NEET Biology Reproduction Genetics and Biotechnology MCQs Set 02

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Chapter-wise Objective Questions: Reproduction Genetics and Biotechnology

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Infections or diseases that are transmitted through sexual intercourse are called sexually transmitted infections (STI), venereal diseases (VD) or reproductive tract infections (RTI). Except for hepatitis-B, ________ and HIV infections, they are completely curable if detected early and treated properly.
(a) genital warts
(b) syphilis
(c) gonorrhoea
(d) genital herpes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) genital herpes

Explanation:
1. Syphilis, gonorrhoea and genital warts can be treated if detected early.
2. The infections that are not completely curable are hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV, so the blank is genital herpes.

Teacher's Note:
1. Bacterial STIs such as syphilis and gonorrhoea respond to antibiotics.
2. Viral STIs can be managed but not completely cured.

Question 2: Which of the following most appropriately describes colour blindness?
(a) chromosomal genetic disorder
(b) X-linked recessive genetic disorder
(c) dominant disorder
(d) Y-linked disorder
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) X-linked recessive genetic disorder

Explanation:
1. Colour blindness is caused by a defect in the red or green cone genes located on the X chromosome. It is recessive, so it appears more often in males, who have only one X chromosome.
2. It is a Mendelian disorder, not a chromosomal one.

Teacher's Note:
1. A carrier mother can pass the gene to her sons.
2. A colour-blind daughter needs a colour-blind father and a carrier or affected mother.

Question 3: Two heterozygous tall plants are crossed. The percentage of homozygous offspring is :
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 50%

Explanation:
1. The cross is \(Tt \times Tt\), which gives \(TT : Tt : tt = 1 : 2 : 1\).
2. The homozygous offspring are \(TT\) and \(tt\), that is \(\dfrac14 + \dfrac14 = 50\%\).

Teacher's Note:
1. Heterozygous offspring are 50 percent, so homozygous ones are the remaining 50 percent.
2. The phenotypic ratio would be 3 tall to 1 dwarf.

Question 4: In the ABO blood group system, which blood group is possible only in the homozygous condition?
(a) AB and O
(b) A and B
(c) A and O
(d) only O
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) only O

Explanation:
1. Group O has the genotype \(ii\) only, which is homozygous.
2. Group A (\(I^AI^A\) or \(I^Ai\)) and group B (\(I^BI^B\) or \(I^Bi\)) can be homozygous or heterozygous, and group AB (\(I^AI^B\)) is always heterozygous.

Teacher's Note:
1. AB is the only group that is always heterozygous.
2. A and B are codominant alleles, and i is recessive.

Question 5: Statins are used as :
(a) an immunosuppressive agent
(b) a clot buster
(c) a blood cholesterol lowering agent
(d) a bioinsecticide
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) a blood cholesterol lowering agent

Explanation:
1. Statins are produced by the yeast \(\textit{Monascus purpureus}\). They inhibit the enzyme that makes cholesterol, so they lower blood cholesterol.
2. Cyclosporin A is the immunosuppressive agent and streptokinase is the clot buster.

Teacher's Note:
1. Statins competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase.
2. Bt toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis is the bioinsecticide.

Question 6: Read the statements : (a) The pollen tube contains two male gametes. (b) One male gamete is motile and the other is non-motile. (c) Both male gametes are non-motile. (d) The pollen tube shows chemotropic movement. How many statements are correct for flowering plants?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 3

Explanation:
1. Each pollen tube carries two non-motile male gametes, so (a) and (c) are correct and (b) is false.
2. The pollen tube grows towards the ovule guided by chemical substances from the synergids, so it is chemotropic and (d) is correct. So three statements are correct.

Teacher's Note:
1. Angiosperm male gametes are carried passively in the pollen tube.
2. The filiform apparatus of the synergids guides the pollen tube.

Question 7: In an angiosperm, how many microspore mother cells are required to produce 200 pollen grains?
(a) 150
(b) 200
(c) 50
(d) 100
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) 50

Explanation:
1. Each microspore mother cell (pollen mother cell) divides by meiosis to give 4 microspores, which develop into 4 pollen grains.
2. Number of mother cells \(= \dfrac{200}{4} = 50\).

Teacher's Note:
1. Meiosis in a PMC produces a tetrad of four haploid microspores.
2. For a megaspore mother cell, the result is only one functional megaspore.

Question 8: If the number of chromosomes in the gametes of an angiosperm is 12, what will be the number of chromosomes in the primary endosperm cell, the embryo and the synergids, respectively?
(a) 36, 24 and 12
(b) 24, 36 and 12
(c) 12, 36 and 24
(d) 36, 12 and 24
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 36, 24 and 12

Explanation:
1. The gametes are haploid, so \(n = 12\).
2. The primary endosperm cell is triploid (\(3n = 36\)), the embryo develops from the zygote and is diploid (\(2n = 24\)), and the synergids are haploid (\(n = 12\)).

Teacher's Note:
1. Primary endosperm nucleus = two polar nuclei plus one male gamete.
2. Synergids arise from the megaspore by mitosis, so they are haploid.

Question 9: How many copies of the DNA sample are produced in the PCR technique after 5 cycles?
(a) 4
(b) 32
(c) 64
(d) 16
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 32

Explanation:
1. In each PCR cycle the amount of DNA doubles, so after \(n\) cycles there are \(2^n\) copies from one molecule.
2. After 5 cycles, \(2^5 = 32\) copies.

Teacher's Note:
1. PCR uses denaturation, annealing and extension in every cycle.
2. A thermostable Taq polymerase is used.

Question 10: A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding methyl groups. It does this to :
(a) clone its DNA
(b) transcribe many genes simultaneously
(c) turn its genes on
(d) protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) protect its DNA from its own restriction enzyme

Explanation:
1. Bacteria make restriction endonucleases to cut the DNA of invading viruses. They protect their own DNA by adding methyl groups to it, which blocks the restriction enzyme from cutting it.

Teacher's Note:
1. The methylase and the restriction enzyme recognise the same sequence.
2. This is called a restriction-modification system.

Question 11: A genetically engineered bacterium used for cleaning oil spills is :
(a) \(\textit{Escherichia coli}\)
(b) \(\textit{Bacillus subtilis}\)
(c) \(\textit{Agrobacterium tumefaciens}\)
(d) \(\textit{Pseudomonas putida}\)
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) \(\textit{Pseudomonas putida}\)

Explanation:
1. Ananda Mohan Chakrabarty developed a strain of \(\textit{Pseudomonas putida}\) that can degrade hydrocarbons in crude oil.
2. \(\textit{Agrobacterium tumefaciens}\) is the vector for plant gene transfer.

Teacher's Note:
1. This was the first patented genetically modified organism.
2. Such bacteria are used in bioremediation.

Question 12: The protein product of the Bt toxin gene \(\textit{cryIAb}\) controls :
(a) cotton bollworms
(b) corn borer
(c) round worms
(d) fruit fly
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) corn borer

Explanation:
1. The genes \(\textit{cryIAc}\) and \(\textit{cryIIAb}\) control cotton bollworms, and \(\textit{cryIAb}\) controls the corn borer.
2. Nematodes and flies are controlled by other cry genes.

Teacher's Note:
1. Bt toxin is produced as an inactive protoxin that becomes active in the alkaline gut of the insect.
2. The toxin creates pores in the midgut epithelial cells.

Question 13: Read the statements : (A) The wheat variety Atlas 66 has a high mineral content. (B) SCP is an alternative source of protein for animal and human nutrition. (C) Plants developed by micropropagation are genetically different from the original plant. (D) The IR-36 variety of rice is resistant to the grassy stunt virus. Find the correct statements.
(a) A, B and C
(b) B and C
(c) B and D
(d) A, B, C and D
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) B and D

Explanation:
1. (A) is wrong because Atlas 66 is a wheat variety with high protein content, not minerals.
2. (B) is correct since single cell protein is an alternative protein source. (C) is wrong because micropropagated plants are somaclones, genetically identical to the parent. (D) is correct.
3. So B and D are correct.

Teacher's Note:
1. Micropropagation is a form of cloning.
2. Biofortified crops are bred for higher protein, vitamins, minerals or healthier fats.

Question 14: Gene therapy performed for the correction of disorders :
(a) is always a temporary cure
(b) could be permanent if the gene is introduced in the early embryonic stages
(c) has not been tried in humans
(d) involves removal of normal genes and introduction of non-functional genes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) could be permanent if the gene is introduced in the early embryonic stages

Explanation:
1. Gene therapy delivers a normal gene to replace a defective one. If it is introduced into cells in the early embryonic stage, it can be passed on and be a permanent cure.
2. It has been tried in humans, for example for ADA deficiency, and it does not involve introducing non-functional genes.

Teacher's Note:
1. In ADA deficiency, lymphocytes are corrected outside the body and returned, but they die, so the treatment is temporary.
2. Permanent correction needs the gene to enter the cells that give rise to all other cells.

Question 15: Identify the correct statement about transgenic animals developed for the study of diseases :
(a) Transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding of the role of genes in disease.
(b) Animals are developed as models of human diseases to investigate new methods of treatment.
(c) Models exist for Alzheimer's disease and cystic fibrosis.
(d) All of these.
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) All of these.

Explanation:
1. Transgenic animals, mostly mice, are made so that the role of a gene in disease can be studied and new treatments can be tested on them.
2. Models exist for several diseases, including cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and Alzheimer's disease.
3. So all the statements are correct.

Teacher's Note:
1. Transgenic animals are also used for making biological products and testing vaccines.
2. Safety testing of drugs is another important use.

Question 16: Milk synthesis in the mammary gland of a female just after parturition occurs due to the action of which hormone?
(a) progesterone
(b) prolactin
(c) oxytocin
(d) follicle stimulating hormone
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) prolactin

Explanation:
1. Prolactin from the anterior pituitary stimulates milk synthesis after delivery.
2. Oxytocin causes the ejection of milk (and uterine contractions). Progesterone and oestrogen help in the growth of the mammary glands during pregnancy.

Teacher's Note:
1. Prolactin makes milk, and oxytocin releases it.
2. Colostrum is the first milk produced after delivery.

Question 17: Which of the following contraceptives protects the user from contracting STDs and AIDS?
(a) condoms
(b) Copper T
(c) Saheli
(d) Norplant
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) condoms

Explanation:
1. Condoms are a barrier method, and they stop direct contact between the genital surfaces, so they protect against STDs and AIDS.
2. Copper T (IUD), Saheli (non-steroidal pill) and Norplant (implant) do not provide a barrier.

Teacher's Note:
1. Condoms are also the most widely used male contraceptive.
2. Nirodh is a popular brand in India.

Question 18: In mammals, failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum is known as :
(a) paedogenesis
(b) castration
(c) cryptorchidism
(d) impotency
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) cryptorchidism

Explanation:
1. The testes normally descend into the scrotum before birth. If one or both fail to descend, the condition is cryptorchidism, and the higher temperature of the abdomen stops sperm formation.
2. Castration is the removal of the testes.

Teacher's Note:
1. The scrotum keeps the testes about 2 to 2.5 degrees Celsius below body temperature.
2. Paedogenesis is reproduction by a larval stage.

Question 19: The scrotum communicates with the abdominal cavity through :
(a) urethra
(b) inguinal canal
(c) vas deferens
(d) epididymis
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) inguinal canal

Explanation:
1. The testes descend from the abdomen into the scrotum during development through the inguinal canal. This canal remains as the communication between the scrotal sac and the abdominal cavity.

Teacher's Note:
1. A weak inguinal canal can lead to an inguinal hernia.
2. The vas deferens passes through this canal to reach the abdomen.

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