NEET Biology Human Health and Diseases MCQs Set 05

Biology Objective Questions and Answers: Human Health and Diseases

Access targeted multiple-choice questions for Human Health and Diseases designed to align with the latest NEET academic syllabus for NEET Biology. These objective practice sets help students evaluate their conceptual understanding and improve exam readiness.

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Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1: Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by
(a) fertilisation of an XX egg by a normal Y-bearing sperm
(b) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5
(c) loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5
(d) trisomy of chromosome 21
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5

Explanation:
1. Deletion of part of the short arm of chromosome 5 gives a cat-like cry in infants.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Cri-du-chat: 5p deletion.
2. It is a structural, not numerical, change.

Question 2: Antibodies in our body are complex
(a) lipoproteins
(b) steroids
(c) prostaglandins
(d) glycoproteins
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) glycoproteins

Explanation:
1. Antibodies are glycoproteins (protein with attached sugar groups).
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Immunoglobulins are glycoproteins.
2. Written as H2L2.

Question 3: Sickle cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because
(a) it is controlled by recessive genes
(b) it is not a fatal disease
(c) heterozygotes are resistant to malaria
(d) it is controlled by dominant genes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) heterozygotes are resistant to malaria

Explanation:
1. Carriers (HbA HbS) have some protection against malaria, so the gene stays common where malaria is widespread.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Balanced polymorphism.
2. Heterozygote advantage.

Question 4: Both sickle cell anaemia and Huntington's chorea are
(a) bacteria-related diseases
(b) congenital disorders
(c) pollutant-induced disorders
(d) virus-related diseases
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) congenital disorders

Explanation:
1. Both are inherited genetic disorders present from birth (Huntington's shows later).
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Genetic means congenital.
2. Not infections.

Question 5: Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons are related to
(a) low temperature
(b) hot and humid environment
(c) eating fruits preserved in tin containers
(d) inhalation of seasonal pollen
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) inhalation of seasonal pollen

Explanation:
1. Pollen is a common allergen that triggers mast cells to release histamine in the airways of sensitive people.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Allergens trigger asthma.
2. Pollen is seasonal.

Question 6: Lysozyme present in perspiration, saliva and tears destroys
(a) most virus-infected cells
(b) certain fungi
(c) certain types of bacteria
(d) all viruses
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) certain types of bacteria

Explanation:
1. Lysozyme breaks down bacterial cell walls, so it acts against certain bacteria.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Lysozyme = cell wall digesting enzyme.
2. Part of physiological barriers.

Question 7: Which condition in humans is correctly matched with its chromosomal abnormality?
(a) Erythroblastosis foetalis - X linked
(b) Down syndrome - 44 autosomes + XO
(c) Klinefelter syndrome - 44 autosomes + XXY
(d) Colour blindness - Y linked
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Klinefelter syndrome - 44 autosomes + XXY

Explanation:
1. Klinefelter syndrome has 44 autosomes plus XXY. Erythroblastosis is Rh incompatibility, Down syndrome is trisomy 21, and colour blindness is X linked.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Learn karyotypes of syndromes.
2. Check each pair.

Question 8: The most active phagocytic white blood cells are
(a) eosinophils and lymphocytes
(b) neutrophils and monocytes
(c) neutrophils and eosinophils
(d) lymphocytes and macrophages
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) neutrophils and monocytes

Explanation:
1. Neutrophils and monocytes (which become macrophages) are the main phagocytes.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Cellular barrier of innate immunity.
2. Lymphocytes are not phagocytic.

Question 9: Match the disease with the pathogen, prevention or treatment: (a) Amoebiasis (b) Diphtheria (c) Cholera (d) Syphilis with (i) Treponema pallidum (ii) use only sterilised food and water (iii) DPT vaccine (iv) oral rehydration therapy.
(a) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(b) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(c) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(d) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

Explanation:
1. Amoebiasis is prevented by clean food and water, diphtheria by DPT, cholera is treated by oral rehydration, and syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Match one sure pair first.
2. Syphilis: Treponema.

Question 10: Saliva in the mouth and tears from the eyes belong to which type of barrier of innate immunity?
(a) Physiological barriers
(b) Physical barriers
(c) Cytokine barriers
(d) Cellular barriers
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Physiological barriers

Explanation:
1. Saliva, tears, gastric acid and sweat are physiological barriers that inhibit microbial growth.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Four barriers: physical, physiological, cellular, cytokine.
2. Skin is physical.

Question 11: Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
(a) Typhoid, tuberculosis
(b) Ringworm, AIDS
(c) Common cold, AIDS
(d) Dysentery, common cold
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Common cold, AIDS

Explanation:
1. Common cold (rhinovirus) and AIDS (HIV) are viral. Typhoid and TB are bacterial; ringworm is fungal.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Classify each disease by pathogen.
2. Viral: cold, AIDS, mumps, polio.

Question 12: A person likely to develop tetanus is immunised by administering
(a) weakened germs
(b) dead germs
(c) preformed antibodies
(d) wide spectrum antibiotics
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) preformed antibodies

Explanation:
1. After an injury, ready-made antitetanus antibodies give immediate passive protection since the toxin acts fast.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Passive immunity acts immediately.
2. Toxoid is for prevention.

Question 13: The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers to
(a) thymus
(b) thyroid
(c) thalamus
(d) tonsil
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) thymus

Explanation:
1. T-cells mature in the thymus.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. Thymus lies near the heart.
2. Shrinks with age.

Question 14: Which of the following statements is correct with respect to AIDS?
(a) HIV enters helper T-lymphocytes and reduces their number
(b) HIV is transmitted by eating food with an infected person
(c) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
(d) AIDS patients are completely cured by care and nutrition
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) HIV enters helper T-lymphocytes and reduces their number

Explanation:
1. HIV is a retrovirus that infects helper T cells, multiplies and destroys them, weakening immunity.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. HIV spreads by body fluids, not food.
2. No complete cure yet.

Question 15: Which of the following techniques is safest for the detection of cancers?
(a) Radiography (X-ray)
(b) Computed tomography (CT)
(c) Histopathological studies
(d) MRI scanning
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) MRI scanning

Explanation:
1. MRI uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radio waves, so it avoids the ionising radiation of X-ray and CT.
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Ionising radiation can damage DNA.
2. MRI is non-ionising.

Question 16: Which diagnostic technique would you recommend for a patient suspected of AIDS?
(a) ELISA
(b) MRI
(c) Ultrasound
(d) Widal
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) ELISA

Explanation:
1. ELISA detects antibodies or antigens of HIV in the blood.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. ELISA = enzyme linked immunosorbent assay.
2. Confirmed later by Western blot or PCR.

Question 17: The common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is
(a) not an infectious disease
(b) caused by a virus
(c) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
(d) caused by a Gram-negative bacterium
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) caused by a virus

Explanation:
1. Antibiotics act on bacteria. Rhinoviruses cause the common cold and are unaffected.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Antibiotics do not work on viruses.
2. Rest and fluids help.

Question 18: Cirrhosis of the liver is caused by chronic intake of
(a) tobacco (chewing)
(b) cocaine
(c) opium
(d) alcohol
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (d) alcohol

Explanation:
1. The liver detoxifies alcohol; long heavy use damages liver cells and causes scarring (cirrhosis).
2. So the correct choice is option (d).

Teacher's Note:
1. Liver deals with alcohol.
2. Tobacco chewing causes oral cancer.

Question 19: The motile zygote (ookinete) of Plasmodium occurs in
(a) human RBCs
(b) human liver
(c) gut of female Anopheles
(d) salivary glands of Anopheles
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) gut of female Anopheles

Explanation:
1. Gametes fuse in the mosquito gut, forming a zygote that develops into sporozoites.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Sexual cycle: in mosquito.
2. Asexual cycle: in human.

Question 20: The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating
(a) rheumatoid arthritis
(b) adenosine deaminase deficiency
(c) diabetes mellitus
(d) chicken pox
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) adenosine deaminase deficiency

Explanation:
1. In 1990 a four-year-old girl with ADA deficiency (a form of SCID) received functional ADA gene lymphocytes.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. ADA deficiency affects T cells.
2. It is a monogenic disease.

Question 21: Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?
(a) Each antibody molecule has four light chains
(b) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes
(c) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite of a viper
(d) Antibodies against the smallpox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (c) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite of a viper

Explanation:
1. Snake venom acts fast, so ready-made antivenom antibodies are injected. An antibody has two light and two heavy chains, graft rejection is T-cell mediated, and antibodies come from B-cells.
2. So the correct choice is option (c).

Teacher's Note:
1. Antivenom is passive immunity.
2. T-cells do not make antibodies.

Question 22: Cell-mediated immunity inside the human body is carried out by
(a) erythrocytes
(b) T-lymphocytes
(c) B-lymphocytes
(d) thrombocytes
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) T-lymphocytes

Explanation:
1. T-lymphocytes attack infected cells and grafts directly.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. B-cells: humoral.
2. T-cells: cellular.

Question 23: Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(a) Jaundice
(b) Klinefelter syndrome
(c) Sex of the foetus
(d) Down syndrome
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (a) Jaundice

Explanation:
1. Amniocentesis tests foetal cells in amniotic fluid for chromosomal and metabolic disorders and sex, but not jaundice.
2. So the correct choice is option (a).

Teacher's Note:
1. It checks karyotype and enzyme defects.
2. Misused for sex determination; legally banned for that.

Question 24: Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by
(a) mosquito bite
(b) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
(c) eating imperfectly cooked pork
(d) tse-tse fly
Show Answer & Explanation

Answer: (b) drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris

Explanation:
1. Ascaris eggs pass in faeces and contaminate water, vegetables and soil; swallowing them causes infection.
2. So the correct choice is option (b).

Teacher's Note:
1. Faecal-oral route.
2. Pork: tapeworm.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) for NEET Biology Human Health and Diseases

About Human Health and Diseases MCQs for NEET Biology

Test your conceptual understanding of Human Health and Diseases with these targeted multiple-choice questions. Designed in alignment with the latest NEET curriculum for NEET Biology, these problem sets build accuracy and prepare students for objective exams.

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FAQs

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