CBSE Class 10 Biology MCQs All Chapters Set 04

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Chapter-wise Objective Questions: All Chapters

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Which one of the following is responsible for converting milk into curd?
(a) Fungi
(b) Bacteria
(c) Virus
(d) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Bacteria

Explanation:
1. Lactic acid bacteria (Lactobacillus) convert milk into curd.

Question 2: Consider the follwing statement about bioremediation.
1. It may be defined as any process that uses microorganisms or their enzymes to return the environment altered by contaminants to its original condition.
2. Bioremediation may be employed in order to attack specific contaminants, such as chlorinated pesticides that are degraded by bacteria.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 1 and 2

Explanation:
1. Bioremediation uses microbes or their enzymes to clean contaminated environments, e.g. degrading pesticides.

Question 3: Genetic screening is
(a) analysis of DNA to check the presence of a particular gene in a person
(b) analysis of gene in a population
(c) pedigree analysis
(d) screening of infertility in parents
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) analysis of DNA to check the presence of a particular gene in a person

Explanation:
1. Genetic screening analyses a person's DNA for the presence of a particular (often faulty) gene.

Question 4: Who among the following is considered as the father of genetic engineering?
(a) Philip Drinker
(b) Paul Berg
(c) Thomas Addison
(d) Alpheuss Packard Jr.
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Paul Berg

Explanation:
1. Paul Berg, who made the first recombinant DNA, is called the father of genetic engineering.

Question 5: In artificial insemination (AI) process. Which of the following is/are introduced into the uterus of the female?
(a) Egg only
(b) Fertilized egg
(c) Sperm only
(d) Egg and sperm
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Sperm only

Explanation:
1. In artificial insemination only sperm is placed in the female's reproductive tract.

Question 6: The sex chromosomes in humans are
(a) X and Y
(b) A and B
(c) P and Q
(d) M and N
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) X and Y

Explanation:
1. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes.

Question 7: The seat of intelligence is situated in the
(a) cerebrum
(b) cerebellum
(c) medulla
(d) thalamus
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) cerebellum

Explanation:
1. The cerebrum is the seat of intelligence in the human brain.

Question 8: Which is the largest gland in human body?
(a) Liver
(b) Thyroid
(c) Pituitary
(d) S aliv ary gland
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Liver

Explanation:
1. The liver is the largest gland in the human body.

Question 9: The most abundant element in the human body is
(a) carbon
(b) iron
(c) nitrogen
(d) oxygen
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) oxygen

Explanation:
1. Oxygen is the most abundant element in the human body.

Question 10: In human body, cartilage is found in
(a) tognue
(b) nose
(c) chin
(d) nail
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) nose

Explanation:
1. Cartilage is found in the nose of the human body.

Question 11: Mammals breathe through
(a) Lungs
(b) Gills
(c) Skin
(d) Trachea
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Lungs

Explanation:
1. Fish breathe through gills.

Question 12: Earthworms breathe through their
(a) Skin
(b) Lungs
(c) Gills
(d) Trachea
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Skin

Explanation:
1. Leeches also use the skin.

Question 13: The resting heartbeat rate of a human is about
(a) 72 to 80 per minute
(b) 40 to 50 per minute
(c) 100 to 120 per minute
(d) 150 per minute
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 72 to 80 per minute

Explanation:
1. Normal resting heart rate is about 72 beats per minute.

Question 14: ECG stands for
(a) Electrocardiogram
(b) Electroencephalogram
(c) Electromyogram
(d) Echocardiogram
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Electrocardiogram

Explanation:
1. An ECG records the heart's electrical activity.

Question 15: If ahealthy freshwater fish is placed in salt water, what will be the expected consequence?
(a) The fish becomes dehydrated and dies
(b) The fish becomes bloated and dies
(c) The fish suffers from fungal or bacterial disease and dies
(d) There is no observable effect on the fish provided there is sufficient food
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) The fish becomes dehydrated and dies

Explanation:
1. A freshwater fish placed in salt water loses water by osmosis and becomes dehydrated.

Question 16: Interferons are synthesized in response to
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Mycoplasma
(d) Virus
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Virus

Explanation:
1. Interferons are synthesised by body cells in response to virus infection.

Question 17: Fat present below the skin surf ace in our body acts as a barrier against
(a) loss of heat from the body
(b) loss of essential body fluids
(c) loss of salt from the body
(d) entry of harmful micro environment -organisms from the
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) loss of heat from the body

Explanation:
1. The layer of fat below the skin acts as a barrier against loss of heat from the body.

Question 18: The cuticle is absent in
(a) Leaf
(b) Stem
(c) Root
(d) Fruit
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Root

Explanation:
1. The cuticle is absent in roots.

Question 19: The DNA double helix model was given by
(a) Watson and Crick
(b) Mendel and Darwin
(c) Hooke and Golgi
(d) Miller and Urey
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Watson and Crick

Explanation:
1. It was in 1953.

Question 20: What is a sponge ?
(a) a fossil
(b) a plant
(c) an animal
(d) a fungus
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) an animal

Explanation:
1. A sponge is an animal.

Question 21: Iron is found in the
(a) Red blood cells
(b) White blood cells
(c) Platelets
(d) Plasma only
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Red blood cells

Explanation:
1. It is part of haemoglobin.

Question 22: In-situ conservation includes
(a) national parks and sanctuaries
(b) zoos
(c) seed banks
(d) botanical gardens
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) national parks and sanctuaries

Explanation:
1. In-situ conservation protects species in their natural habitats.

Question 23: IUCN stands for
(a) International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) International Union for Climate Negotiation
(c) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature
(d) International Unit of Conservation
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) International Union for Conservation of Nature

Explanation:
1. It publishes the Red List.

Question 24: The Red Data Book lists species that are
(a) Threatened
(b) Extinct only
(c) Common
(d) Domesticated
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Threatened

Explanation:
1. It is maintained by IUCN.

Question 25: CITES was signed in
(a) 1975
(b) 1972
(c) 1992
(d) 1948
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 1975

Explanation:
1. It regulates international trade in endangered species.

Question 26: CITES stands for
(a) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species
(b) Convention on Indian Trade in Endangered Species
(c) Council for International Trade of Species
(d) Convention on Industrial Trade of Species
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species

Explanation:
1. It was signed in Washington.

Question 27: The National Biodiversity Authority was established under the Biological Diversity Act of
(a) 2002
(b) 1972
(c) 1986
(d) 1980
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 2002

Explanation:
1. It came into effect in 2003.

Question 28: The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about _____ of the energy of sunlight.
(a) 4%
(b) 2%
(c) 1%
(d) 3%
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 1%

Explanation:
1. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about 1% of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and transform it into food energy by the process of photosynthesis.

Question 29: Plants that grow in saline water are called
(a) halophytes
(b) hydrophytes
(c) mesophytes
(d) thallophytes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) halophytes

Explanation:
1. Halophytes are salt-tolerant plants.

Question 30: In which ecosystem is a grassland included?
(a) Marine
(b) Fresh water
(c) Terrestrial
(d) Artificial
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Terrestrial

Explanation:
1. Grasslands are terrestrial ecosystems.

Question 31: Nutrients are recycled in the atmosphere with the help of certain micro-organisms referred to as
(a) producers
(b) consumers
(c) decomposers
(d) None of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) decomposers

Explanation:
1. Decomposers recycle nutrients in the ecosystem.

Question 32: The nitrogen in the ecosystem is circulated by—
(a) Earthworms
(b) Bacteria
(c) Fungi
(d) Protozoa
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Bacteria

Explanation:
1. Bacteria circulate nitrogen in the ecosystem.

Question 33: The environment includes
(a) Abiotic factors
(b) Biotic factors
(c) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(d) Abiotic and Biotic factors
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Abiotic and Biotic factors

Explanation:
1. The environment includes both abiotic and biotic factors.

Question 34: Ecology is the branch of biology dealing with the relationship between organisms and their
(a) Environment
(b) Genes
(c) Cells
(d) Diseases
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Environment

Explanation:
1. The term was coined by Ernst Haeckel.

Question 35: The Ramsar Convention, adopted in 1971, is concerned with the conservation of
(a) wetlands
(b) forests
(c) oceans
(d) ozone layer
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) wetlands

Explanation:
1. It promotes wise use of wetlands.

Question 36: The Montreal Protocol (1987) aims to phase out
(a) ozone-depleting substances
(b) greenhouse gases
(c) hazardous waste trade
(d) whaling
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) ozone-depleting substances

Explanation:
1. It controls the production and consumption of ozone-depleting chemicals.

Question 37: The Kyoto Protocol, adopted in 1997, mandates reductions in
(a) greenhouse gas emissions
(b) ozone-depleting substances
(c) biodiversity loss
(d) marine pollution
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) greenhouse gas emissions

Explanation:
1. Kyoto set binding targets for developed countries.

Question 38: The Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit of 1992 was officially known as
(a) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development
(b) Conference on Climate Change
(c) World Summit on Wetlands
(d) Conference on Human Environment
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) United Nations Conference on Environment and Development

Explanation:
1. It is also abbreviated UNCED.

Question 39: The branches of this tree root themselves like new trees over a large area. The roots then give rise to more trunks and branches. Because of this characteristic and its longevity, this tree is considered immortal and is an integral part of the myths and legends of India. Which tree is this?
(a) Banyan
(b) Neem
(c) Tamarind(Imli)
(d) Peepal
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Banyan

Explanation:
1. The banyan's aerial prop roots grow into new trunks, so one tree spreads over a large area; it is India's national tree.

Question 40: Which among the following are the major reasons behind preferring eucalyptus tree in the planned forestation process?
1. Plantation grows very fast.
2. Plantation makes the soil more fertile.
3. Wood from eucalyptus tree is easily converted into the pulp for paper industry.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of these
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation:
1. Eucalyptus grows fast and its wood is good pulp for paper, but it does not improve soil fertility.

Question 41: The TX2 goal is to double the amount of wild _____ in the world by 2022.
(a) elephants
(b) lions
(c) leopards
(d) tigers
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) tigers

Explanation:
1. The TX2 goal set by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF) is to double the amount of wild tigers in the world by 2022.

Question 42: Which of the following places/ regions is the natural habitat of the Indian wild ass?
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Upper Himalayas
(c) Plains of Ganga
(d) Little Rann of Kutch
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Little Rann of Kutch

Explanation:
1. Little Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is the natural habitat of the Indian wild ass. To conserve this species, the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary (IWAS) was created there in 1973.

Question 43: The Chipko Movement is related to
(a) wildlife preservation
(b) scientific agriculture
(c) forest conservation
(d) deforestation
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) forest conservation

Explanation:
1. Villagers hugged trees to stop felling in the Himalayan forests.

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