appointment.

iii. What was the ‘Kakori Train Case’ associated with? [1 Mark]
A. Murder of a British officer
B. Red Pamphlet distribution
C. Armed robbery in Delhi train
D. Robbery of a government treasury from a train

Answer: D. Robbery of a government treasury from a train

Teacher's Note:
a) The source says the government treasury was seized while the train was in Lucknow.
b) The armed robbery in Delhi (1930) is a different event.

iv. When did the first armed insurrection take place under Azad’s leadership? [1 Mark]
A. 9th August, 1925
B. 17th December, 1928
C. 6th July, 1930
D. 27th February, 1931

Answer: C. 6th July, 1930

Teacher's Note:
a) The marking scheme gives option C, the date when Azad himself initiated an armed robbery in Delhi.
b) The source dates "the first armed insurrection" to 9th August, 1925, so read the question and the source carefully.

v. What award was announced for Azad’s capture by the police? [1 Mark]
A. Rs. 5000
B. Rs. 10000
C. Rs. 14000
D. Rs. 20000

Answer: B. Rs. 10000

Teacher's Note:
a) Rs. 10000 was the reward to capture him dead or alive.
b) Rs. 14000 was the amount collected in the Delhi robbery, a common trap option.

vi. Where did Azad end his life after being surrounded by police? [1 Mark]
A. Kakori
B. Lahore
C. Delhi
D. Alfred Park

Answer: D. Alfred Park

Teacher's Note:
a) Azad went to Alfred Park on 27th February 1931, where the police encircled him.
b) He fought the police single handed there.

PART II SPECIAL SUBJECTS (ARMY WING)

15. Choose the correct answer.

I. Which of the following is NOT a gallantry award? [1 Mark]
A. Sena Medal
B. Kirti Chakra
C. Sarvottam Yudh Sewa Medal
D. Veer Chakra

Answer: C. Sarvottam Yudh Sewa Medal

Teacher's Note:
a) The Sarvottam Yudh Sewa Medal is a distinguished service award, not a gallantry award.
b) Sena Medal, Kirti Chakra and Veer Chakra are all gallantry awards.

II. Which of the following is the conventional sign for mosque? [1 Mark]
A.
B.
C.
D.

[Figure: Four conventional signs. A - a small red sign with a pointed top on a stem, a dome-like arch and a base bar. B - a grey outline of a building with a pointed roof, small raised points at both ends of the roof and an arched doorway. C - a large red arch shape with a horizontal bar across it and a base bar. D - a square with a small cross on its top.]

Answer: B. The building outline with a pointed roof and an arched doorway

Teacher's Note:
a) Conventional signs are standard symbols used on maps to show features like places of worship.
b) The square with a cross on top (D) is not the mosque sign; learn the standard signs from the Map Reading chart.

III. The distance can be judged by noting the detailed appearance of man at various ranges. Which of the following best sums up the above statement. [1 Mark]
A. Halving Method
B. Appearance Method
C. Unit of Measure
D. Section Average

Answer: B. Appearance Method

Teacher's Note:
a) The key word "appearance" in the statement points to the Appearance Method.
b) Halving and Unit of Measure are other methods of judging distance.

IV. There are two statements are marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Assertion (A): To observe is to penetrate the concealment of the enemy’s observation.
Reason (R): Visual training, is training in observation and concealment, which are two aspects of the same subject. [1 Mark]
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) R defines visual training in general; it does not explain what observing means.
b) This topic is from the Field Craft and Battle Craft unit.

V. What is the age limit for NCC (Spl.) entry for men? [1 Mark]
A. 19-22
B. 19-23
C. 19-24
D. 19-25

Answer: D. 19-25

Teacher's Note:
a) The NCC Special Entry for men is open from 19 to 25 years of age.
b) This is a career incentive for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders.

SECTION E

16A. What is a map? Name the organisation which prepares and publishes maps of the country. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. A map represents the manmade features of the whole or a part of the earth’s surface on a sheet of paper.
2. Maps are prepared and published by the National Mapping Organisation of each country.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each part carries 1 mark.
b) Mention "on a sheet of paper" in the definition.

OR

16B. What is Grid and Gridlines? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The Grid is a systematic pattern made by laying vertical and horizontal lines over the earth’s layout.
2. The vertical lines are called longitudes and the horizontal lines are called latitudes. Together these lines are known as Grid lines.

Teacher's Note:
a) Define both terms separately, one mark each.
b) Remember: vertical lines are longitudes and horizontal lines are latitudes.

17. Mention two advantages of Net Radio. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. It is vulnerable only at the terminal, so it is reasonably protected from enemy action except by a direct hit.
2. It is flexible, so it can be rapidly re-arranged in the event of regrouping.

Teacher's Note:
a) "Rapid in establishing communication" is also an accepted advantage.
b) Write exactly two advantages.

18, What are Geographical and Meteorological Maps? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Geographical maps show the structure of the rock formation below the top soil.
2. Meteorological maps show information about winds, atmospheric pressure and so on.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each type of map carries 1 mark.
b) Link "meteorological" with weather to remember what these maps show.

19. Provide the following information about Capt. Vikram Batra.
A. Name his company which was ordered to recapture peak 5140 on June 9th, 1999.
B. Which wing of NCC was he a part of? [2 Marks]

Answer:
A. His Delta Company was ordered to recapture Peak 5140 on 9 June 1999.
B. He was a part of the NCC Air Wing.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each part carries 1 mark.
b) Note that he was an NCC Air Wing cadet even though he later joined the Army.

20A. Where are the following Army Commands situated?
i. Army Central Command
ii. Eastern Command
iii. Army’s Training Command
iv. South-Western Command [4 Marks]

Answer:
i. Army Central Command - Lucknow
ii. Eastern Command - Kolkata
iii. Army’s Training Command - Shimla
iv. South-Western Command - Jaipur

Teacher's Note:
a) Each correct location carries 1 mark.
b) Do not confuse the Army Training Command (Shimla) with the Northern Command (Udhampur).

OR

20B. Enlist any four Supporting Arms of Army. [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. Artillery
2. Engineers
3. Army Air Defence
4. Signals

Teacher's Note:
a) Army Aviation Corps is also an accepted supporting arm.
b) Infantry and Armoured Corps are fighting arms, not supporting arms.

SECTION F

21. Read the given paragraph and answer the questions given below: [4 Marks]

Tiger Hills is the most dominating feature in the Drass Sector. From here, well entrenched intruders had directed precise artillery fire on the Srinagar-Leh highway for over a month.
The Plan- It was estimated that the enemy had about a platoon plus located on Tiger Hill itself and some additional troops were seen moving in in the area. However, there was limited knowledge of enemy defences. A Mountain Brigade was tasked to clear the feature and was allotted 4xInf. Battalion. It was also felt by the GOC of the mountain division that ideally Point 4875 and Tiger Hill should be attacked simultaneously to keep enemy attention diverted. However, the paucity of artillery precluded this option, thus it was decided that Tiger Hill would be attacked one day prior to Point 4875.
The plan was for GRENADIERS Battalion to launch three-pronged attack on Tiger Hill from South, East and North-East, from the firm basis provided by Sikh Battalion. Thus, Grenadiers established a fire base at Point 4460 and an administrative base at Huliyal in preparation for the attack.
Conduct- The attack commenced at 2000 hours on July 3rd, 1999. Due to bad weather and poor visibility progress was very slow. By 0200 hours on July 4th, the Ghataks got a foot hold and against fearful odds managed to hold on. During this action Sepoy Yogender Singh, part of the Ghatak platoon, showed inordinate heroism and indomitable spirit. Despite being previously wounded he continued climbing the sheer cliff face and destroyed two enemy bunkers that were holding the assault, killing the enemy in fierce hand to hand combat. For this he was awarded the Param Veer Chakra (PVC).

i. Why was Tiger Hill considered the most dominating feature in the Drass Sector? [1 Mark]
A. It had the largest number of soldiers stationed here.
B. It provided the clear view of the entire Kargil Region.
C. It allowed precise artillery fire on the Srinagar-Leh highway.
D. It was the highest point in Jammu and Kashmir.

Answer: C. It allowed precise artillery fire on the Srinagar-Leh highway.

Teacher's Note:
a) The first two sentences of the paragraph give this answer directly.
b) Do not pick options that are not stated in the paragraph.

ii. Why was it decided that the Tiger Hill would be attacked simultaneously to Point 4875? [1 Mark]
A. The troops wanted to surprise the enemy.
B. To divert the attention of the enemy.
C. The enemy had already evacuated Point 4875.
D. The weather conditions were favourable only on that day.

Answer: B. To divert the attention of the enemy.

Teacher's Note:
a) The GOC felt a simultaneous attack would keep the enemy’s attention diverted.
b) Note that, because of shortage of artillery, Tiger Hill was finally attacked one day before Point 4875.

iii. From which direction did the Grenadiers Battalion launched their attack on Tiger Hill? [1 Mark]
A. North, South and West.
B. South, East and North-East
C. East, West and South-West.
D. North, East and West.

Answer: B. South, East and North-East

Teacher's Note:
a) The paragraph describes a three-pronged attack from South, East and North-East.
b) Match all three directions before choosing the option.

iv. What brave act earned Sepoy Yogendra Singh the Param Veer Chakra (PVC)? [1 Mark]
A. He rescued wounded soldiers under heavy fire.
B. He captured the enemy commander alive.
C. He led the artillery unit in heavy rain.
D. He continued climbing the cliff despite being grievously injured and destroyed two enemy bunkers.

Answer: D. He continued climbing the cliff despite being grievously injured and destroyed two enemy bunkers.

Teacher's Note:
a) The last part of the paragraph describes his act of bravery.
b) The PVC is India’s highest wartime gallantry award.

PART II SPECIAL SUBJECTS (NAVY WING)

SECTION D

15. Choose the correct answer:

I. Choose the correct pair: [1 Mark]
A. Western Naval Command - Gujarat
B. Unified Command - Port Blair
C. Eastern Naval Command - Puducherry
D. Sothern Naval Command - Kozhikode

Answer: B. Unified Command - Port Blair

Teacher's Note:
a) The Unified Command (Andaman and Nicobar Command) has its headquarters at Port Blair.
b) The Western, Eastern and Southern Naval Commands are at Mumbai, Visakhapatnam and Kochi.

II. Which of these pro-signs stand for ‘Break’? [1 Mark]
A. MIM
B. XE
C. AAA
D. BT

Answer: A. MIM

Teacher's Note:
a) The marking scheme gives MIM as the pro-sign for ‘Break’.
b) Learn the list of pro-signs from the Naval Communication unit carefully, as the options look alike.

III. What is the age limit for Direct Entry in Law Cadre for men (Permanent Commission)? [1 Mark]
A. 22-25 years
B. 22-26 years
C. 22-27 years
D. 22-28 years

Answer: C. 22-27 years

Teacher's Note:
a) The age limit for Law Cadre direct entry is 22 to 27 years.
b) This fact is from the Naval Orientation unit on entry schemes.

IV. There are two statements are marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Assertion (A): Every Seamanship evolution onboard involves the use of blocks hooks and shackles.
Reason (R): Knowledge of the various types of shackles and their uses as well as lifting abilities is essential for every seaman. [1 Mark]
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Since every evolution uses blocks, hooks and shackles, knowing them is essential for every seaman.
b) Check whether R gives the reason for A before selecting option A.

V. Which of the following BEST describes the large-scale charts? [1 Mark]
A. These charts are generally used for passage planning and never should be used for navigation.
B. These charts show information for navigation including dangers.
C. These charts cover a general area of about 50-70 NM.
D. These charts are generally of harbours and their approaches.

Answer: D. These charts are generally of harbours and their approaches.

Teacher's Note:
a) Large-scale charts cover a small area in great detail, such as harbours and their approaches.
b) Small-scale charts cover large areas and are used for passage planning.

SECTION E

16A. Write two points related to Echosounder. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. An echosounder is an instrument that measures the depth of water below the keel of the ship.
2. It helps to prevent the ship from grounding.

Teacher's Note:
a) The keywords are "depth of water", "below the keel" and "grounding".
b) Each point carries 1 mark.

OR

16B. What is the full form of RADAR? How many types of Radars are used in Navy? [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. RADAR stands for Radio Detection and Ranging.
2. Three types of Radars are used in the Navy.

Teacher's Note:
a) The marking scheme writes the full form as "Radio Aided Direction and Ranging".
b) Remember the number of radar types used in the Navy: three.

17. What is a ‘Solid Model’? Explain with the help of two point. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. A solid model is made from a solid block of wood, including the appendages and extra parts fixed after the basic structure is prepared.
2. Solid models are scaled to the originally planned ship and are used for show and testing.

Teacher's Note:
a) Mention "solid block of wood" and "scaled to the original ship".
b) This question is from the Ship Modelling unit.

18. Enlist any four types of charts. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Navigational Charts
2. Routing Charts
3. Magnetic Charts
4. Ocean Sounding Charts

Teacher's Note:
a) Ship’s Boat Charts is also an accepted answer.
b) Each correct type carries half a mark.

19A. Provide the following information with regard to women entry in Short Service Commission in education branch of Navy.
a. Age Limit.
b. Educational Qualification. [2 Marks]

Answer:
a. Age Limit - 21 to 25 years.
b. Educational Qualification - A Master’s Degree in Physics (with Maths in B.Sc.) or Maths (with Physics in B.Sc.) with at least 50% marks, or an Engineering Degree in Mechanical/Electrical/Electronics/Computer Science/IT with at least 60% marks.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each part carries 1 mark.
b) Remember the two different minimum percentages: 50% for the Master’s degree and 60% for the Engineering degree.

OR

19B. Provide the following information with regard to women direct entry in Naval architecture under Short Service Commission in Engineering branch of Navy.
a. Age limit
b. Educational Qualification. [2 Marks]

Answer:
a. Age Limit - 21 to 25 years.
b. Educational Qualification - BE in Mechanical/Aeronautical/Metallurgical/Civil/Naval Architecture with at least 60% marks.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each part carries 1 mark.
b) Mention the minimum 60% marks along with the BE branches.

20A. What is the full form of GPS? What do modern navies use GPS for? How many satellites are used for functioning of GPS? How satellites help? [4 Marks]

Answer:
1. The full form of GPS is Global Positioning System.
2. Modern navies use GPS for accurate launching of ballistic missiles.
3. GPS works with 24 satellites placed at different positions in space.
4. A user receives signals from the various satellites in his range, and the receiver gives his position after interrelating all these signals.

Teacher's Note:
a) Answer all four parts separately, one mark each.
b) The marking scheme gives the number of satellites as 14; the standard GPS constellation uses 24 satellites.

OR

20B. What is Dead Reckoning (DR) and Estimated Position (EP) with regard to fixing a map? Write two points each for Dead Reckoning and Estimated Position. [4 Marks]

Answer:
Dead Reckoning (DR):
1. It is the position worked out from the course steered and the distance run from the last known position.
2. It makes no allowance for leeway, tidal stream or current.
Estimated Position (EP):
3. It is the most accurate position that a navigator can obtain by calculation and estimation only.
4. It is derived from the DR position adjusted for the estimated effects of leeway, tidal stream, current and surface drift.

Teacher's Note:
a) DR uses only course and distance, while EP corrects the DR position for leeway, tidal stream and current.
b) Write two points for each term, as the marks are split 2 + 2.

SECTION F

21. Read the paragraph and answer the questions given below. [4 Marks]

Operation Talwar - Time had now come to put pressure on Pakistan to ensure that the right message went down to the master minds in that country. Strike elements from Eastern Fleet were sailed from Vishakhapatnam on the East coast to take part in a major naval exercise called ‘Summerex’ in the North Arabian Sea. This was envisaged as the largest ever amassing of naval ships in the region. The message had been driven home. Pakistan navy, in a defensive mood, directed all it’s units to keep clear of Indian naval ships. As the exercise shifted closer to the Makaran coast, Pakistan moved all it’s major combatants out of Karachi. It also shifted it’s focus to escorted it’s oil trade from the gulf in anticipation of attacks by Indian ships. As the retaliation from the Indian Army and the Air Force gathered momentum and a defeat to Pakistan seemed a close possibility, an out break of hostilities became eminent. Thus, the naval focus now shifted to the Gulf of Oman. Rapid reaction missile carrying units and ships from the fleet were deployed in the North Arabian Sea for carrying out missile firing, anti-submarine and electronic warfare exercises. The navy also readied itself for implementing a blockade of the Pakistani ports, should the need arise. In addition, naval amphibious forces from the Andaman group of islands were moved to the Western sea-board.
Conclusion - In a skilful use of naval power in the form of ‘Operation Talwar’, the Eastern fleet joined the Western fleet and blocked the Arabian sea routes of Pakistan. Apart from a deterrent, the former Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif later disclosed that Pakistan was left with just six days of fuel (POL) to sustain itself if a full-fledged war broke out.

i. What was the primary objective of Operation Talwar? [1 Mark]
A. To attack Karachi port directly.
B. To occupy the Makaran coast.
C. To support the Indian Air Force in ground attacks.
D. To put pressure on Pakistan by displaying Indian Naval strength.

Answer: D. To put pressure on Pakistan by displaying Indian Naval strength.

Teacher's Note:
a) The first sentence says it was time to put pressure on Pakistan.
b) The operation was a show of naval power, not a direct attack.

ii. From which place did the Eastern fleet sail to take part in the naval exercise ‘Summerex’? [1 Mark]
A. Mumbai.
B. Kochi.
C. Vishakhapatnam.
D. Port Blair.

Answer: C. Vishakhapatnam.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Eastern Fleet sailed from Vishakhapatnam on the East coast.
b) Mumbai is the base of the Western Fleet, a common trap option.

iii. What action did Pakistan take when Indian ships moved closer to the Makaran coast? [1 Mark]
A. Launched missile attacks on the Indian ships.
B. Strengthened it’s naval base in Karachi.
C. Sought help from other countries.
D. Directed all it’s units to keep clear of Indian ships.

Answer: D. Directed all it’s units to keep clear of Indian ships.

Teacher's Note:
a) The paragraph says Pakistan navy was in a defensive mood and kept its units away from Indian ships.
b) It also moved its major combatants out of Karachi, so option B is wrong.

iv. What was the result of the Indian navy’s blockade during Operation Talwar? [1 Mark]
A. India captured Pakistani ports.
B. Pakistan’s naval fleets were destroyed.
C. Pakistan lost control of the Gulf of Oman.
D. Pakistan was left with only six days of fuel.

Answer: D. Pakistan was left with only six days of fuel.

Teacher's Note:
a) The conclusion says Pakistan was left with just six days of fuel (POL).
b) This was disclosed later by the former Prime Minister Nawaz Sharif.

PART II SPECIAL SUBJECT (AIR WING)

SECTION D

15. Choose the correct answer.

I. Which of the following is NOT a transport aircraft? [1 Mark]
A. C-17
B. AVRO
C. AN-32
D. Hawk.

Answer: D. Hawk.

Teacher's Note:
a) The Hawk is a trainer jet aircraft, not a transport aircraft.
b) C-17, AVRO and AN-32 are all transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force.

II. Who was the finance minister at the time of the Indo-Pak war of 1971? [1 Mark]
A. Y. E. Chaavan
B. Sri Jagjivan Ram
C. VV. Giri
D. H. R. Gokhale

Answer: A. Y. E. Chaavan

Teacher's Note:
a) Y. B. Chavan was the Finance Minister of India during the 1971 war.
b) Do not confuse him with Jagjivan Ram, who was the Defence Minister at that time.

III. There are two statements are marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
Assertion (A): Contours are lines joining all places having the same heights above a certain datum level.
Reason (R): Scale is a ration of a distance measured on the map to the corresponding distance on the surface of the earth. [1 Mark]
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Answer: B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Teacher's Note:
a) Both statements are correct definitions, but R is about scale and A is about contours.
b) When R talks about a different topic, it cannot explain A, so choose option B.

IV. Which of the following is NOT the shape of a canopy? [1 Mark]
A. Taper
B. Taer Drop
C. Bubble
D. Submerged

Answer: A. Taper

Teacher's Note:
a) Tear drop, bubble and submerged are shapes of aircraft canopies.
b) Taper is a shape of an aircraft wing, not of a canopy.

V. Which of the following are correct with regard to damages reported from military air fields and aircrafts during Indo-Pak war of 1971?
i. Aircraft and one 3 ton vehicle hit by Pakistani bombs near Amritsar.
ii. In Pathankot one person was killed.
iii. In Halwara, Pakistani planes dropped bombs four times.
iv. In Rajasthan, six people were injured by two bombs near bus stand dropped by a Pakistani aircraft. [1 Mark]
A. I, ii and iii
B. ii, iii and iv
C. Only I and iii
D. only iv.

Answer: C. Only I and iii

Teacher's Note:
a) As per the marking scheme, only statements i and iii are correct.
b) Read each statement carefully and eliminate the options that contain a wrong statement.

SECTION E

16. What is Ionosphere? Write any two relevant points. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. The thermosphere is in a highly ionised state, so it is called the ionosphere.
2. This layer reflects radio waves and makes long-wave radio communication possible.

Teacher's Note:
a) The keywords are "highly ionised" and "reflection of radio waves".
b) Each point carries 1 mark.

17A. What are static models of aircrafts? State any two points. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Static models are miniature replicas of original aircrafts.
2. Fighter aircraft models, transport aircraft models and helicopter models can be prepared as static models.

Teacher's Note:
a) The word "miniature replica" is the key point for the definition.
b) Give examples of the types of static models for the second mark.

OR

17B. Which things should be kept in mind with regard to flying of aero models? Mention any two. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. A large air field should be chosen for flying the aero models.
2. The model should first be checked for correct alignment.

Teacher's Note:
a) Another accepted point: the wing and tail must be checked from the front and rear, and must not be warped or out of plane.
b) Write only two points, as the question asks for any two.

18. Name any two radio control models. [2 Marks]

Answer:
1. Radio Control Glider.
2. Radio Control Helicopter.

Teacher's Note:
a) Other accepted answers are Radio Control Power model and Jet powered model.
b) Each correct name carries 1 mark.

19A. Provide the following information about Chetak helicopter.
a. Country of origin.
b. Passenger capacity. [2 Marks]

Answer:
a. Country of origin - France.
b. Passenger capacity - 6 passengers or 500 kg load.

Teacher's Note:
a) Each part carries 1 mark.
b) Learn the country of origin and capacity of each aircraft in the Aircraft Recognition unit.

OR

19B. Provide the following information about SU-30 MKI?
a. Country of origin
b. Maximum speed. [2 Marks]

Answer:
a. Country of origin - Russia.
b. Maximum speed - 2500 km/hr (Mach 2.35).

Teacher's Note:
a) Each part carries 1 mark.
b) Write the unit (km/hr) with the speed.

20. How is relief indicated on maps and charts? Mention any four ways. [4 Marks]

Answer: Relief is shown on maps and charts in one or more of the following ways:
1. Spot heights and depths.
2. Contours and form lines.
3. Layer tints.
4. Hachures.

Teacher's Note:
a) Hill shading is also an accepted way.
b) Each correct way carries 1 mark, so write four clear points.

SECTION F

21. Read the given paragraph carefully and answer the questions given below. [4 Marks]

The first strikes were launched on the 26th May, when the Indian Airforce struck infiltrator positions with fighter aircrafts and helicopter gunships. The initial strikes saw MiG - 27s carrying out offensive sorties, with MiG 21s and (Later) MiG 29s providing fighter cover. Mi-17 gunships were also deployed in the Tololing sector. Srinagar airport was at this time closed to civilian air traffic and dedicated to the Indian air force. However, on May 27th, the first fatalities were suffered when a MiG 21 and a MiG 27 jets were shot down over Batalik sector by Pakistan army. The following day, a Mi-17 was lost - with the loss of all four of the crew - when it was hit by three Stinger missiles while on an offensive sortie. These losses forced the Indian air force to reassess it’s strategy. The helicopters were immediately withdrawn from offensive roles as measure against the man-portable missiles in possession of the infiltrators. On May 30th, the Indian air force called into operation Mirage 2000 which was deemed the best aircraft capable of optimum performance under the conditions of high altitude seen in the zone of conflict. Armed initially with 250 kg. “Dumb” bombs, No. 7 squadron over three days struck infiltrator positions in Muntho Dhalo, Tiger Hill and Point 4388 in the Drass sector. The strikes on Muntho Dhalo on June 17th, also destroyed logistics and resupply capabilities of the infiltrators in the Batalik sector. Through the last weeks of June, the Mirages, armed with LGBs as well as with ‘Dumbs” repeatedly struck the heavily defended Tiger Hill.

i. When did Indian air force launched it’s first strikes against the infiltrator positions? [1 Mark]
A. June 17th.
B. May 26th.
C. May 27th.
D. May 30th.

Answer: B. May 26th.

Teacher's Note:
a) The first sentence of the paragraph gives this date.
b) May 27th is the date of the first fatalities, so do not confuse the two.

ii. Which aircrafts were first used by the Indian air force to carry out offensive sorties? [1 Mark]
A. MiG 29 and MiG 25.
B. Mi-17 and Mirage 2000.
C. Mirage 2000 and Jaguars.
D. MiG 27, MiG 21 and MiG 29.

Answer: D. MiG 27, MiG 21 and MiG 29.

Teacher's Note:
a) The initial strikes saw MiG 27s on offensive sorties, with MiG 21s and MiG 29s giving fighter cover.
b) The Mirage 2000 was brought in later, on May 30th.

iii. Why were Mi-17 helicopters withdrawn from offensive roles after initial operation. [1 Mark]
A. They ran out of ammunitions.
B. They were vulnerable to enemy radars.
C. Weather conditions prevented their use.
D. They were hit by Stinger missiles and suffered losses.

Answer: D. They were hit by Stinger missiles and suffered losses.

Teacher's Note:
a) A Mi-17 was lost with all four crew when it was hit by three Stinger missiles.
b) The helicopters were withdrawn as a measure against the man-portable missiles of the infiltrators.

iv. Which aircraft was later called into operation for optimum performance in high altitude conditions? [1 Mark]
A. MiG 21.
B. Mirage 2000.
C. Sukhoi 30.
D. Jaguar.

Answer: B. Mirage 2000.

Teacher's Note:
a) On May 30th, the Mirage 2000 was called into operation for high altitude conditions.
b) It was flown by No. 7 squadron against Muntho Dhalo, Tiger Hill and Point 4388.