NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Morphology and Physiology MCQs Set 02

Practice MCQs for NEET Biology Plant Kingdom Morphology and Physiology

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Growth is irreversible in living organisms. This statement is applicable only in the case of :-
(a) increase in mass of the body
(b) change in size of the thymus gland
(c) increase in height of the body
(d) formation of a bulging belly
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) increase in height of the body

Explanation:
1. Body mass can fall again (loss of fat or water), the thymus shrinks with age, and a bulging belly can disappear with fat loss, so these changes are reversible.
2. Increase in height is a growth in the skeleton that cannot be undone, so it is irreversible.

Teacher's Note:
1. True growth involves permanent increase in structural parts.
2. Changes in weight due to fat or water are not true growth.

Question 2: These are some names of plants: Pisum sativum, Allium cepa, Saraca indica, Mangifera indica, Cleome viscosa, Solanum tuberosum, Solanum melongena and Solanum nigrum. How many species and genera are included respectively in these names?
(a) 6, 8
(b) 8, 7
(c) 8, 8
(d) 8, 6
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) 8, 6

Explanation:
1. Each binomial is a different species, so there are 8 species.
2. Genera are Pisum, Allium, Saraca, Mangifera, Cleome and Solanum (three species), which gives 6 genera.

Teacher's Note:
1. In a binomial the first word is the genus and the second the species.
2. Different species of the same genus share the first word.

Question 3: How many statements are true about bacteria? (a) Porin increases permeability. (b) Porin is found in mesosome. (c) Peptidoglycan is present in the membrane.
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 0
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation:
1. (a) is true, since porins are channel proteins in the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria that allow passage of small molecules.
2. (b) is false, because mesosomes are infoldings of the plasma membrane and do not contain porins.
3. (c) is false, since peptidoglycan is in the cell wall.
4. Only one statement is true.

Teacher's Note:
1. Porins are present in the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria, mitochondria and chloroplasts.
2. Mesosomes help in respiration and DNA replication.

Question 4: Which of the following characters are true for slime moulds?
(a) saprophytic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by water
(b) parasitic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by water
(c) saprophytic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by air currents
(d) parasitic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by insects
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) saprophytic, plasmodium, spores dispersed by air currents

Explanation:
1. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists that move on decaying leaves and logs.
2. Under suitable conditions they form an aggregation called a plasmodium, and during unfavourable conditions it forms fruiting bodies bearing spores that are dispersed by air currents.

Teacher's Note:
1. Slime moulds are placed in kingdom Protista.
2. The spores have true walls and are very resistant.

Question 5: Choose the incorrect statement :-
(a) Viruses are obligate parasites
(b) A virus causes potato spindle tuber disease
(c) Prions cause Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) in humans
(d) Lichens are very good pollution indicators
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) A virus causes potato spindle tuber disease

Explanation:
1. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by a viroid, which is a free RNA without a protein coat, and not by a virus.
2. The other three statements are correct.

Teacher's Note:
1. Viroids are infectious RNA and prions are infectious proteins.
2. Lichens do not grow in polluted air as they are sensitive to \(\mathrm{SO_2}\).

Question 6: Which of the following classes of algae is rarely found in fresh water?
(a) Chlorophyceae
(b) Phaeophyceae
(c) Cyanophyceae
(d) both Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Phaeophyceae

Explanation:
1. Green algae (Chlorophyceae) and blue green algae (Cyanophyceae) are common in fresh water.
2. Brown algae (Phaeophyceae) are found almost exclusively in marine habitats.

Teacher's Note:
1. Examples of Phaeophyceae are Laminaria, Fucus and Sargassum.
2. Red algae are also mostly marine.

Question 7: In a cladogram of plant evolution, the group that has chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b but lacks an embryo (before liverworts, with the embryo, appear in the lineage) is :-
(a) moss
(b) pteridophyta
(c) bryophyta
(d) green algae
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) green algae

Explanation:
1. Chlorophyll a and b are found in green algae and all land plants.
2. The embryo evolved after the green algal stage, leading to liverworts, then to leafy gametophytes (mosses) and later groups.
3. The group with chlorophyll b but no embryo is therefore the green algae.

Teacher's Note:
1. Land plants evolved from green algae, which share chlorophyll a and b, starch and cellulose walls.
2. Embryos are retained in all land plants (embryophytes).

Question 8: Seed ferns belong to :-
(a) Pteridophyta
(b) Gymnosperms
(c) both Pteridophyta and Gymnosperms
(d) Bryophyta
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) Gymnosperms

Explanation:
1. Seed ferns (Pteridospermales) are extinct plants with fern-like leaves that bore seeds.
2. Because they produced naked seeds, they are classified as primitive gymnosperms.

Teacher's Note:
1. Seed ferns are considered ancestors of cycads and other gymnosperms.
2. Ferns (pteridophytes) do not produce seeds.

Question 9: Find out the incorrect pair :-
(a) Pinnately compound leaf: neem
(b) Palmately compound leaf: silk cotton
(c) Reticulate venation: Ziziphus
(d) Parallel venation: Smilax
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) Parallel venation: Smilax

Explanation:
1. Neem has pinnately compound leaves and silk cotton (Bombax) has palmately compound leaves.
2. Ziziphus is a dicot with reticulate venation.
3. Smilax is a monocot but unusual in showing reticulate venation, so "parallel venation: Smilax" is incorrect.

Teacher's Note:
1. Most monocots have parallel venation, but Smilax, Dioscorea and Colocasia are exceptions.
2. Parallel venation is typical of grasses.

Question 10: A superior ovary is found in :-
(a) cucumber
(b) guava
(c) China rose
(d) rose
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) China rose

Explanation:
1. In China rose (Hibiscus) the flower is hypogynous, with the ovary placed above the other floral parts, so the ovary is superior.
2. Cucumber and guava have an inferior ovary (epigynous flowers), and the rose is perigynous with the ovary lying at the middle level (half inferior).

Teacher's Note:
1. Hypogynous: superior ovary, as in mustard, brinjal and China rose.
2. Epigynous: inferior ovary, as in guava, cucumber and apple.

Question 11: The lily family (Liliaceae) does not show :-
(a) tepals (3 + 3)
(b) actinomorphic flower
(c) endospermous seed
(d) inferior ovary
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) inferior ovary

Explanation:
1. Liliaceae has perigonium of six tepals in two whorls of three, actinomorphic trimerous flowers, and endospermous seeds.
2. The ovary is superior, so an inferior ovary is not shown.

Teacher's Note:
1. Liliaceae is a monocot family, with examples like Allium, Aloe and Lilium.
2. Its flowers are bisexual, trimerous and hypogynous.

Question 12: Usually more than six exarch xylem bundles (polyarch condition) are found in :-
(a) dicot root
(b) monocot root
(c) dicot stem
(d) monocot stem
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) monocot root

Explanation:
1. The dicot root has two to four (di- to tetrarch) xylem bundles.
2. The monocot root has more than six (polyarch).
3. Stems have endarch xylem and open or scattered vascular bundles.

Teacher's Note:
1. Roots show exarch xylem, in which protoxylem is towards the periphery.
2. Dicot stems have endarch xylem.

Question 13: Which of the following is a redifferentiated tissue?
(a) phellogen
(b) phelloderm
(c) primary cortex
(d) wound phellogen
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) phelloderm

Explanation:
1. Dedifferentiation is the process in which permanent cells regain the power of division (for example, cork cambium).
2. Redifferentiation is when the cells produced by these meristems mature and lose the power of division again.
3. Phelloderm is cut off by the phellogen and matures into permanent tissue, so it is redifferentiated. Phellogen and wound phellogen are dedifferentiated, and the primary cortex is a primary tissue.

Teacher's Note:
1. Dedifferentiation then redifferentiation occurs during secondary growth.
2. Secondary xylem and phloem are also redifferentiated tissues.

Question 14: Which of the following is true for the Golgi apparatus?
(a) It is found only in animal cells
(b) It is found in prokaryotes
(c) It is a site of rapid ATP production
(d) It modifies and packages proteins
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) It modifies and packages proteins

Explanation:
1. The Golgi apparatus is found in all eukaryotic cells, animal and plant, and is absent in prokaryotes.
2. It receives proteins from the ER, modifies them (for example by glycosylation), and packages them into vesicles.
3. ATP is produced in mitochondria.

Teacher's Note:
1. Cis face receives and trans face dispatches vesicles.
2. In plant cells the Golgi forms the cell plate during cytokinesis.

Question 15: "Ergosome" is :-
(a) ribosome with rough ER
(b) ribosome with mRNA
(c) ribosome with DNA
(d) nucleosome chain
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) ribosome with mRNA

Explanation:
1. Several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA strand form a polyribosome or polysome, which is also called an ergosome.
2. They allow many copies of a protein to be made from one mRNA at the same time.

Teacher's Note:
1. Polysomes make translation faster.
2. A nucleosome chain is chromatin.

Question 16: Chromatin contains :-
(a) RNA and histones
(b) DNA and histones
(c) histones and non-histones
(d) all of the above
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) all of the above

Explanation:
1. Chromatin is made of DNA, basic histone proteins, non-histone proteins, and some RNA.
2. Therefore all the listed components are present.

Teacher's Note:
1. Chromatin condenses into chromosomes at cell division.
2. Histone proteins are rich in lysine and arginine.

Question 17: In which phase of mitosis is the individuality of chromosomes lost?
(a) prophase
(b) metaphase
(c) anaphase
(d) telophase
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) telophase

Explanation:
1. In telophase the chromosomes reach the poles and uncoil to form diffuse chromatin.
2. The nuclear envelope reforms around them, so the individual chromosomes can no longer be seen.

Teacher's Note:
1. Chromosomes are best seen at metaphase.
2. Telophase is the reverse of prophase.

Question 18: Arrange the following events of meiosis in the ascending order of their occurrence: A. Disjunction of homologous chromosomes. B. Centromere division. C. Terminalisation of chiasmata. D. Dissolution of the synaptonemal complex. E. Formation of bivalent. F. Activity of recombinase enzyme.
(a) E \(\rightarrow\) F \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) A
(b) E \(\rightarrow\) F \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) B
(c) F \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) B
(d) F \(\rightarrow\) E \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) B \(\rightarrow\) A
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) E \(\rightarrow\) F \(\rightarrow\) D \(\rightarrow\) C \(\rightarrow\) A \(\rightarrow\) B

Explanation:
1. Bivalents form during zygotene (E), and recombinase acts in pachytene during crossing over (F).
2. The synaptonemal complex dissolves in diplotene (D), and chiasmata terminalise in diakinesis (C).
3. Homologous chromosomes disjoin in anaphase I (A) and centromeres divide in anaphase II (B).
4. The order is E, F, D, C, A, B.

Teacher's Note:
1. Prophase I stages: leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, diplotene, diakinesis.
2. Centromere division occurs only in meiosis II.

Question 19: In a triglyceride, glycerol is joined by three ester linkages to three groups \(\mathrm{R_1{-}CO{-}}\), \(\mathrm{R_2{-}CO{-}}\) and \(\mathrm{R_3{-}CO{-}}\). The groups \(\mathrm{R_1}\), \(\mathrm{R_2}\) and \(\mathrm{R_3}\) represent the hydrocarbon chains of :-
(a) nitrogen bases
(b) fatty acids
(c) nucleosides
(d) lecithin
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) fatty acids

Explanation:
1. A triglyceride is formed when the three OH groups of glycerol esterify with three fatty acid molecules.
2. The \(\mathrm{R-CO-}\) units are fatty acid residues, and R is the hydrocarbon chain.

Teacher's Note:
1. Fats are triglycerides with saturated chains and oils with unsaturated chains.
2. Lecithin is a phospholipid with a phosphate group in place of one fatty acid.

Question 20: To be a carbohydrate, a compound should have at least :-
(a) 6 carbon atoms
(b) 3 carbon atoms
(c) 4 carbon atoms
(d) 2 carbon atoms
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 3 carbon atoms

Explanation:
1. The simplest carbohydrates are trioses such as glyceraldehyde and dihydroxyacetone.
2. They have 3 carbon atoms with the formula \(\mathrm{C_3H_6O_3}\).

Teacher's Note:
1. Monosaccharides range from trioses to heptoses.
2. Glucose is a hexose.

Question 21: Which one is a diamino monocarboxylic amino acid?
(a) glutamic acid
(b) lysine
(c) alanine
(d) valine
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) lysine

Explanation:
1. Lysine has two amino groups and one carboxyl group, so it is a basic amino acid.
2. Glutamic acid has two carboxyl groups, and alanine and valine each have one amino and one carboxyl group.

Teacher's Note:
1. Basic amino acids: lysine, arginine and histidine.
2. Acidic amino acids: aspartic and glutamic acid.

Question 22: In the absence of any enzyme, the reaction \(\mathrm{CO_2 + H_2O \rightarrow H_2CO_3}\) is very slow, with the formation of about 200 molecules of \(\mathrm{H_2CO_3}\) per hour. With the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, the reaction speeds up to about :-
(a) formation of \(6\times10^5\) molecules of \(\mathrm{H_2CO_3}\) every second
(b) formation of \(36\times10^5\) molecules of \(\mathrm{H_2CO_3}\) every minute
(c) formation of \(36\times10^6\) molecules of \(\mathrm{H_2CO_3}\) every second
(d) formation of \(6\times10^6\) molecules of \(\mathrm{H_2CO_3}\) every minute
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) formation of \(6\times10^5\) molecules of \(\mathrm{H_2CO_3}\) every second

Explanation:
1. Carbonic anhydrase catalyses the reaction at about \(6\times10^5\) molecules per second.
2. This is about \(10^7\) times faster than the uncatalysed rate.
3. (b) is the same rate as (a) written per minute with a wrong power: \(6\times10^5\) per second is \(36\times10^6\) per minute, which does not match (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Carbonic anhydrase is one of the fastest enzymes.
2. It is a zinc-containing enzyme found in red blood cells.

Question 23: Choose the incorrect statement about facilitated diffusion :-
(a) A concentration gradient must already be present for molecules to diffuse
(b) It is sensitive to inhibitors which react with the lipid side chains
(c) Water channels are made up of 8 different types of aquaporins
(d) ATP is not required
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) It is sensitive to inhibitors which react with the lipid side chains

Explanation:
1. Facilitated diffusion uses carrier or channel proteins and moves molecules down their concentration gradient, so (a) and (d) are correct.
2. Water channels are made of 8 different types of aquaporins, so (c) is correct.
3. The transport is sensitive to inhibitors that react with the protein side chains of the carriers, not with lipids, so (b) is incorrect.

Teacher's Note:
1. Facilitated diffusion is passive, specific, saturable and inhibitable.
2. Active transport requires ATP and works against the gradient.

Question 24: Which of the following sets contains only macronutrients?
(a) K, Mn, Fe and Co
(b) P, Fe, Mn and K
(c) Fe, Co, N and Zn
(d) P, N, K and Mg
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) P, N, K and Mg

Explanation:
1. Macronutrients are required in amounts above 10 mmol per kg of dry matter: C, H, O, N, P, S, K, Ca and Mg.
2. Fe, Mn, Co and Zn are micronutrients (trace elements).
3. The set P, N, K and Mg has only macronutrients.

Teacher's Note:
1. Remember the micronutrients: Fe, Mn, Cu, Zn, B, Mo, Cl, Ni.
2. Co is needed in very small amounts by legumes and certain microbes.

Question 25: The oxygen evolving complex (OEC) :-
(a) is present on the lumen side of the thylakoid membrane
(b) is associated with PS I
(c) is associated with PS II
(d) both (a) and (c) are correct
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) both (a) and (c) are correct

Explanation:
1. The OEC splits water into protons, electrons and oxygen.
2. It is associated with PS II and is located on the lumen (inner) side of the thylakoid membrane, so protons accumulate in the lumen.

Teacher's Note:
1. Water is the source of electrons for PS II.
2. Photolysis of water also releases protons that make the lumen acidic.

Question 26: How many ATP molecules are required in the carboxylation step of the Calvin cycle?
(a) 6
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 18
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) 0

Explanation:
1. Carboxylation is the fixation of \(\mathrm{CO_2}\) to RuBP by RuBisCO to form two molecules of 3-PGA.
2. This step needs no ATP.
3. ATP is used later in the reduction and regeneration phases.

Teacher's Note:
1. The Calvin cycle needs 3 ATP and 2 NADPH for each \(\mathrm{CO_2}\) fixed.
2. RuBisCO is the most abundant enzyme on earth.

Question 27: In glycolysis, 2-phosphoglycerate is converted to phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) with the removal of A, and PEP is then converted into C with the conversion of B to ATP. Identify A, B and C.
(a) A = ATP, B = ADP, C = PGAL
(b) A = \(\mathrm{H_2O}\), B = ATP, C = pyruvic acid
(c) A = ATP, B = \(\mathrm{H_2O}\), C = BiPGA
(d) A = \(\mathrm{H_2O}\), B = ADP, C = pyruvic acid
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) A = \(\mathrm{H_2O}\), B = ADP, C = pyruvic acid

Explanation:
1. Enolase removes a molecule of water from 2-phosphoglycerate to give PEP, so A is \(\mathrm{H_2O}\).
2. Pyruvate kinase transfers a phosphate from PEP to ADP, forming ATP and pyruvic acid.
3. So B is ADP and C is pyruvic acid.

Teacher's Note:
1. This last step is a substrate level phosphorylation.
2. Two molecules of ATP are made per glucose in this step.

Question 28: Which of the following is a 5 carbon (5C) compound?
(a) oxaloacetic acid
(b) phosphoglyceric acid
(c) acetyl CoA
(d) \(\alpha\)-ketoglutaric acid
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) \(\alpha\)-ketoglutaric acid

Explanation:
1. \(\alpha\)-Ketoglutaric acid has 5 carbon atoms.
2. Oxaloacetic acid has 4 carbon atoms, PGA has 3, and acetyl CoA has the 2-carbon acetyl group.

Teacher's Note:
1. In the Krebs cycle: citrate 6C, \(\alpha\)-ketoglutarate 5C, succinate 4C, oxaloacetate 4C.
2. RuBP is the 5C compound of the Calvin cycle.

Question 29: Ethylene is synthesised in large amounts by :-
(a) young leaves
(b) ripening fruits
(c) meristems
(d) flowers
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) ripening fruits

Explanation:
1. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone produced in large amounts by tissues undergoing senescence and by ripening fruits.
2. It promotes fruit ripening.

Teacher's Note:
1. Ethylene is used commercially to ripen fruits such as mango and banana.
2. It is also used to break seed and bud dormancy in some plants.

Question 30: In nature, cleistogamous flowers are :-
(a) self pollinated
(b) wind pollinated
(c) bird pollinated
(d) both self pollinated and wind pollinated
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) self pollinated

Explanation:
1. Cleistogamous flowers never open, so anthers and stigma lie close together in a closed flower.
2. Pollen germinates in the anther and the pollen tubes reach the stigma, so these flowers are always self pollinated.

Teacher's Note:
1. Cleistogamy assures seed set even without pollinators.
2. Examples: Viola (common pansy), Oxalis and Commelina.

Plant Kingdom Morphology and Physiology Objective Questions & Solutions for NEET Biology

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